Dental Anatomy Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Anatomy is a foundational course that explores the structure, function, and development of human teeth and their supporting tissues. Students will learn about tooth morphology, identification, and nomenclature, as well as the anatomical differences between primary and permanent dentitions. The course covers occlusion, the relationship of teeth within dental arches, and the anatomical features critical for dental practice, such as root morphology and their significance in restorative and clinical procedures. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical understanding and practical identification skills essential for further study in dentistry and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy of Orofacial Structures 7th Edition by Richard W. Brand
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Chapter 1: Oral Cavity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The small bony growths that commonly occur on the buccal cortical plate of the maxillae and the mandible are called
A) Torus palatinus
B) Mandibular tori
C) Exostoses
D) Maxillary tuberosity
Answer: C
Q2) Beneath the incisive papilla is an injection site called the greater palatine foramen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Contraction of which muscle raises the tongue upward?
A) Mylohyoid
B) Palatopharyngeal
C) Palatoglossal
D) Levator glossal
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Tooth: Functions and Terms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental tissue that most resembles bone is
A) Cementum
B) Dentin
C) Enamel
D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q2) The tooth surface facing the lip is called the mesial surface. The corresponding surface facing the cheek is called the distal surface.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: D
Q3) The pulp is composed of which of the following tissues (select all that apply)?
A) Lymph tissue
B) Connective tissue
C) Nerve tissue
D) Odontoblasts
E) Alveolus
Answer: A, B, C, D
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Chapter 3: Fundamental and Preventive Curvatures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following statements is true of the curvature of the CEJ EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) The curvature of the cervical line, or CEJ, depends on the height of the contact area.
B) The curvature of the cervical line, or CEJ, depends on the diameter of the crown.
C) The mandibular anterior teeth show the greatest amount of curvature of the cervical line.
D) The more anterior the tooth, the greater is the curvature of the cervical line.
Answer: C
Q2) A molar with little or no curvature on the buccal surface would result in
A) Open contact area
B) Overstimulation of gingiva
C) Inadequate stimulation of gingiva
D) Difficult oral hygiene access
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Dentition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Permanent first molars are succedaneous teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the Universal System the letter L represents the ________________.
Q3) The right quadrant refers to the patient's right side.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Universal system code for the permanent maxillary right first premolar is
Q5) In the Palmer System, permanent central incisors are assigned the number
A) 1
B) 5
C) 8
D) 24
Q6) A missing tooth is given a symbol in any of the classification systems.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Only the Palmer and Universal System use letters to represent deciduous teeth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Development, Form, and Eruption
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rounded protuberances on the incisal edge of a newly erupted incisor are called
A) Mamelons
B) Developmental grooves
C) Cusp tips
D) Tooth buds
E) Attrition
Q2) A tooth with two cusps, such as a maxillary premolar, was formed from two lobes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Third molars are the most unpredictable of all teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Calcification of all deciduous teeth begins near the end of the sixth month in utero.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The crypt will become the tooth socket.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Occlusion
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Q1) Dr. P. R. Begg described a dental classification system based on the relationship of the permanent first molars.
A)True B)False
Q2) In class I occlusion the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
A)True B)False
Q3) An 11-year-old child presents with wide spaces between mandibular second premolars and permanent first molars. These spaces are typical of
A) Mesial step
B) Distal step
C) Leeway space
D) Flush terminal plane
Q4) Tongue thrusting can cause an overbite. A)True B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Dental Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enamel dysplasia is associated with each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Fluorosis
B) Amelogenesis imperfecta
C) Turner's tooth
D) Enamel hypocalcification
E) Dilaceration
Q2) Tetracycline staining is an enamel dysplasia that occurs because an expectant mother or young child with tooth crowns still developing takes the antibiotic tetracycline.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) Anomalies are caused by intrinsic factors only.
A)True
B)False
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9
Chapter 8: Supporting Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Periodontal ligament fibers that extend from the tooth to the alveolar crest are called
A) Horizontal
B) Oblique
C) Apical
D) Interradicular
E) Alveolar crest fibers
Q2) With regard to apposition and resorption, on which tissue are these activities MOST active?
A) Dentin
B) Bone
C) Cementum
D) Periodontal ligament
Q3) Inflammation of the gingival papilla is easily recognized because the area takes on a color that is more red than normal.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Chapter 9: Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a common result of occlusal trauma EXCEPT for one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Muscle pain
B) Tighter contact areas
C) Nerve trauma
D) Periodontal pocketing
Q2) When restoring the anatomy of a decayed tooth each of the following should be recreated EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) Buccal and lingual contour
B) Deep occlusal pits and grooves
C) Interproximal contact area
D) Occlusal contact point
Q3) Which of the following accurately describe preventive clinical considerations of existing dental conditions (select all that apply)?
