Dental Assisting Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Assisting is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for supporting dentists in clinical and administrative roles. The curriculum covers essential topics such as dental anatomy, infection control procedures, chairside assisting techniques, radiology, dental materials, and patient communication. Emphasis is placed on hands-on training, ethical practices, and adherence to safety regulations, preparing students for a dynamic role within dental healthcare teams. Completion of this course prepares individuals for entry-level positions as dental assistants and provides a pathway for further certification and professional growth within the dental field.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 10th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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64 Chapters
2493 Verified Questions
2493 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who was the first dentist to employ a dental assistant?
A)Ida Gray-Rollins
B)C. Edmund Kells
C)G.V. Black
D)Robert Woofendale
Answer: B
Q2) History shows cleft palate repairs 2200 years ago in:
A)China.
B)Korea.
C)Egypt.
D)Germany.
Answer: A
Q3) _____________ is credited with developing the first school of dental hygiene and training the first dental hygienist.
A)Irene Newman
B)Alfred Fones
C)Ann Ehrlich
D)Hazel Torres
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organization that represents the dental assisting profession is:
A)the American Dental Assistants Association.
B)the National Dental Assistant Society.
C)Dental Assistants United.
D)Dental Assistants of America.
Answer: A
Q2) Recommendations for good grooming and appropriate dress include:
A)using an up-to-date perfume or cologne as a form of aromatherapy.
B)limiting use of tobacco products to the outdoors to avoid an odor in treatment areas.
C)considering infection-control requirements when selecting clinical wear.
D)excessive makeup and jewelry, in order to distract patients from disagreeable aspects of their planned dental treatment.
Answer: C
Q3) A responsible person will not:
A)arrive on time.
B)leave promptly at the end of the day.
C)volunteer to help a co-worker.
D)stay until to job is done.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) A __________ may be helpful if the assistant is having difficulty with dental materials.
A)dental supply person
B)dental equipment technician
C)detail person
D)both a and c
Answer: D
Q2) The dental specialty that involves the diagnosis and surgical treatment of diseases,injuries,and defects in the oral and maxillofacial regions is:
A)oral pathology.
B)oral and maxillofacial radiology.
C)orthodontics.
D)oral and maxillofacial surgery.
Answer: D
Q3) Dental public health dentists treat the ______ rather than the individual.
A)association
B)community
C)family
D)general dentist
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A behavior _____ be unethical and still be legal,but it _____ be illegal and still be ethical.
A)can; can
B)can; cannot
C)cannot; can
D)cannot; cannot
Q2) The right to privacy,freedom of choice,and the acceptance of responsibility for one's actions are examples of which ethical principle?
A)Doing no harm
B)Regard for justice
C)Regard for self-determination
D)Promotion of well-being
Q3) You know someone who lost his or her textbook and you find it.By returning it to the owner,you are applying which principle of ethics?
A)Principle of well-being
B)Principle of justice
C)Doing no harm
D)Principle of autonomy
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6
Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are components of the patient's record?
A)Patient financial records
B)Examination records
C)Radiographs
D)Both b and c
Q2) Who owns the patient's original dental records?
A)The patient
B)The dentist
C)Both the patient and the dentist
Q3) When must a dentist refer a patient?
A)When the dentist doesn't want to treat the patient
B)When the case is unusual and conditions are beyond the dentist's scope of expertise
C)When the patient refuses to give consent
D)Both b and c
Q4) A tort can only occur if intentional wrongdoing occurs.
A)True
B)False
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7
Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vertical plane that divides the body into equal left and right halves is the _____ plane.
A)coronal
B)transverse
C)sagittal
D)midsagittal
Q2) Visceral muscle tissue is also known as:
A)nonstriated.
B)involuntary.
C)smooth.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The three imaginary lines used to divide the body into sections are called:
A)division lines.
B)section lines.
C)planes.
D)structural units.
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The digestive process begins in the:
A)mouth.
B)stomach.
C)small intestine.
D)large intestine.
Q2) The smallest elements of blood that play an important role in the clotting of the blood are the:
A)plasma.
B)red blood cells.
C)basophils.
D)platelets.
Q3) The integumentary system:
A)manufactures bile.
B)helps to regulate body temperature.
C)removes excess glucose from the bloodstream and stores it as glycogen.
D)transports food from the pharynx to the stomach.
Q4) Toxic shock syndrome is a disorder of which body system?
A)Female reproductive
B)Urinary
C)Lymphatic
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Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is NOT true of dentin?
A)Dentin makes up the main portion of the tooth structure.
B)Dentin extends almost the entire length of the tooth.
C)Dentin is the hardest tissue in the body.
D)Dentin is capable of growth and repair.
Q2) Any disruption during the formation and fusing of the palate could result in cleft:
A)lip.
B)palate.
C)both a and b.
D) neither a nor b.
