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Dental Anatomy and Imaging Mock Exam - 1488 Verified Questions

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Dental Anatomy and Imaging

Mock Exam

Course Introduction

Dental Anatomy and Imaging is a foundational course that introduces students to the morphology, structure, and function of human teeth, as well as their relationship within the oral cavity. The course covers tooth identification, nomenclature, and the anatomical features of primary and permanent dentitions. Additionally, students learn about the principles and techniques of dental imaging, including radiographic methods used in diagnosis and treatment planning. Emphasis is placed on proper image acquisition, interpretation, and safety protocols, enabling students to accurately assess dental and maxillofacial structures. This comprehensive understanding is essential for effective clinical practice and advanced study in dentistry.

Recommended Textbook

Essentials of Dental Radiography for Dental Assistants and Hygienists 10th Edition by Evelyn Thomson

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30 Chapters

1488 Verified Questions

1488 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Dental Radiography: Historical Perspective and Future Trends

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the early 1900s, it was common practice for the radiographer to help the patient hold the film in place while making the exposure.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Who developed the hot cathode ray tube?

A) W. D. Coolidge

B) W. A. Price

C) H. R. Raper

D) W. H. Rollins

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following is NOT true regarding cone beam volumetric imaging?

A) It images a single selected plane of tissues.

B) It is based on computed tomography.

C) It uses less radiation than a panoramic radiograph.

D) It is designed specifically for imaging dental applications.

E) It is purported to become the gold standard for imaging certain oral conditions.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Characteristics and Measurement of Radiation

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the name of the process in which unstable elements undergo spontaneous decay in order to become stable?

Answer: Radioactivity. Unstable, radioactive isotopes try to regain nuclear stability through the release of energy.

Q2) Which one of these is NOT a Système International (SI) unit of measurement?

A) Sievert

B) Roentgen

C) Coulombs per kilogram

D) Gray

Answer: B

Q3) The units used to measure the dose equivalent of radiation is the:

A) Gray (Gy).

B) Sieverts (Sv).

C) Coulombs per kilogram (C/kg).

D) Roentgens (R).

Answer: B

Q4) Wavelength and frequency are directly related.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Page 4

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Chapter 3: The Dental X-Ray Machine: Components and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The tungsten anode is embedded in a core of copper to conduct heat away to a radiator.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) A small area on the tungsten target of the anode toward which the electron beam is directed is called the "focal spot."

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Amperage measures the electric potential or force that moves electrons along a conductor. Increasing the force with which the electrons move increases the penetrating potential of the x-ray beam.

A) The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

C) Both statements are true.

D) Both statements are false.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Factors Affecting Radiographic Quality

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Sample Questions

Q1) Slight movement of the tube head during exposure of a radiograph effectively increases the size of the focal spot on the target within the tube head.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The film should be in close physical contact with the intensifying screens.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is radiographic contrast?

Q4) Only one film should be placed in contact with the intensifying screens used for extraoral radiography.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Increasing the kVP results in a more penetrating x-ray beam.

A)True

B)False

Q6) That portion of the radiographic image that appears light is called "radiolucent."

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Effects of Radiation Exposure

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Sample Questions

Q1) The lethal dose (LD 50/30) of radiation for humans is estimated to be:

A) 4,500 grays.

B) 450 grays.

C) 45 grays.

D) 4.5 grays.

Q2) The biological effects of very low levels of radiation cannot be predicted.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The average effective dose equivalent from naturally occuring background radiation to the population of the United States is approximately 8 µSv (microsieverts) per day.

A)True

B)False

Q4) When is the developing fetus most susceptible to the damaging effects of radiation, and why?

Q5) Which of these is NOT a symptom of acute radiation syndrome.

A) Constipation

B) Nausea

C) Hemorrhage

D) Hair loss

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Chapter 6: Radiation Protection

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Sample Questions

Q1) Each of the following statements regarding the technical ability of radiographers is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) They have the ability to communicate clear and concise instructions to the patient.

B) They possess a thorough understanding of how to produce quality images

C) They understand how to perform dental x-ray machine inspections

D) They participate in continuing education

Q2) Which film speed requires the least amount of radiation exposure to produce a diagnostic-quality image?

A) D

B) E

C) F

D) G

Q3) High-energy x-rays are the most harmful to the patient because they easily penetrate to the deep tissues of the body.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What undesirable effect does collimation reduce?

Q5) Should the patient wear a thyroid collar during panoramic radiography?

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Chapter 7: Dental X-Ray Film and Processing Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements regarding film storage and protection is FALSE?

A) It is light-sensitive.

B) It has a shelf life.

C) It is affected by high heat and humidity.

D) It should be stored in the darkroom.

Q2) The invisible image present on a dental x-ray film that does not become visible until after processing is called what?