A) Polishing restorations
B) Root planing
C) Using amalgam to fill a tooth
D) Removing plaque and calculus
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Chapter 10: Tooth Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lingual cusp of the maxillary first premolar is longer than the facial cusp. This tooth often has two roots, one mesial and one distal.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The cusp of Carabelli is located on the _____ molar.
A) Mandibular first
B) Mandibular second
C) Maxillary first
D) Maxillary second
Q3) Which incisor exhibits a slight distolingual rotation?
A) Maxillary central
B) Maxillary lateral
C) Mandibular central
D) Mandibular lateral
Q4) On anterior teeth, the curvature of the CEJ is the same on mesial and distal surfaces.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Root Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A slight amount of mobility is not considered normal. Orthodontics can help with bone remodeling that can prevent even slight tooth mobility.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Root pain always means that dental caries is present.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cementum covering the root is thick and smooth when first formed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient who has sensitivity in the mandibular anterior area due to abrasion is interested in having her teeth bleached. Which factor could contribute to her sensitivity?
A) Discolored teeth
B) Thin, uneven cementum
C) Root canal treatment on mandibular central incisors
D) Slight mobility
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Chapter 12: Incisors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true of the permanent central incisor EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Evidence of calcification occurs at three months.
B) This is the widest mesiodistally of any of the anterior teeth.
C) Root formation is completed by six years of age.
D) Gemination is an anomaly that sometimes occurs.
E) Development is usually normal.
Q2) Mandibular incisors do not have marginal ridges.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which incisor has a lingual pit?
A) Maxillary central
B) Maxillary lateral
C) Mandibular central
D) Mandibular lateral
Q4) Mandibular lateral incisors are distolingually inclined when viewed incisally.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Canines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The root of the mandibular canine is sometimes bifurcated like the A) Maxillary lateral
B) Maxillary canine
C) Mandibular lateral
D) None of the above
Q2) Although the labiolingual and mesiodistal widths of the maxillary canine are about equal, the crown is usually wider mesiodistally. Viewed from the incisal aspect, the cusp tip of the maxillary canine is labial and mesial to the center of the crown.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true, the second is false.
C) The first statement is false, the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) If a lingual ridge is present, there will be two lingual fossae.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cusp tip of the maxillary canine is formed by the junction of four ridges.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Premolars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any ridge that extends from the cusp tip to the central groove of the occlusal surface is called a marginal ridge. When two marginal ridges join, after traversing the tooth buccolingually, they form a transverse ridge.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Which selection best describes the roots of the maxillary first premolar?
A) Two roots, one mesial and one distal
B) Two roots, one buccal and one lingual
C) Fused roots
D) One root only
Q3) Which of the following are true of the maxillary second premolars (select all that apply)?
A) Evidence of calcification is seen at 2 years of age.
B) Completion of enamel formation occurs at 4 years of age.
C) Eruption occurs at 11 to 13 years of age.
D) Root formation is completed by 12 to 14 years of age.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Molars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maxillary and mandibular first molars have a fifth or supplemental cusp. This additional cusp, the cusp of Carabelli, is located on the mesiolingual cusp tip.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Compared with first molars, third molars most often have _____ roots.
A) More
B) Longer
C) Closer
D) Less defined
Q3) The distal contact area of the mandibular right first molar is located on the distal cusp. This contact area centered over the distal root.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Deciduous Dentition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deciduous maxillary molars have a well-developed cusp of Carabelli.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An extra margin of space is available for the eruption of the permanent canine as well as the first and second premolars because the formation of diastemas provides this extra space.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) The deciduous lateral incisors erupt prior to the central incisors. Lateral incisors erupt between 13 and 19 months whereas central incisors erupt between 16 and 22 months.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Basic Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Points of intracellular modifications that help hold cells together are called
A) Merocrine secretions
B) Desmosomes
C) Stratum spinosum
D) Basement membrane
Q2) An increase in cristae indicates _____ cell.
A) Foreign substances in the
B) Less mitochondria in the
C) A less active
D) A more active
Q3) Bone resorption is involved in the process of bone remodeling.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Purkinje's fibers are composed of specialized nerve cells. They conduct messages through the heart to help it contract properly.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 18: Development of Orofacial Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ethnic group is most likely to have a combined cleft lip and palate?
A) Caucasians
B) Asians
C) African Americans
D) There is very little differentiation by ethnicity.