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of succedaneous teeth?
A)Succedaneous teeth are permanent teeth.
B)Succedaneous teeth begin forming at 12 to 14 weeks of gestation.
C)Succedaneous teeth are only permanent molars.
D)Succedaneous teeth form during the cap stage of tooth development.
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Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condyloid process of the mandible lies in the:
A)articular eminence.
B)sigmoid notch.
C)coronoid process.
D)glenoid fossa.
Q2) The muscle of facial expression that allows a person to laugh and smile is the:
A)orbicularis oris.
B)buccinator.
C)mentalis.
D)zygomatic major.
Q3) The muscles that work with the TMJ to make all the movement of the mandible possible are the group of muscles of:
A)facial expression.
B)mastication.
C)the floor of the mouth.
D)the tongue.
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11
Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The functions of the taste buds include:
A)tasting food.
B)warning when food is too hot.
C)a and b.
D)none of the above.
Q2) The area inside of the dental arches is considered to be the:
A)buccal vestibule.
B)isthmus of fauces.
C)faucial pillar.
D)oral cavity.
Q3) The fold of tissue at the corner of the eyelids is the:
A)ala.
B)canthus.
C)glabella.
D)tragus.
Q4) Which of the following provide the sense of touch for the tongue?
A)Fungiform papillae
B)Filiform papillae
C)Vallate papillae
D)Both a and c
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Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the dentition is divided into sextants instead of quadrants,how many sextants are there in each arch?
A)3
B)6
C)9
D)12
Q2) The first set of primary teeth is also referred to as _____ teeth.
A)deciduous
B)dentition
C)embrasure
D)succedaneous
Q3) The natural teeth in the dental arch are the:
A)deciduous.
B)dentition.
C)embrasure.
D)succedaneous.
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Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of the primary dentition include:
A)relatively large pulp chambers.
B)darker enamel.
C)relatively thicker enamel.
D)a tooth crown that is longer in relation to the total tooth length.
Q2) The maxillary second premolar differs from the maxillary first premolar in that the: A)cusps of second premolars are not as sharp as those of first premolars.
B)first premolar is more narrow buccolingually than mesiodistally.
C)lingual cusp is smaller than the buccal cusp on the maxillary second premolar.
D)all of the above.
Q3) There are how many premolars in the permanent dentition?
A)2 B)4 C)6 D)8
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14
Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laser caries detectors work by passing a beam through the tooth surface.A clean,healthy tooth will have a baseline reading of near:
A)0.
B)10.
C)52.
D)100.
Q2) Oral bacteria are transmitted to infants through:
A)saliva from a caregiver's kisses.
B)spoons or glassware shared with others.
C)toys shared with other children or siblings.
D)a, b, or c.
Q3) _____ caries is a carious lesion that occurs on the tooth around a restoration.
A)Smooth surface
B)Pit and fissure
C)Recurrent
D)Pulpal
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true of perioscopy?
A)It is a new procedure that uses a miniature dental endoscope with video, lighting, and magnification technology to look into a deep subgingival pocket.
B)It is able to determine the precise location of root deposits, granulation tissue, caries, and root fractures.
C)It assists the operator in identifying and removing calculus that might have been missed.
D)It is painful and requires the use of a local anesthetic before use.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of gingivitis?
A)Difficult to treat and control
B)Loss of connective tissue
C)Loss of bone
D)Inflammation of gingival tissue
Q3) An individual patient's response to oral bacteria and periodontal treatment is constant and predictable.
A)True
B)False
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16
Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition that results from chronic overexposure to fluoride is known as:
A)fluorosis.
B)staining.
C)fluoride poisoning.
D)a toxic reaction.
Q2) Automatic toothbrushes may be helpful for:
A)patients with physical disabilities.
B)motivating children.
C)timing brushing.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Xylitol has been shown to:
A)reduce oral bacteria in a new mother's mouth.
B)increase oral bacteria in a new mother's mouth.
C)reduce oral bacteria transferred to an infant.
D)both a and c.
Q4) Dental caries cannot occur without:
A)dietary proteins.
B)dietary sugars.
C)the presence of specific bacteria in the mouth.
D)both b and c.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Apricots are a good source of which of the following minerals?
A)Calcium
B)Chloride
C)Phosphorus
D)Potassium
Q2) Which term or phrase refers to the components in food that are needed by the body?
A)Nutrition
B)Antioxidants
C)Nutrients
D)The basic four food groups
Q3) Food labeling is regulated by the:
A)ADA.
B)Food and Drug Administration.
C)USDA.
D)Dairy Council.
Q4) It is important to read labels; many times low-fat or reduced-fat foods have replaced fat with sugars.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ is a superficial infection caused by the yeastlike fungus known as Candida albicans.