Q3) The sensitivity of a given type of dental x-ray film is known as its what?

Q4) The purpose of the lead foil in the film packet is to absorb back-scattered x-rays to reduce film fog.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is the color of the tube side of the film packet?

Q6) Which structure is most likely to absorb or stop more of the x-rays from reaching the film?

A) The enamel

B) The bone

C) The pulp

D) The soft tissue (cheek)

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Digital Radiography and Image Acquisition

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is replenisher?

Q2) With what should powdered and liquid concentrate forms of processing solutions be mixed?

Q3) Developer and fixer chemicals may be obtained in three forms: powder, liquid concentrate, or ready-to-use solutions.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Developer solution needs replenishment more often than fixer.

A)True

B)False

Q5) During manual time-temperature film processing, after fixing, the films are to be placed in the water wash for:

A) 5 minutes.

B) 10 minutes.

C) 20 minutes.

D) time is dependent upon water temperature.

Q6) The life of processing solutions can be extended by replenishment.

A)True

B)False

Q7) Of what material are manual processing tanks fabricated?

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Chapter 9: Infection Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) Photostimulable phosphor plates are light-sensitive.

A)True

B)False

Q2) CCD and CMOS digital image receptors very closely resemble film and capture x-ray energy in a manner similar to film.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Do digital imaging systems necessarily require a computer and monitor to capture and view an image?

Q4) What is the purpose of digital imaging measuring software?

Q5) If more radiation reaches the digital sensor, the gray value will decrease.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Which of the following features of digital imaging software currently available provides the best aid to interpreting digital images?

A) Density/contrast manipulation

B) Colorization

C) Embossing

D) Reversing the gray scale

Page 11

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Chapter 10: Legal and Ethical Responsibilities

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Sample Questions

Q1) How often should protective clothing be changed?

Q2) Which of these statements regarding classification of objects used in radiographic procedures is FALSE?

A) Critical objects must be sterilized after each use.

B) Most quality-made image receptor holders are sterilizable or disposable.

C) Semicritical objects are those used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.

D) No critical instruments are used in dental radiography.

Q3) After patient treatment, reusable image receptor holding devices must be:

A) sanitized.

B) disinfected.

C) sterilized.

D) washed.

Q4) What are infectious diseases?

Q5) Are some patients likely to be reluctant to admit infectious conditions?

Q6) List personal protective equipment (PPE) required during radiographic procedures.

Q7) The goal of infection control is the prevention and reduction of disease-causing (pathogenic) microorganisms.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Patient Relations and Education

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a goal of the dental radiographer?

A) Keep retake radiographs under three per patient.

B) Perform confidently and with authority.

C) Aim for perfection with each radiograph.

D) Follow strict protocols to protect oneself during exposures.

Q2) The legal right of an individual to make choices concerning health care treatment is called "self-determination."

A)True

B)False

Q3) The legal right of the patient to refuse radiographs is a form of:

A) the statute of limitations.

B) liability.

C) self-determination.

D) disclosure.

Q4) "Liable" means to be legally obligated to make good any loss or damage that may occur.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is the discussion with a patient prior to obtaining informed consent to expose dental radiographs called?

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Chapter 12: Introduction to Radiographic Examinations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are considered forms of nonverbal communication?

A) Facial expressions

B) Body movements

C) Listening

D) All of the above

Q2) If placement of an intraoral image receptor is uncomfortable for the patient, the radiographic procedure should be postponed.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Should patients who have had radiation therapy for cancer of the head or neck avoid dental x-rays?

Q4) What is the term used to describe the conduct of the radiographer while taking radiographs on the patient?

Q5) Respectfulness and courtesy are examples of interpersonal skills.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Does patient refusal to submit to dental radiographs preclude care being rendered by the dentist?

Q7) Are large amounts of radiation harmful?

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Chapter 13: The Periapical Examinationparalleling Technique

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is the paralleling technique the technique of choice over the bisecting technique for intraoral radiographs?

Q2) Which of the two techniques for obtaining intraoral radiographs is considered the technique of choice?

A)True

B)False

Q3) Periapical image receptors for exposure of anterior areas are placed with the long dimension vertically.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The bitewing survey may consist of two to eight radiographs.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Which of these statements is FALSE?

A) Negative angulation directs the central ray upward toward the ceiling.

B) Accurate vertical angulation is more important to the paralleling than the bisecting technique.

C) 0 vertical angulation directs the PID parallel to the floor.

D) Vertical angulation refers to directing the PID up and down.

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Chapter 14: The Periapical Examinationbisecting Technique

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a basic principle of the paralleling technique?

A) The image receptor is placed perpendicular to the long axes of the teeth.

B) The central ray of the x-ray beam is directed parallel to both the teeth and the recording plane of the image receptor.

