

Dental Anatomy and Physiology
Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction
Dental Anatomy and Physiology explores the structure, function, and development of the human dentition and its supporting tissues. This course covers the morphology of each tooth, dental nomenclature, and occlusal relationships, as well as the physiological mechanisms underlying tooth eruption, mastication, and oral sensation. Students will gain an understanding of the histology of dental tissues, including enamel, dentin, pulp, cementum, and periodontal ligament, and examine the roles these structures play in oral health and disease prevention. Foundational knowledge from this course provides the basis for clinical practice in dentistry and informs the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of dental conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy of Orofacial Structures A Comprehensive Approach 8th Edition by Brand BS DDS
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Chapter 1: Oral Cavity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following structures can readily be viewed when examining the oral cavity EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Fovea palatinae
B) Tonsillar pillars
C) Laryngeal pharynx
D) Sublingual fold
Answer: C
Q2) Torus palatinus is seen on the
A) soft palate
B) hard palate
C) alveolar ridge
D) oral pharynx
Answer: B
Q3) Contraction of which muscle raises the tongue upward?
A) Mylohyoid
B) Palatopharyngeal
C) Palatoglossal
D) Levator glossal
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Tooth: Functions and Terms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sensation of pain is felt in which part of the tooth?
A) Enamel
B) Dentin
C) Cementum
D) Pulp
Answer: D
Q2) Mesio-occlusodistal is a location of a point angle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) How many surfaces does a posterior tooth have?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: D
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Fundamental and Preventive Curvatures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spillway
A)Interdental space
B)Crest of curvature
C)Cervical line
D)Embrasure
E)Occlusal contact
Answer: D
Q2) Embrasures are spillways between teeth that allow food to be shunted away from contact areas.While effective embrasures are self-cleaning,poorly contoured embrasures lead to gingival irritation and breakdown.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: A
Q3) Contact point and contact area are synonymous terms;that is,they mean the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Dentition
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Federation Dentaire Internationale (FDI)the symbol 36 represents the __________.
Q2) Only the Palmer and Universal System use letters to represent deciduous teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Universal system code for the permanent mandibular left canine is ________.
Q4) A missing tooth is given a symbol in any of the classification systems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the FDI system the code for the deciduous mandibular left canine is _______.
Q6) Permanent first molars are succedaneous teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Tooth #65 is the code for the
A) permanent mandibular right second premolar
B) deciduous mandibular left second molar
C) deciduous maxillary left first molar
D) deciduous maxillary right second molar
E) none of the above
Q8) In the Universal system the number 31 represents the ________________.
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Chapter 5: Development, form, and Eruption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Edentulous refers to A) the final dentition period
B) a space maintainer
C) absence of teeth
D) unerupted third molars
Q2) Which of the following selections include teeth that should be present in the dentition of a 3-year-old child (Select all that apply. )?
A) Primary maxillary and mandibular canines
B) Primary maxillary and mandibular central incisors
C) Primary maxillary molars,but NOT primary mandibular molars
D) Primary mandibular central and lateral incisors,but NOT primary mandibular incisors
E) Primary mandibular and maxillary premolars
Q3) Third molars are the most unpredictable of all teeth. A)True
B)False
Q4) Third molar roots continue to calcify until about 25 years of age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Occlusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A position that allows the greatest interdigitation of teeth is referred to in each of the following EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Acquired centric occlusion
B) Centric relation
C) Habitual occlusion
D) Intercuspal position
E) Convenience occlusion
Q2) Class II occlusion is the most common classification of occlusion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a maxillary canine contacts its opposing antagonist before any other teeth occlude,it is described as anterior coupling.When one tooth hits ever so slightly more than the others,premature contact is occurring.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true,the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false,the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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8