Q2) A cyst can form during the fusion of the palate. If the cyst develops along the fusion line of the two palatal shelves, it is known as a globulomaxillary cyst.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) A globulomaxillary cyst results from improper fusion of the maxillary and mandibular processes. This cyst lies between the maxillary lateral incisor and canine.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Dental Lamina and Enamel Organ
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Q1) The clefting that occurs in the thickened vestibular lamina eventually becomes a mucogingival groove. The vestibular lamina is a thickening of oral epithelium in a lingual direction.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The first stage of development of the enamel organ is the cap stage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The dental papilla is first seen in the _____ stage.
A) Early bud
B) Late bud
C) Cap
D) Bell
Q4) The earliest signs of tooth development are seen during the tenth week in utero.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Enamel, Dentin, and Pulp
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental papilla is derived from the ectoderm. It determines the shape of the developing crown.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Peripheral cells of the dental papilla are called ameloblasts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each of the following is true of enamel EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Enamel is the hardest structure of the body.
B) Enamel is developed from the inner enamel epithelium, which is derived from mesoderm.
C) Enamel is about 96% inorganic.
D) Enamel structure is composed of the rod sheath and the enamel rod.
Q4) The asymmetrical bulging end shape within the ameloblasts is called the A) Imbrication lines
B) Striae of Retzius
C) Tomes' process
D) Maturation phase
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Root Formation and Attachment Apparatus
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Q1) Development of the dentinocemental junction (DCJ) involves newly formed odontoblasts and cementoblasts. The root sheath must separate from the dentinal surface to establish the dentinocemental junction (DCJ).
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The epithelial diaphragm is parallel to the root sheath.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Enamel pearls (select all that apply):
A) Are formed by cementocytes
B) Are usually found in root furcations
C) Are small elevators of enamel
D) Dissolve after root completion
E) Often cause periodontal cysts
Q4) The cortical plate is typically compact bone with an atypical periosteum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Eruption and Shedding of Teeth
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Q1) Root elongation is the main factor in the tooth's eruption into the oral cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The successional lamina is seen only facial/buccal to the anterior primary teeth because the permanent anteriors erupt slightly lingual to their primary counterparts, while the permanent posterior teeth lie below the primary and erupt through their established alveolus.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) All of the following are characteristic of the posteruptive stage EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Root development
B) Occlusal wear
C) Mesial drift
D) Supra-eruption
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24
Chapter 23: Oral Mucous Membrane
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Q1) The col is the part of the interdental papilla that
A) Is generally keratinized
B) Surrounds the tooth interproximally
C) Is apical to the contact area
D) Is part of the facial free gingiva
E) The col is not part of the interdental papilla.
Q2) Sleep apnea is caused by inadequate connective tissue of the hard palate. This condition cause patients to experience deep sleep, but for very limited periods of time.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Which of the following accurately describe the gingival sulcus (select all that apply)?
A) The average depth is about 2 mm.
B) It is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
C) The attachment epithelium is located at the apical portion of the sulcus.
D) The free gingival groove is always visibly apparent.
E) The lining epithelium is keratinized.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Tongue
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Q1) The fungiform papillae do not have taste buds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lingual tonsils help to fight infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a muscle that originates from an outside structure but inserts into the tongue?
A) Hyoglossus
B) Genial tubercles
C) Vertical group
D) Circumvallate
Q4) The genioglossus muscle is considered extrinsic because it starts and ends wholly in the tongue.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Chapter 25: Salivary Glands
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Q1) The acinus with the largest lumen is the serous type.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The squid-like appearance of a myoepithelial cell is due to
A) Cellular projections
B) Vasodilation
C) Intralobular ducts
D) Interlobular ducts
Q3) Acini are the
A) Mucous and serous secretions
B) Connective tissue capsules
C) Secretory endpieces
D) Intratubular ducts
Q4) A duct that has infolds of the basal cell membrane is a striated duct. Intercalated ducts, also striated, are very small and directly drain the acini.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 26: Osteology of the Skull
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Q1) The coronoid process is involved in the temporomandibular (TMJ) articulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The anterior nasal spine is important radiographically because it is a landmark frequently used to locate impacted third molars.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) The structure that is composed of the vomer and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone is the
A) Inferior nasal conchae
B) Vertical nasal septum
C) Inferior orbit
D) Lateral nasal orbit
Q4) From the inferior view of the skull, the _____________ is located between the maxilla and the palatine bone.
Q5) Another name for the cheekbone is the ___________ bone.
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Chapter 27: Nose, Nasal Cavity, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Q1) The __________ ethmoid sinuses are located within the ethmoid bulla.