A)Glossitis
B)Black hairy tongue
C)Candidiasis
D)Cold sore
Q2) The study of oral pathology is important for the dental assistant so as to:
A)be able to diagnose pathologic conditions.
B)recognize the difference between normal and abnormal conditions.
C)check oral conditions for the dentist.
D)explain to the patient that he or she has cancer.
Q3) A(n) _____ is a malignant neoplasm that comes from bone.
A)osteoma
B)osteosarcoma
C)adenocarcinoma
D)leukemia
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Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The state established by some viruses in host cells is known as:
A)latent (dormant).
B)specificity.
C)exposure.
D)none of the above.
Q2) What type of microorganism can live and multiply only inside an appropriate host cell?
A)Bacteria
B)Viruses
C)Protozoa
D)Algae
E)Fungi
Q3) The primary cause of mononucleosis and malignancy of the lymph tissues is: A)herpes zoster.
B)spores.
C)herpes type 1.
D)Epstein-Barr virus.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Sample Questions
Q1) The BBP Standard requires use of protective eyewear:
A)with front but not side protection.
B)with front and side protection (solid side shields).
C)including contact lenses, which are considered to be protective.
D)along with a face shield.
Q2) Training employees on the proper response to an exposure incident in a dental office is the responsibility of the: A)employer.
B)CDC.
C)OSHA.
D)office manager.
Q3) The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove the: A)gloves.
B)protective eyewear.
C)gown.
D)mask.
Q4) The most common route of disease transmission in the dental office is through: A)droplet infection.
B)direct contact with the patient's blood or saliva.
C)indirect contact with surfaces.
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Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the "pros" of complex phenols is that:
A)many preparations are limited to one day of use.
B)they may leave a residual film on treated surfaces.
C)they are sporicidal.
D)they are compatible with metal, glass, rubber, and plastic.
Q2) Housekeeping surfaces:
A)include floors and walls, but not sinks, because they are considered a clinical contact surface.
B)pose a risk for disease transmission in the dental healthcare setting.
C)must be cleaned with a high-level disinfectant/sterilant.
D)only need to be cleaned with a detergent or low-level disinfectant.
Q3) Which item is not single-use-only?
A)Patient napkins
B)Plastic orthodontic brackets
C)Impression trays
D)Irrigating syringes
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Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultrasonic cleaners are used to:
A)loosen and remove debris from instruments.
B)disinfect instruments.
C)reduce risk of hand injury from cuts and punctures that can occur with hand scrubbing.
D)both a and c.
Q2) When using an autoclave to sterilize dental instruments and other items,is it the heat or the pressure that kills the microorganisms?
A)Heat
B)Pressure
C)Both heat and pressure
Q3) What is the best method of determining whether sterilization has occurred?
A)Use biologic monitoring.
B)Check the sterilizer.
C)Check the single-parameter indicator.
D)All of the above are equally good methods.
Q4) _______ is the process of killing all microorganisms,including bacterial spores.
A)Disinfection
B)Sterilization
C)Ultrasonic cleaning
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) OSHA is responsible for ensuring the safety of the: A)employers.
B)patients.
C)employees.
D)none of the above.
Q2) Infection-control procedures practiced in dentistry today are based on the Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003 issued by the: A)Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
B)American Dental Association (ADA).
C)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
D)National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial Research (NIDCR).
Q3) The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is a regulatory agency that investigates ways to help prevent disease and researches the causes,treatments,and cures for both common and rare diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Annual OSHA inspections are mandatory for every dental practice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hazard Communication Program training is required _____ for all continuing employees.
A)only at the time of initial hiring
B)once a month
C)twice a year
D)once a year
Q2) Eyewash units:
A)must be wall mounted.
B)irrigate the eyes with a strong, narrow flow of water, to bathe away contaminants.
C)may be flushed yearly to reduce microbial content in the waterline, according to some manufacturers.
D)must be installed in every workplace where chemicals are used, according to OSHA regulations.
Q3) Wastes are classified as hazardous if they are:
A)ignitable.
B)ingestible.
C)ultrasonic.
D)plastic.
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25
Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a type of "plaque" that develops inside DUWLs and consists of bacterial cells and other microbes that adhere to surfaces and form a protective slime layer.
A)Infection
B)Microfilm
C)Biofilm
D)Slime
Q2) Biofilm can contain many types of bacteria,_______ protozoa.
A)fungi, algae, and B)fungi, and algae, but not C)and fungi, but neither algae nor D)but not fungi, algae, or
Q3) Backflow from low-volume saliva ejectors occurs when the patient:
A)is positioned in a reclined position in the dental chair.
B)closes his or her lips around the tip of a saliva ejector.
C)first turns on the saliva ejector.
D)has been using a saliva ejector for more than 10 minutes.
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eyestrain is caused by not focusing for long enough periods of time during dental procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS),tendons swell and exert pressure on the:
A)carpal bones.
B)volar carpal ligament.