Chapter 7: Dental Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Turner's tooth results in notched incisors and mulberry molars because prenatal syphilis disturbs normal tooth formative processes.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) An unusually large tooth is an example of
A) hyperdontia
B) fusion
C) gemination
D) macrodontia
Q3) The MOST commonly missing permanent teeth are the maxillary premolars.The next teeth MOST likely to be missing are the permanent maxillary lateral incisors.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true,the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false,the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 8: Supporting Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alveolar bone is composed of all of the following EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Collagen
B) Intercellular substance
C) Apatite crystals
D) Lamina dura
Q2) The gingival transseptal fibers extend from the cementum of one tooth to the alveolar process of adjacent teeth.The oblique gingival fibers are circular bands of connective tissue that surround teeth.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Orthodontic movement is possible due to which of the following (Select all that apply. )?
A) Bone resorption
B) Bone apposition
C) Periodontal ligament stretching
D) Hydraulic function of periodontal fluids
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Chapter 9: Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tooth migration can begin with 24 hours of an extraction.Tooth migration,otherwise known as mesial drift,of teeth is a natural phenomenon.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true,the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false,the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Adjusting occlusion to discourage premature contact is considered a preventive therapeutic procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a tooth has no antagonist in the opposing arch,the tooth can
A) over-erupt
B) develop periodontal disease
C) develop dental caries
D) develop occlusal trauma
E) All of the above
Q4) A temporary crown can prevent mesial drift.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Tooth Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The distal incisal edges of anterior teeth are more rounded than the mesial incisal edges.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mandibular second molar has
A) four almost equal cusps
B) one small distal cusp,two buccal cusps,and two lingual cusps
C) three buccal cusps and two lingual cusps
D) three major cusps and one minor cusp
Q3) Maxillary premolars
A)Two roots,one mesial and one distal
B)Two facial roots and one lingual root
C)Lingual surface almost smooth
D)Incisal edge angled toward lingual
E)Prominent facial cusp with one or two smaller lingual cusps
F)Mesioincisal angle is relatively sharp
G)Single cusp tip directly over midcenter of root
H)Buccal and lingual cusps approximately equal in height
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Chapter 11: Root Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lateral foramen
A)Rough cementum
B)Opening at apex
C)Cementum meets enamel
D)Cementoma
E)Enamel pearl
F)Accessory canal(s)
G)Secondary dentin
Q2) Maxillary molar root trifurcations are located on each of the following surfaces
EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Mesial
B) Distal
C) Lingual
D) Buccal
Q3) The cementum covering the root is thick and smooth when first formed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Root pain always means that dental caries is present.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Incisors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an anterior crossbite,the maxillary central incisors would exhibit wear in which location?
A) Labioincisal edge
B) Linguloincisal edge
C) Cervical region
D) Apex
Q2) Which incisor has a lingual pit?
A) Maxillary central
B) Maxillary lateral
C) Mandibular central
D) Mandibular lateral
Q3) Teeth most likely to be peg-shaped are the mandibular lateral incisors because the distal developmental lobe is large and located more lingually than its mesial lobe.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Chapter 13: Canines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true of the cusp tip EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) When a canine is newly erupted,the cusp tip is shaped like a mamelon.
B) The maxillary cusp tip is labially inclined.
C) The mandibular cusp tip is lingually inclined.
D) Cusps tips can become abraded with wear.
Q2) Maxillary and mandibular canines have the same time sequence for their
A) calcification
B) enamel completion
C) eruption
D) root completion
Q3) Each of the following incorrectly describes the canine eminence EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Large cingulum
B) Projection of bone
C) Sharp cusp tip
D) Prominent labial ridge
Q4) Mandibular canines usually have a bifurcation in the apical third.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Premolars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are true of the maxillary second premolars (Select all that apply. )?
A) Evidence of calcification is seen at 2 years of age.
B) Completion of enamel formation occurs at 4 years of age.
C) Eruption occurs at 11 to 13 years of age.
D) Root formation is completed by 12 to 14 years of age.
Q2) Which premolar has the smallest lingual cusp?
A) Maxillary first
B) Maxillary second
C) Mandibular first
D) Mandibular second
Q3) All premolars have lingual cusps that are afunctional.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A prominent characteristic of the maxillary first premolar is
A) a mesiolingual developmental groove
B) a central fossa
C) a mesial marginal developmental groove
D) a distal marginal developmental groove
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Chapter 15: Molars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mandibular second molar
A)Small distal cusp
B)Cusp of Carabelli
C)Four equal cusps
D)Often has two fused roots
E)Calcifies at three years of age
Q2) The distal contact area of the mandibular right first molar is located on the distal cusp.This contact area centered over the distal root.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The calcification of both maxillary and mandibular first molars is evident at birth.The calcification of maxillary third molars is evident at 5 years whereas calcification of mandibular third molars is evident at 7 years.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 17

