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Dental Anatomy is a foundational course that explores the structure, form, and function of human teeth. It covers the morphology of each type of tooth, including crowns and roots, and examines the relationships between teeth and supporting oral structures. The course also delves into the development, eruption, and variations in dental anatomy, as well as the identification of teeth and their role in occlusion and mastication. Through both theoretical study and practical exercises, students gain essential knowledge for clinical practice in dentistry by understanding normal dental anatomy as a basis for diagnosing and treating oral health conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Illustrated Anatomy of the Head and Neck 4th Edition by Margaret J. Fehrenbach
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is in anatomic position, what is the surface of the palms of the hand considered?
A) Anterior
B) Lateral
C) Medial
D) Posterior
Answer: A
Q2) An area closer to the median plane is considered by anatomists to be distal, and an area farther from the median plane is considered proximal.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: B
Q3) What is the anatomic relationship of the shoulders to the hips?
A) Deep
B) Medial
C) Inferior
D) Superior
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the vertical groove located at the midline superior to the upper lip that extends downward on the skin from the nasal septum?
A) Philtrum
B) Tubercle
C) Labial commissure
D) Nasolabial sulcus
Answer: A
Q2) The superior and posterior free margin of the auricle is the helix, which ends inferiorly at the lobule. The lobule is a small flap of tissue that is the part of the auricle anterior to the external acoustic meatus.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Answer: C
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following openings within the orbit connect the orbit with the cranial cavity?
A) Cribriform plate
B) Infraorbital foramen
C) Inferior orbital fissure
D) Superior orbital fissure
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following skull bones are considered to be paired cranial bones?
A) Maxillary bones
B) Temporal bones
C) Lacrimal bones
D) Zygomatic bones
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following landmarks needs to be noted during the administration of a local anesthetic agent to the maxillary posterior teeth?
A) Infraorbital foramen
B) Retromolar pad
C) Maxillary tuberosity
D) Zygomatic process of the maxilla
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles listed below does NOT serve to elevate the upper lip?
A) Levator anguli oris muscle
B) Levator labii superioris alaeque nasi muscle
C) Risorius muscle
D) Zygomaticus major muscle
Q2) Which of the following muscles is NOT considered a suprahyoid muscle?
A) Digastric muscle
B) Mylohyoid muscle
C) Stylohyoid muscle
D) Sternothyroid muscle
Q3) Facial paralysis can be either temporary or permanent when involving which of the following patient case histories?
A) Trigeminal neuralgia
B) Cerebrovascular accident
C) Parotid salivary gland cancer
D) Peripheral neurectomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the following list of actions involving the temporomandibular joint, select those that are DIRECTLY associated with lateral deviation of the joint.
A) Single lateral pterygoid muscle contraction
B) Gliding movement
C) Rotational movement
D) Both lateral pterygoid muscle contractions
Q2) The dental professional plays an important role in the recognition, treatment, and maintenance of patients with temporomandibular disorder (TMD). All signs and symptoms related to TMD need to be recorded by the dental professional, as well as any parafunctional habits and related systematic diseases.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, the second is false.
D) The first statement is false, the second is true.
Q3) What is another term used for articular fossa of the temporomandibular joint?
A) Submandibular
B) Glenoid
C) Pterygoid
D) Temporal
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Q1) From the following list of terms concerning compromised blood vessels, select the terms that are associated DIRECTLY with clot formation.
A) Thrombus
B) Embolus
C) Hematoma
D) Hemorrhage
E) Varicosity
Q2) Blood vessels are MORE numerous than lymphatic vessels. However, the venous blood vessels MAINLY parallel the lymphatic vessels.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Which term is BEST used to describe a blood vessel that travels to the heart carrying blood?
A) Arteriole
B) Artery
C) Capillary
D) Vein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smaller palpebral part lies close to the eye, along the inner surface of the eyelid; if the upper eyelid is everted, the palpebral part can be seen.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Which of the following arteries can be associated with bleeding with trauma to the sublingual salivary glands?
A) Inferior thyroid artery
B) Sublingual artery
C) Facial artery
D) Lingual artery
Q3) Which type of secretion is produced from MOST minor salivary glands within the oral cavity?
A) Only mucous secretion
B) Only serous secretion
C) Mainly mucous secretion
D) Mainly serous secretion
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Q1) When a patient complains of pain associated with a burn caused by hot coffee on the anterior dorsal surface of the tongue, which of the following nerves transmits this pain?
A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
B) Facial nerve
C) Vestibulocochlear nerve
D) Hypoglossal nerve
Q2) From the following list of descriptions, select those which can be used for the middle superior alveolar nerve.
A) Present in all patients
B) Communicates with adjacent nerves
C) May be absent in some patients
D) Never communicates with adjacent nerves
Q3) What structure could be DIRECTLY damaged resulting in disruption of the nasopalatine nerve?
A) Nasal bones
B) Nasal septum
C) Frontal bone
D) Bridge of nose
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering a local anesthetic agent to a patient's teeth and their related dental structures, which three bones of the head and neck contain the landmarks essential for proper injection technique?
A) Maxillae, mandible, and temporal bones
B) Maxillae, mandible, and zygomatic bones
C) Maxillae, mandible, and palatine bones
D) Maxillae, mandible, and sphenoid bones
Q2) A restoration will be placed on the distal surface of the maxillary first premolar. Which of the following local anesthetic nerve blocks MUST be administered?
A) Anterior superior alveolar nerve block
B) Middle superior alveolar nerve block
C) Nasopalatine nerve block
D) Inferior alveolar nerve block
Q3) From the following list of descriptions, select those that are factors involved in maxillary nerve anesthesia.
A) Thinner facial surface bone over teeth
B) Less variation exists in anatomy
C) More variation exists in anatomy
D) Thicker facial surface bone over teeth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lymphatics of the right side of the head and the neck converge by way of the right jugular trunk. These lymphatics then join the lymphatics from the right arm and thorax to form the thoracic duct.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) The dental professional needs to remember that the lymph nodes NEVER drain other structures of the head and neck but only the teeth and associated structures. A patient may need a referral when lymph nodes are palpable due to a disease process.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) The retroauricular lymph nodes are also known by which of the following terms?
A) Mastoid lymph nodes
B) Facial lymph nodes
C) Deep parotid lymph nodes
D) Retropharyngeal lymph nodes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fasciae is also known as pretracheal fascia?
A) Visceral fascia
B) Prevertebral fascia
C) Buccopharyngeal fascia
D) Investing fascia
Q2) A dental professional MUST have knowledge of the anatomic aspects of the spaces of the head and neck when examining a patient BECAUSE these spaces can be involved in infections arising in dental tissue.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) Which of the following muscles creates a division between the submandibular and sublingual spaces?
A) Mylohyoid muscle
B) Intrinsic muscles of the tongue
C) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
D) Platysma muscle
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Q1) Which of the following signs and symptoms CANNOT be used to describe cavernous sinus thrombosis?
A) Fever
B) Drowsiness
C) Bradycardia
D) Rapid pulse
Q2) Which of the following terms is BEST used to describe an infection with suppuration resulting from the entrapment of pathogens in a contained space?
A) Cellulitis
B) Abscess
C) Fistula
D) Embolus
Q3) The loss of which of the following is noted during an examination of a patient with abducens nerve paralysis?
A) Hearing
B) Smelling sensation
C) Eyeball movement
D) Tongue movement
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