C) The image receptor is placed parallel to the long axes of the teeth.

D) The central ray of the x-ray beam is directed perpendicular to an imaginary bisector.

Q2) How is the correct point of entry achieved when using the paralleling technique?

Q3) What is the ideal target-image receptor distance used with the paralleling technique?

A) 8 inches (20.5 cm)

B) 12 inches (30 cm)

C) 16 inches (41 cm)

Q4) With the paralleling technique, where is the central ray directed?

Q5) The paralleling technique is preferred over the bisecting technique.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Name an image receptor holder designed for the paralleling technique that does not have an external aiming device.

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Chapter 15: The Bitewing Examination

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Sample Questions

Q1) The horizontal angulation is determined in the same manner for both the bisecting and the paralleling techniques.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of these image receptor holders is designed for use with the bisecting technique?

A) XCP

B) XCP-DS

C) Snap-A-Ray

D) RAPD

Q3) Which of the following statements regarding image receptor holders is FALSE?

A) Short bite blocks should be used for the bisecting technique.

B) External aiming devices help locate correct angles and points of entry.

C) External aiming devices eliminate the need to position the patient's head precisely.

D) Bite blocks with an L-shaped back plate should be used with the bisecting technique.

Q4) Which of the two techniques for obtaining intraoral radiographs may be easier to use for children or adults with shallow palates?

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17

Chapter 16: The Occlusal Examination

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Sample Questions

Q1) For an adult horizontal or vertical molar bitewing, align the film packet so that the anterior edge lines up:

A) behind the distal half of the first premolar.

B) behind the distal half of the second premolar.

C) in front of the mesial half of the first premolar.

D) in front of the mesial half of the second premolar.

Q2) Because the proximal surfaces of the molars are in a buccolingual relationship to the patient's sagittal plane, conventional image receptor placement parallel to the buccal surfaces of the molars often results in overlapping of the contact area and closure of the embrasure spaces.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following statements regarding managing bitewing exposures is correct?

A) The patient should be instructed to close so that the teeth occlude normally.

B) The bite tab should be held firmly against the lingual surface of the mandibular teeth while the patient closes.

C) The film packet should be inserted vertically into the patient's mouth.

D) The bite tab should be held firmly to permit the film to drift bucally.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: The Panoramic Examination

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these statements is FALSE?

A) Cross-sectional occlusal radiographs of the mandible are taken with the occlusal plane perpendicular to the floor.

B) Topographical occlusal radiographs of the mandible may be taken with the head positioned the same as for maxillary topographical occlusal radiographs.

C) An image receptor holder is not required for stabilization of the image receptor.

D) Mandibular topographical radiographs are taken with the midsaggital plane parallel to the floor.

Q2) A cross-sectional occlusal radiograph will significantly distort the image of the teeth, producing an image of the teeth that appear circular or elliptical.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Is it acceptable to recline the chair or tip the headrest back to facilitate obtaining an occlusal radiograph?

Q4) Can a thyroid collar be used during the occlusal radiographic exam?

Q5) What type of image receptor holder is used for occlusal radiography?

Q6) What are the recommended exposure settings for occlusal radiographs?

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Identifying and Correcting Undiagnostic Radiographs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Formation of a partial image on the radiograph occurs if the developing solution is too weak.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Assembling an image receptor holder with external aiming device incorrectly may lead to conecut error.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Failing to record the incisal or occlusal edges of the teeth on a periapical radiograph most likely results from an error made in which of the following steps?

A) Placement of the image receptor

B) Horizontal angulation

C) Vertical angulation

D) Centering the x-ray beam

Q4) Elongation error causes the images to appear stretched out.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What produces thin black lines or smudges often in a pattern on the radiograph?

Q6) Film not protected from stray radiation is susceptible to what?

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Chapter 19: Quality Control and Environmental Safety in Dental Radiography

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Sample Questions

Q1) When not in use, the x-ray unit support arm should be placed in the open position.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The dental x-ray machine should be tested for tube head stability periodically.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A device consisting of increasing increments of an absorbing material is called a "reference film."

A)True

B)False

Q4) Only the dentist has the authority to carry out quality control tests on radiographic systems used in the practice.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is quality assurance in dental radiography?

Q6) What is the key to peak performance of an automatic processor?

Q7) The darkroom should be evaluated to be sure it is free from chemical fumes.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Image Orientation and Introduction to Interpretation

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Sample Questions

Q1) If splashed into the eyes, developer would be more easily washed away in the emergency eyewash station than fixer.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The water flow of a properly functioning emergency eyewash station must be at least 1 gallon per minute.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is FALSE?

A) Under normal conditions, fixer should not cause respiratory difficulty.

B) If heated sufficiently, developer releases a gas that may cause respiratory difficulty.