Chapter 16: Deciduous Dentition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest cusp on the deciduous maxillary second molar is the mesiolingual cusp.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The deciduous lateral incisors erupt prior to the central incisors.Lateral incisors erupt between 13 and 19 months whereas central incisors erupt between 16 and 22 months.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The root of the mandibular canine is slightly shorter and more tapered than its maxillary counterpart.Both roots taper facially and apically.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) Deciduous maxillary molars have a well-developed cusp of Carabelli.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18

Chapter 17: Basic Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are true of lysosomes (Select all that apply. )?
A) Lysosomes are cell scavengers.
B) Lysosomes contain enzymes that can consume the cell.
C) Lysosomes are cellular organelles.
D) They can digest foreign material.
E) Lysosomes produce energy.
Q2) Cartilage is generally noncalcified.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mitochondria are significantly responsible for metabolism because these organelles produce and regulate energy.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q4) Bone resorption is involved in the process of bone remodeling.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Development of Orofacial Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Formation of a median palatine cyst occurs during migration of the palatal shelves because a few epithelial cells remain embedded in connective tissue and fail to fuse.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) During formation of the upper lip,the lateral and medial nasal processes fuse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hyoid arch is pharyngeal arch number
A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q4) The hyoid bone arises from the second and third pharyngeal arches.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Dental Lamina and Enamel Organ
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clefting that occurs in the thickened vestibular lamina eventually becomes a mucogingival groove.The vestibular lamina is a thickening of oral epithelium in a lingual direction.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Successional lamina
A)Forms permanent incisors,canines,and premolars
B)Forms cementum
C)Forms enamel
D)Forms mucobuccal fold
E)Forerunner of primary tooth germ
F)Forms pulp
Q3) The dental lamina thickens first at the anterior midline.
A)True B)False
Q4) The vestibular lamina forms in a lingual direction from the dental lamina.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 20: Enamel, Dentin, and Pulp
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peripheral cells of the dental papilla are called ameloblasts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each of the following is true of enamel lamellae EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Lamellae are cracks in enamel that rarely extend through enamel.
B) Enamel lamellae may provide a pathway for bacteria into enamel.
C) The most common type of lamellae is caused by trauma.
D) Rapid changes in temperature from food and drink commonly cause lamellae.
E) An infrequent type of lamellae is a developmental defect.
Q3) Each of the following accurately describes hypocalcified enamel EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Hydroxyapatite crystals are not full size.
B) The tooth may be more caries prone.
C) Enamel is less dense.
D) Enamel is more than 96% inorganic.
Q4) The dental papilla has genetic control over tooth shape.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Root Formation and Attachment Apparatus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indicates occlusal trauma?
A) A thickened lamina dura
B) A layer of spongy bone
C) Pointed (or pyramidal-shaped)interproximal alveolar bone
D) Sharpey's fibers in the alveolar bone
Q2) Enamel pearls (Select all that apply. )
A) are formed by cementocytes
B) are usually found in root furcations
C) are small elevators of enamel
D) dissolve after root completion
E) often cause periodontal cysts
Q3) The transseptal fibers run from the cementum into the free and attached gingival area.The alveolodental fibers run from the cementum to the alveolar bone.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The cortical plate is typically compact bone with an atypical periosteum.
A)True
B)False