Q2) Each of the following is true of the maxillary sinus EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) The maxillary sinuses are the largest of the paranasal sinuses.
B) The maxillary sinuses open into the posterior end of the hiatus semilunaris through one or more openings.
C) The superior border of the maxillary sinus is the floor of the orbit.
D) The maxillary sinus is one anatomic structure that almost never varies among individuals.
E) During a nasal infection swelling occurs in the nasal mucosa.
Q3) Most of the openings into the nasal cavity from other areas are known as the sphenoid sinuses. There are four pairs of paranasal sinuses.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The area underneath each concha is known as a __________.
Q5) The sinuses that are subdivided into numerous small compartments are the ______ sinuses.
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Chapter 28: Muscles of Mastication, Hyoid Muscles, and Sternocleidomastoid
and Trapezius Muscles
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Q1) The muscles of mastication are innervated by the facial nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sternocleidomastoid muscle has an origin at the superior border of the scapula. When the muscle contracts it pulls the hyoid bone down.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) During an extraoral examination it is necessary to palpate beneath the sternothyroid muscle because enlarged lymph nodes may be lying against the internal jugular vein in the neck.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q4) The insertion of a muscle is attached to the more movable structure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Temporomandibular Joint
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19595
Sample Questions
Q1) If the condyle moves too far anteriorly (during typical functions), it may move to the height of the articular eminence. This movement frequently causes difficulty in opening the mouth.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The temporomandibular ligament helps prevent displacement of the condyle in each of the following directions EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) Lateral
B) Posterior
C) Inferior
D) Rotational
Q3) The intermediate zone is the thin middle area of the articular disc. The thick posterior area of the articular disc is called the posterior zone.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Muscles of Facial Expression
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29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19596
Sample Questions
Q1) The orbicularis oris and orbicularis oculi circle the oral cavity. The muscles of the orbicularis oculi circle the lips like a purse string.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The facial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression and mastication. The facial nerve is the fifth cranial nerve.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Which muscle originates from the lower rim of the orbit?
A) Orbicularis oris
B) Procerus
C) Levator labii superioris
D) Levator anguli oris
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Chapter 31: Soft Palate and Pharynx
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although the palatopharyngeal muscle elevates the pharynx, it also acts upon the soft palate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pharyngeal elevator muscles elevate and dilate the pharynx. These actions are necessary to prevent food from entering the esophagus.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Peristaltic contractions take place in the
A) Pharynx
B) Esophagus
C) Epiglottis
D) Larynx
Q4) The stylopharyngeal muscle does not dilate the pharynx, however it does elevate it.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Arterial Supply and Venous Drainage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The external carotid artery has numerous branches that supply the head and neck area with blood. The ascending pharyngeal artery is a branch within the anterior branch.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The blood supply to the tongue comes from the lingual artery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles are supplied by which artery?
A) Maxillary
B) Facial
C) Lingual
D) None of the above
Q4) A pressure point on the mandible for control of facial bleeding is located
A) Where the lingual artery and vein cross the inferior border of the mandible
B) Where the facial artery and vein cross the inferior border of the mandible
C) Between the mental artery and retromandibular vein
D) At the linguofacial trunk
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Chapter 33: Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sublingual gland can appear larger than normal in an edentulous patient because loss of the mandibular ridge of bone makes this gland appear to bulge up in the mandibular vestibule.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) The parotid gland produces the most salivary volume of the major glands. It produces about 60% to 65% of salivary volume.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Which gland is located in the area of the anterior tonsillar pillar?
A) Palatine
B) Glossopalatine
C) Posterior lingual
D) Submandibular
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ophthalmic division is a branch of which nerve?
A) Optic
B) Oculomotor
C) Trigeminal
D) Facial
E) None of the above
Q2) The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the craniofacial outflow. A term commonly used to describe the sympathetic nervous system is the "fight-or-flight-mechanism."
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Eyesight is supplied by cranial nerves II and III.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Motor supply to the tensor veli palatini comes from the trigeminal nerve.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Lymphatics and Spread of Dental Infection
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19601
Sample Questions
Q1) A swelling below the eye is MOST likely caused by infection from the
A) Lacrimal duct
B) Maxillary sinus
C) Maxillary canine
D) Auricular
Q2) The mandibular third molars drain into the upper deep cervical nodes. These nodes drain into the retropharyngeal nodes located behind the throat wall.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The mandibular incisors are drained by which nodes?
A) Submental
B) Submandibular
C) Lower deep cervical
D) Upper deep cervical
Q4) The maxillary premolars are drained by the submental nodes.
A)True
B)False
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