C)median nerve.
D)synovial sheath.
Q3) To prevent eyestrain,the dental assistant should:
A)always wear safety glasses.
B)look up frequently and focus at a distance for about 20 seconds.
C)focus on the dentist's hands and patient's mouth.
D)never look at the curing light.
Q4) The risk for cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs) can increase with:
A)standing in one position for extended periods of time.
B)overflexion and overextension of the wrist.
C)slouching.
D)none of the above.
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once the information and diagnostic-gathering process has been completed,the dentist will:
A)review all significant findings.
B)present a diagnosis to the patient.
C)develop and document a treatment plan with input from the patient.
D)formulate an assessment from the findings of the patient's oral health status.
Q2) The dentist uses a patient _____ as the primary source of information to determine the overall quality of care the patient receives.
A)record
B)encounter form
C)survey
D)treatment plan
Q3) The written medical-dental health history form:
A)eliminates the need for a face-to-face conversation with the patient.
B)should be regarded as minimal information.
C)does not need to be signed and dated by the patient to certify that the information is correct.
D)is considered to be part of the treatment plan.
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Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What device is used to measure the arterial oxygen saturation of the blood?
A)Stethoscope
B)Electrocardiogram
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Sphygmomanometer
Q2) The normal respiration rate for a relaxed adult is _____ breaths per minute.
A)10 to 20
B)30 to 40
C)50 to 60
D)5 to 12
Q3) When a patient's pulse is being taken,his or her arm should be:
A)above his or her shoulder.
B)between his or her knees.
C)unsupported.
D)well supported and extended straight out.
Q4) A tympanic thermometer:
A)shows a digital reading after 30 seconds.
B)uses an infrared signal to provide an accurate reading within 2 seconds.
C)is a long glass tube with a small mercury bulb at the end.
D)is affected by an open mouth, hot or cold drinks, or nose congestion.
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Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Universal Numbering System,what are the numbers of the four lateral incisors?
A)7, 10, 23, 26
B)6, 11, 24, 25
C)8, 9, 24, 25
D)7, 10, 24, 25
Q2) The treatment plan designed to restore the dentition to maximum function and an esthetically pleasing result is the _____ care plan.
A)emergency
B)optimum
C)standard
D)premium
Q3) Intraoral imaging provides the dentist with:
A)panoramic imaging of the oral cavity.
B)radiographic imaging of the oral cavity.
C)magnification of an image for better evaluation.
D)live video of intraoral tissue.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of older people may be affected by periodontal disease?
A)25%
B)30%
C)15%
D)50%
Q2) Xerostomia,"dry mouth" caused by a decreased flow of saliva,can be a result of:
A)alcoholism.
B)diabetes.
C)adverse drug effects.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is true of seizures?
A)Epilepsy can affect up to 10 percent of the general population.
B)Petit mal seizures typically last 5 to 10 minutes.
C)Grand mal seizures may be preceded by an aura.
D)Antiepileptic medications such as Dilantin cause increased salivary flow.
Q4) Which of the following conditions is considered a form of heart disease?
A)Hypertension
B)Pectoral muscle
C)Pulmonary disorder
D)Cancer
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Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prescription pads should be kept where when not in use?
A)In a locked drawer
B)By a telephone
C)On a counter in an operatory in plain sight
D)On the receptionist's desk
Q2) A drug that is applied directly to the site of use is considered a:
A)local-action drug.
B)systemic-action drug.
C)drug that affects the whole body.
D)both a and b.
Q3) Schedule IV drugs have a low abuse potential and have medical usefulness.A patient may have up to _____ refills in a six-month period.
A)ten
B)seven
C)five
D)two
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Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the specific techniques recommended for the performance of chest compressions?
A)Pushing hard and fast
B)Allowing complete chest recoil after each compression
C)Stopping for 30 seconds after each compression
D)Avoiding excessive ventilation
Q2) Myocardial infarction is commonly known as: A)a stroke.
B)hypertension.
C)a heart attack.
D)angina.
Q3) When defibrillation is provided within the first 5 minutes of cardiac arrest,there is about a _____ percent chance that you can save the victim's life.
A)10
B)25
C)50
D)75
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Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal in designing the dental treatment area is to achieve:
A)comfort and mobility for the dental team.
B)privacy and comfort for the dental patient.
C)setup of the dental equipment in the least amount of space possible.
D) both a and b.
Q2) What item(s) are important to have in the reception area for patients to make their wait more comfortable?
A)Current reading material
B)Adequate seating for all patients
C)Proper lighting
D)All of the above
Q3) The administrative area is separate from the reception area and the clinical area to:
A)be HIPAA compliant.
B)provide adequate patient privacy.
C)keep patient charts and information where other patients do not have access.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ideal fulcrum position should be:
A)on the same arch that is being worked on.
B)in the same quadrant that is being worked on.