Page 23
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Chapter 22: Eruption and Shedding of Teeth
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Q1) All of the following are characteristic of the posteruptive stage EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Root development
B) Occlusal wear
C) Mesial drift
D) Supraeruption
Q2) In the pre-eruptive stage,all of the following occur EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Asymmetrical crown growth
B) Slight crown movement
C) Early root formation
D) Filling in of tooth socket with bone
Q3) If a root is damaged during formation,which of the following would occur?
A) Tooth eruption ceases.
B) Tooth eruption continues.
C) Root decay
D) Ankylosis
Q4) Root elongation is the main factor in the tooth's eruption into the oral cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Oral Mucous Membrane
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Q1) In the maxillary arch,the lingual gingiva changes to alveolar mucosa,as it does in the mandibular arch.Palatal mucosa is thick and keratinized.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Which of the following structures is covered with lining mucosa (Select all that apply. )?
A) Mucosa of the cheeks
B) Mucosa of the soft palate
C) Floor of the mouth
D) Col
E)Alveolar mucosa
F)Attached gingiva
Q3) Stratified squamous epithelium is keratinized.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A mucocele is a typical sebaceous gland found in the buccal mucosa.
A)True
B)False

Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Tongue
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Q1) The genioglossus muscle is considered extrinsic because it starts and ends wholly in the tongue.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) The genioglossus pair of muscles aids in each of the tongue actions EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Protrusion
B) Retrusion
C) Elevation
D) Depression
Q3) The tongue is an epithelial sac filled with muscle,connective tissue,and fat.Muscle component is categorized as voluntary striated muscle.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 26

Chapter 25: Histology of the Salivary Glands
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Q1) Serous acinus secretions are characterized by each of the following EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Serous secretions contain no mucins.
B) More water content
C) Small lumen
D) Cuboidal in shape
E) Primary source of amylase
Q2) Which ducts have mitochondria that appear striped when stained (Select all that apply. )?
A) All intralobular
B) Intralobular intercalated
C) Intralobular secretory
D) All interlobular
E) Some interlobular
Q3) Intralobular ducts are located between lobules.They carry secretions to the next set of ducts.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 26: Osteology of the Skull
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Q1) The vertical portion of the mandible is called the ramus.The mandible is made up of one body,two alveolar processes,and two rami.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Which of the following are found within the nasal cavity (Select all that apply. )?
A) Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
B) Canine eminence
C) Inferior nasal conchae
D) Vomer bone
E) Mastoid process
Q3) Which bones have parts that makeup the temporal fossa (Select all that apply. )?
A) Frontal
B) Parietal
C) Sphenoid
D) Zygomatic
E) Temporal
Q4) Another name for the cheekbone is the ___________ bone.
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Chapter 27: Nose, Nasal Cavity, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory epithelium in the roof of the nasal cavity,upper surfaces of both the superior concha,and nasal septum is modified.This tissue has nerve fibers that can perceive odors.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The most posterior-superior part of the nasal cavity is A) where the ethmoid meets the sphenoid bone.
B) the choana.
C) the superior nasal concha.
D) the ethmoid bulla.
Q3) It is possible that a periapical infection of a tooth may involve the _______sinus.
Q4) The lateral margin of the external nose is known as an ala.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ ethmoid sinuses are located within the ethmoid bulla.
Q6) The area underneath each concha is known as a __________.
Q7) Pain over the eye is most likely caused by infection in the ___________ sinus.
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Chapter 28: Muscles of Mastication, Hyoid Muscles, and Sternocleidomastoid
and Trapezius Muscles
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an extraoral examination,it is necessary to palpate beneath the sternothyroid muscle because enlarged lymph nodes may be lying against the internal jugular vein in the neck.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) The masseter muscle is probably the most powerful of muscles of suprahyoid group.When the masseter contracts,it elevates the mandible,which closes the mouth.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Muscles of mastication are innervated by the facial nerve.
A)True
B)False
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Page 30