C)as close to the working area as possible.
D)all of the above.
Q2) What is the purpose of a fulcrum?
A)A finger rest
B)Stabilizes the hand
C)Reduces possibility of slipping or traumatizing tissues of the mouth
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the classification of motions should only be used with single-handed transfer?
A)Class I, Class IV, Class V
B)Class I, Class III, Class V
C)Class I, Class II, Class III
D)Class I, Class II, Class V
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35
Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most convenient and efficient ways to organize instruments and supplies for a specific procedure is the use of:
A)trays.
B)a color-coding system.
C)storage tubs.
D)autoclave bags.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the working end of an explorer?
A)Rigid
B)Thin, wirelike
C)Nonflexible
D)Dull point
Q3) An amalgam _____ is also known as a plugger.
A)condenser
B)knife
C)carrier
D)carver
Q4) The mouth mirror is used for:
A)indirect vision and light reflection.
B)retraction and tissue protection.
C)both A and B
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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Sample Questions
Q1) What design of bur is a 557 and what is its use?
A)Round bur: gains entrance into tooth structure
B)Straight fissure cross-cut: forms internal walls of the preparation
C)Inverted cone: forms retention grooves
D)Pear: extends cavity preparation
Q2) The most commonly shaped finishing burs used are _____-shaped.
A)flame
B)round
C)tapered
D)all of the above
Q3) The first dental handpiece was introduced in the:
A)1920s.
B)1930s.
C)1940s.
D)1950s.
Q4) The high-speed handpiece uses _____ burs.
A)friction-grip
B)straight
C)latch
D)laboratory
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) When holes are punched in the dental dam,they are spaced _____ mm between the edges of the holes.
A)2.0 to 2.5
B)3.0 to 3.5
C)3.5 to 4.0
D)none of the above
Q2) Dental dams are made of either latex or latex-free material and come precut as squares that measure _____ inches.
A)4 × 4
B)5 × 5
C)6 × 6
D)both b and c
Q3) Which of the following is not an indication for using the saliva ejector?
A)Control saliva and moisture accumulation
B)Cementation of crown
C)Removal of solid debris
D)Fluoride treatments
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) In patients with an acute infection in a tooth or soft tissue,local anesthetics are not as effective because of an increase:
A)of blood flow
B)in swelling
C)in lymphocytes (white blood cells)
D)none of the above
Q2) What part of the anesthetic syringe must engage so that aspiration can occur during the injection?
A)Piston rod
B)Thumb ring
C)Barrel
D)Harpoon
Q3) Intravenous sedation:
A)may be performed by any dentist, without a requirement for additional training.
B)may be monitored by a certified dental assistant in some states after completion of a board-certified course.
C)is not permitted for children as a part of the scope of dental practice.
D)requires measurement of the patient's height for dose determination.
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Chapter 38: Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic
Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the earliest signs of overexposure to x-rays may be: A)keratosis.
B)loss of hair.
C)erythema.
D)blindness.
Q2) The location where x-rays are produced in the x-ray tube is called the: A)focal spot.
B)filament.
C)window.
D)PID.
Q3) A good technique for reducing the radiation exposure to both patient and operator is the use of:
A)a lead apron.
B)thinner films.
C)fast film or digital imaging.
D)an automatic processor.
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Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true of storage plates used with (PSP)?
A)They are made of phosphor.
B)The latent image will stay on the plate for hours.
C)They should not be exposed to light before scanning.
D)They are disposable.
Q2) Dental film holders,used to position and hold the dental x-ray films in the patient's mouth,include which of the following?
A)PID
B)XCP and disposable block
C)Eezee-Grip and EndoRay
D)Both b and c
Q3) Developer cutoff will result in a _____ border.
A)straight white
B)straight black
C)curved white
D)curved black
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The daily radiograph is lighter than the reference radiograph.This indicates the developer is too:
A)weak.
B)strong.
C)hot.
D)either a or c.
Q2) The simplest method for ensuring that each box of film is fresh is to:
A)check the expiration date.
B)process one film from each box with fresh chemicals.
C)use the clearing test.
D)all of the above.
Q3) What should be done after removing each exposed film or PSP from the patient's mouth?
A)It should be sterilized in a heat sterilizer.
B)Immerse the packet in disinfecting solution.
C)Wipe saliva from the film packet using a dry 2 × 2-inch gauze sponge or paper towel.
D)Rinse the films off in the sink and then place them in the ultrasonic cleaner.
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Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Dental Association recommends that films be mounted:
A)with the concave portion of the dot facing up.
B)according to the labial mounting method.
C)as if the viewer is standing on the patient's tongue.
D)so the patient's left side is on the viewer's left side.
Q2) When mounting x-rays,it is important to:
A)know the anatomy of the maxilla and mandible.
B)mount the films in the order of the teeth.