Chapter 29: Tempo-romandibular Joint
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mandibular fossa is the area between the condyle and the coronoid process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Night guards are MOST often prescribed for A) malocclusion
B) bruxism
C) stress
D) popping and clicking noises in opening the mouth
Q3) Injury to the medial and lateral attachments to the articular disk rarely causes pain because these areas do not have nerve supply.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q4) The temporomandibular joint (TMJ)has one synovial cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Muscles of Facial Expression
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be influenced by abnormal pressure from muscles that surround the mouth (Select all that apply. )?
A) Mastication
B) Facial expression
C) Ability to close eyelids
D) Raising the upper eyelid
E) Speech patterns
Q2) Which muscle compresses the lips?
A) Levator labii superioris
B) Depressor labii inferioris
C) Levator anguli superioris
D) Orbicularis oris
Q3) Muscles grouped around the mouth do not influence tooth alignment because abnormal pressures from one muscle group are balanced by muscles of other groups.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Page 32

Chapter 31: Soft Palate and Pharynx
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enlarged nostrils give the voice a definite nasal tone because this condition prevents the soft palate from adapting to the posterior pharyngeal wall.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) The esophagus is composed of which type(s)of muscle (Select all that apply. )?
A) Smooth
B) Skeletal
C) Voluntary
D) Involuntary
Q3) In swallowing,the pharyngeal muscles perform which of the following (Select all that apply. )?
A) Dilate
B) Elevate
C) Compress
D) Depress
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Chapter 32: Arterial Supply and Venous Drainage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood from the brachiocephalic vein flows into the vena cava and into the
A) external jugular vein
B) internal jugular
C) superior vena cava
D) heart
Q2) The superficial temporal vein and the mandibular vein form the retromandibular vein.The retromandibular vein divides into an inferior and a superior retromandibular vein.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The maxillary anterior teeth are supplied by which branch of the maxillary artery?
A) Anterior superior alveolar
B) Posterior superior alveolar
C) Descending palatine
D) Pterygopalatine
E) None of the above
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Chapter 33: Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true of the parotid gland EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) It is a purely serous gland.
B) It provides about 25% of the resting salivary volume.
C) The duct pierces the buccinator muscle.
D) It is located within the mental foramen.
Q2) The parotid gland produces the most salivary volume of the major glands.It produces about 60% to 65% of salivary volume.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The labial glands are primarily located on the labial gingiva.These purely serous glands provide watery lubrication for all labial areas.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mucosa of the mandibular lip and labial gingiva will be anesthetized following an inferior alveolar injection because the buccal nerve branches out laterally to supply these areas.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) During times of stress incoming light is blocked to protect the eyes.This is accomplished by dilation of the pupils,a function of the sympathetic nervous system.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Motor supply to the tensor veli palatini comes from the trigeminal nerve.
A)True
B)False
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Page 36

Chapter 35: Lymphatics and Spread of Dental Infection
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mandibular incisors are drained by which nodes?
A) Submental
B) Submandibular
C) Lower deep cervical
D) Upper deep cervical
Q2) Each of the following nodes drains into the upper deep cervical nodes EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Submandibular
B) Retropharyngeal
C) Parotid
D) Mental
Q3) Ludwig's angina refers to an infection in which space?
A) Submental
B) Sublingual
C) Lateral pharyngeal
D) Parapharyngeal
Q4) Lymphadenopathy cannot be diagnosed without a biopsy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Anatomical Considerations of Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are reasons a Varizani-Akinosi nerve block may be used EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Trismus
B) Injury
C) Root canal
D) Temporomandibular joint dysfunction
Q2) To anesthetize the maxillary premolars and their associated bone,the following procedure would be used:
A) Middle superior alveolar nerve block
B) Nasopalatine nerve block
C) Buccal nerve block
D) Gow-Gates block
Q3) The buccal bone of the maxilla is much less porous than that of the mandible.This makes it easier for the anesthetic solution to penetrate the buccal bone of the maxilla and reach the apices of the maxillary teeth.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.

Page 38
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