C)label the mount with the patient's name and date before mounting the films.
D)all of the above.
Q3) If the patient is in a wheelchair,doesn't have use of his or her upper limbs,and a film sensor holder cannot be used to stabilize the film sensor,you should do which of the following?
A)You may ask the patient's caregiver to assist in holding the film sensor.
B)Hold the film sensor in the patient's mouth while you press the exposure button.
C)Hold the film sensor in the patient's mouth and ask the caregiver to press the exposure button.
D)Turn the wheelchair on its side until gravity holds the film sensor in the proper position.
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Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient's jaws are outside the focal trough,the resulting images are:
A)doubled.
B)ghost images.
C)distorted.
D)too light.
Q2) The part of the unit that aligns the patient's teeth as accurately as possible is the:
A)head positioner.
B)focal trough.
C)Frankfort plane.
D)tubehead.
Q3) Each panoramic unit has a(n) ______ that is used to align the patient's teeth as accurately as possible.
A)head positioner
B)tubehead
C)exposure control
D)power source
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Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) _____ is defined as a mixture of two or more metals.
A)alloy
B)amalgam
C)ceramic
D)porcelain
Q2) _______ is(are) the process(es) of mixing alloy and mercury together to form a mass.
A)Amalgamation
B)Trituration
C)Condensing
D)Both a and b
Q3) Which is not true of nonmercury alloys?
A)They are not sensitive to moisture.
B)They are placed after a resin liner.
C)They require the application of a sealant over the restoration.
D)All of these are true.
Q4) Retention holds a material in place and seals the structures together.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acid etching utilizes etchant containing _____ acid.
A)sulfuric
B)hydrochloric
C)phosphoric
D)citric
Q2) Types of pulpal stimuli may be:
A)physical.
B)mechanical.
C)chemical or biologic.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following materials used as a base needs to set at least 5 minutes before placing the restoration?
A)Polycarboxylate cement
B)ZOE
C)Zinc phosphate cement
D)Desensitizing materials
Q4) If a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cement types is(are) the most versatile and the least irritating to the pulp?
A)ZOE cement
B)Glass ionomer cement
C)Composite resin cement
D)Both a and b
Q2) The cement that gives off an exothermic reaction and must be spatulated over a wide area of a cool,dry,thick glass slab is:
A)zinc oxide-eugenol (ZOE).
B)polycarboxylate.
C)zinc phosphate.
D)composite resin.
Q3) Which of the following will not help to dissipate heat when mixing zinc phosphate cement?
A)Mixing on a cool glass slab
B)Adding small increments
C)Spatulate over a large area of the slab
D)Mixing quickly
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preliminary impressions are used to make:
A)diagnostic models.
B)provisional coverage.
C)orthodontic appliances.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is an acceptable method for altering the setting time of alginate irreversible hydrocolloid impression material?
A)Increase or decrease the water-to-powder ratio.
B)Change the water temperature.
C)Add a colloidal material to the alginate.
D)Use potassium chloride as an accelerator.
Q3) A(n) _____ impression material is used when an extremely accurate final impression is essential.
A)elastomeric
B)alginate
C)reversible hydrocolloid
D)light-cured
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Light-cured resin tray material should be cured:
A)for 10 minutes.
B)off the model.
C)for 2 minutes.
D)without the spacer.
Q2) Light-cured resin can be used to make trays for ________ impressions.
A)edentulous
B)dentulous
C)partially edentulous
D)all types of impressions
Q3) The _____ is used to polish or trim custom trays,provisional coverage,dentures,and indirect restorations.
A)sandblaster
B)model trimmer
C)vacuum former
D)dental lathe
Q4) Type _____ baseplate wax is a softer wax used for denture construction.
A)I
B)II
C)III
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A veneer is applied to the _____ surface of a prepared tooth.
A)incisal
B)facial
C)mesial
D)distal
Q2) During a class III or IV restoration,the dentist may use a _________ to help reproduce the correct contours and contact.
A)Tofflemire matrix system
B)Mylar matrix system
C)universal matrix system
D)gingival retraction cord
Q3) Operative dentistry is the primary responsibility of the:
A)oral surgeon.
B)periodontist.
C)general dentist.
D)endodontist.
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common matrix system used for class II posterior restorations is the:
A)Tofflemire retainer and matrix band.
B)clear plastic matrix.
C)T-band matrix.
D)automatrix system.
Q2) Once the automatrix band is positioned on the tooth,a tightening wrench is inserted into the coil and turned:
A)counterclockwise to tighten the band.
B)until the coil is snug around the tooth.
C)clockwise to tighten the band.
D)to form the contour around the tooth.
Q3) The ____ is used to decrease the size of the matrix band loop after the band has been placed on the tooth.
A)spindle
B)outer knob
C)inner knob
D)guide channels
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement(s) is true of packing retraction cord?
A)It is important to place the retraction cord into the sulcus without damaging the surrounding gingival tissues.
B)The placement and removal of gingival retraction cord are expanded functions and may be performed by a dental assistant trained in expanded functions.
C)Generally, the operator removes the cord while the assistant prepares the impression material.
D)All of these statements are true.
Q2) If a patient has a medical history of cardiovascular disease,the use of:
A)plain cords is advised.
B)cords impregnated with epinephrine is contraindicated.
C)cords is contraindicated and an alternative method is advised.
D)an infuser is advised.
Q3) The material placed under a porcelain restoration to mask tooth discoloration is a(n):
A)pontic.
B)abutment.
C)opaque.
D)luting agent.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Home care instructions for a patient with provisional coverage include:
A)to avoid chewing on the provisional.
B)to brush carefully, avoid flossing as that may pop the provisional off.
C)if the provisional should come off, contact the office immediately so it can be put back on.
D)no special home care instructions are required.
Q2) When fabricating a provisional,undercuts on the proximal surfaces of adjacent teeth can cause _____ the provisional.
A)inadequate margins on
B)locking on of
C)occlusal voids on D)distortion of
Q3) The setting time for the resin placed in a pre-formed crown is approximately ___ seconds.
A)20 to 30
B)30 to 40
C)60
D)90
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Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ begins at the occlusal surface of the tooth and extends downward so it partially encircles the tooth.
A)I-bar retainer
B)I-bar clasp
C)C-clasp
D)rest
Q2) Which of the following choices is an extraoral factor that must be considered before recommending a removable prosthesis for a patient?
A)Dietary habits
B)Musculature
C)Salivary flow
D)Residual alveolar ridge
Q3) An advantage of using acrylic teeth as opposed to porcelain teeth in partial dentures is that:
A)acrylic teeth do not produce a clicking sound during chewing.
B)they do not wear as easily as porcelain teeth do.
C)they do not stain as easily as porcelain teeth do.
D)they are more susceptible to fractures.
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long does it take for the implant to osseointegrate to the bone?
A)One to two weeks
B)One to two months
C)Three to six months
D)Approximately one year
Q2) A properly placed dental implant has a success rate of more than ___%.
A)90
B)80
C)70
D)60
Q3) Which statement is not true concerning the maintenance of dental implants?
A)Plaque and calculus will form on implants and is more difficult to remove from implants than from natural teeth.
B)The health of the peri-implant tissues is a critical factor in the success of dental implants.
C)It is still necessary to schedule patients with implants for cleanings, exams, and radiographs.
D)Dental implants can last as long as 20 years or more.
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55
Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which dentist specializes in the prevention,diagnosis,and treatment of the dental pulp and the tissues that surround the root of the tooth?
A)Periodontist
B)Endodontist
C)Oral surgeon
D)Prosthodontist
Q2) The instrument used to remove coronal pulp tissue and decay from a tooth is the: A)explorer.
B)spoon excavator.
C)Glick Number 1.
D)K-type file.
Q3) If a tooth has a necrotic pulp,it will not respond to:
A)heat and cold stimulus.
B)percussion and palpation.
C)nonvital and vital stimulus.
D)reversible and irreversible stimulus.
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Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Q1) The _____ includes the gathering of information such as periodontal pocket readings,furcations,tooth mobility,presence of exudate (pus),and gingival recession.
A)medical history
B)dental charting and history
C)periodontal examination and charting
D)hygiene exam
Q2) Which statement is not true concerning occlusal adjustments?
A)Excessive biting pressure noted in a specific area is referred to as occlusal trauma.
B)Occlusal equilibration adjusts the patient's bite so that occlusal forces are equally distributed over all the teeth.
C)Occlusal trauma can cause periodontal pocket formation.
D)Tooth mobility can be caused by occlusal trauma.
Q3) _____ radiographs are excellent for determining the extent of crestal bone loss.
A)Anterior periapical
B)Posterior periapical
C)Vertical bite-wing
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The instrument used to loosen the tooth from the socket to make the extraction easier is the:
A)periosteal elevators.
B)root tip picks.
C)forceps.
D)straight elevators.
Q2) Which instrument is used to cut into the soft tissue?
A)Rongeur
B)Retractor
C)Scalpel
D)Mallet
Q3) The surgical team will perform oral surgery procedures in the:
A)the hospital operating room or outpatient surgical suite.
B)the general dentist's office.
C)the private dental office.
D)both a and c.
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The services routinely provided in a pediatric dental office include:
A)preventive procedures.
B)restorative procedures.
C)interceptive orthodontics.
D)all of the above.
Q2) When performing a pulpotomy of a primary tooth,the dentist will use a(n) ______ to remove the dental pulp.
A)handpiece with a round bur.
B)handpiece with a tapered bur.
C)explorer.
D)spoon excavator.
Q3) The success rate for replantation of permanent teeth is highest when the tooth is replanted within _____ of the avulsion.
A)30 minutes
B)60 minutes
C)2 hours
D)4 hours
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59
Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Selective polishing is recommended,because the:
A)abrasive agent used during coronal polishing actually removes a small amount of the fluoride-rich outer enamel layer.
B)abrasive agent used during coronal polishing actually removes a small amount of the fluoride-depleted outer enamel layer.
C)abrasive agent used during coronal polishing impedes uptake of fluoride by the outer layer of enamel.
D)fluoride contained in the abrasive agent is not taken up by the teeth.
Q2) A right-handed operator generally begins seated at ____ o'clock and a left-handed operator at _____ o'clock.
A)8; 3
B)11; 1
C)10; 2
D)anywhere the operator is comfortable
Q3) Bristle brushes are used to remove stains from:
A)exposed cementum.
B)exposed dentin.
C)deep pits and fissures on the enamel surfaces.
D)interproximal subgingival areas.
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you use an air polishing device that used sodium bicarbonate for cleaning enamel prior to sealant placement,the etching step should be repeated for a second time,or _____ should be applied to the surface for 10 seconds to neutralize the sodium bicarbonate and then thoroughly rinsed off with water prior to applying the etch.
A)surgical soap
B)chlorhexidine
C)3% hydrogen peroxide
D)sodium hypochlorite
Q2) Clinical researchers have shown that sealing the margins of amalgam and composite restorations with unfilled resins will do which of the following?
1)Promote microleakage.
2)Arrest the progression of caries.
3)Preserve existing restorations .
4)Preserve tooth structure.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)2, 3, 4
C)3, 4
D)4 only
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The headgear tube:
A)is usually placed on the upper first molar bands.
B)stabilizes the ends of the facebow.
C)both a and b.
D)neither a or b.
Q2) In ______,the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary permanent first molar occludes in the interdental space between the distal cusp of the mandibular first second premolar.
A)distoclusion
B)labioversion
C)linguoversion
D)mesioclusion
Q3) Severe malocclusion and dental facial deformities,both of which can cause social stigma and have a negative impact a patient's self esteem,are examples of:
A)a psychosocial function adversity.
B)an oral function adversity.
C)dental disease.
D)both a and c.
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62
Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41127
Sample Questions
Q1) Closed-ended questions are used to:
A)obtain information.
B)maintain control of the conversation.
C)close a conversation.
D)build a relationship with the patient.
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A)Americans spend more time with their coworkers than their own families.
B)How well you get along with your coworkers can affect the patient's opinion of the dental practice.
C)Since everyone in the office has his or her own responsibilities, teamwork does not play a role in the patient's perception of the practice.
D)A patient can tell quickly the level of harmony that exists in a dental practice.
Q3) Conflict is defined as:
A)stress.
B)harassment.
C)differences.
D)socialization.
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Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41128
Sample Questions
Q1) The continuing care program of regularly scheduled preventive care is also called:
A)preventive scheduling.
B)a preventive treatment plan.
C)a preventive recall program.
D)a hygiene program.
Q2) A patient with an emergency:
A)is only a patient of record that may be in pain and needs to be seen immediately.
B)will come at the first available time.
C)should be seen in the office at all costs so the dentist will not be charged with abandonment.
D)should be referred to another dentist if they are not a patient of record.
Q3) The maximum quantity of a product to be ordered at one time is called the:
A)shelf life.
B)rate of use.
C)reorder quantity.
D)reorder point.
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64
Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41129
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient has a long outstanding debt to the dental office,what is the most effective method of collection?
A)Collection letters
B)Collection telephone calls
C)Collection agencies
D)Small claims court
Q2) If the dentist gives you a professional discount of 25% and your total fee for treatment is $210.00,what is the balance you owe for that treatment?
A)$52.50
B)$157.50
C)$204.00
D)$262.50
Q3) In insurance,the dentist who provides the treatment to the patient is the:
A)subscriber.
B)group.
C)carrier.
D)provider.
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Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41130
Sample Questions
Q1) A career opportunity for a dental assistant in _____ would involve collecting data and reporting statistics on specific public health issues and services such as fluoridation,the incidence of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS),and care for specific population groups,such as older adults,Native Americans,or migrant workers.
A)a hospital doing research
B)an insurance company
C)dental schools
D)public health and government programs
Q2) The purpose of an employment interview is to allow:
A)the dentist to determine whether you are the right employee for the position.
B)you to gather information to help you determine whether you would be happy working in that position.
C)the staff to meet you to see if you would fit in.
D)both a and b.
Q3) When submitting a cover letter with a resume,the correct salutation would be:
A)To Whom It May Concern.
B)Dear Sir or Dear Madam.
C)Dear Dr. (name of the dentist).
D)Hello.
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