C) Prolonged contact with aerosols from processing chemistry may irritate individuals with asthma.

D) If processing chemical mist or vapors are inhaled, proceed immediately to the eyewash station.

Q4) What information is listed on a product's MSDS?

Q5) Describe the appropriate use of an emergency eyewash station.

Page 22

Q6) What happens if fixer chemicals are accidentally mixed with developer?

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Chapter 21: Recognizing Normal Radiographic Anatomy

Intraoral Radiographs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The interpretation of radiographs is improved if the radiographer develops a systematic method to reading the images.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Mandibular molars generally have two divergent roots that are distinctly observed radiographically.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following statements regarding film mounting methods is correct?

A) With the labial method, the embossed dot is concave.

B) With the lingual method, the embossed dot is convex.

C) With the lingual method, the viewer is reading the radiographs as if facing the patient.

D) With the labial method, the viewer is reading the radiographs as if facing the patient.

Q4) Roots and crowns of the mandibular anterior teeth are larger and longer than those of the mandibular teeth.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: Recognizing Normal Radiographic Anatomy

Panoramic Radiographs

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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding normal anatomic landmarks is correct?

A) The maxillae are two bones, a left maxilla and a right maxilla.

B) There are right and left mandibular bones.

C) There are two frontal bones, a right and a left.

D) The sphenoid bone is also called the "malar bone" or "cheekbone."

Q2) Cancellous bone appears extremely radiopaque.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the compact or dense bone observed on dental radiographs called?

A) Cortical

B) Cancellous

C) Trabecular

D) Honeycomb

Q4) Which of the following describes the radiographic appearance of the lamina dura?

A) A thin radiolucent border that outlines the root of the tooth

B) A thin radiopaque border that outlines the root of the tooth

C) A radiolucent honeycomb layer adjacent to the root of the tooth

D) A radiopaque honeycomb layer adjacent to the root of the tooth

Q5) How does the lateral fossa appear on a dental radiograph?

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Chapter 3: Radiographic Appearance of Dental Materials and Foreign Objects

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Q1) Each of the following should be determined from the radiographic image EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) The identity of the anatomical landmark

B) The normal size and shape of the anatomical landmark

C) Whether the anatomical landmark is in the appropriate region

D) Whether pathosis if the anatomical landmark is absent

Q2) Which of the following restorative materials appears the most radiolucent?

A) Silicate

B) Gutta-percha

C) Stainless steel crown

D) Implant

Q3) What is the name of the process characterized by root-end resorption in which the roots of the teeth appear shorter than normal?

Q4) What is the term applied to tumors that do little or no harm?

Q5) An odontoma often appears as a mixed radiopaque and radiolucent mass of enamel and dentin.

A)True

B)False

Q6) What type of resorption appears as a radiolucent widening of the root canal?

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Chapter 24: The Use of Radiographs in the Detection of Dental Caries

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Q1) The caries process demineralizes tooth structures, allowing _____ x-rays to pass through the tooth and _______ the image receptor.

A) more, lighten

B) more, darken

C) less, lighten

D) less, darken

Q2) Radiographs reveal carious lesions that may go undetected clinically, especially caries in the pits and fissures (occlusal surfaces) of the posterior teeth.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following conditions resembles caries on a radiograph?

A) Nonmetallic restorations

B) Cervical burnout

C) Mach band effect

D) All of the above

Q4) The shape of proximal caries begins as a radiolucent double triangle through the enamel and dentin.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: The Use of Radiographs in the Evaluation of

Periodontal Diseases

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Q1) Each of the following can be determined from radiographs EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) Total loss of periodontal attachment

B) Amount of bone remaining rather than bone loss

C) Crestal alveolar irregularities

D) Interdental septal changes

Q2) Vertical bone loss is the same diagnosis as </KT><KT>angular bone loss.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the radiographic appearance of the lamina dura when gingivitis is present?

Q4) An amalgam overhang is a local contributing factor for periodontal disease. A)True

B)False

Q5) Which periodontal disease case type demonstrates early bone loss, up to 30 percent?

Q6) What is the earliest case type of periodontal disease in which furcation involvement is seen radiographically?

Q7) Can gingivitis be detected radiographically?

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Q1) Which of these statements is FALSE?

A) A size #0 or #1 intraoral image receptor is usually the choice for a child with primary teeth.

B) The preferred image receptor for use with a child with transitional dentition is size #1.

C) The radiographer should use the largest size image receptor the child can tolerate.

D) The amount of radiation required does not depend on the size of the intraoral image receptor.

Q2) Which of the following extraoral radiographs is commonly assessed for in conjunction with intraoral radiographs for the child patient?

A) Transcranial

B) Panoramic

C) Waters

D) Reverse Towne

Q3) Are panoramic radiographs acceptable substitutes for intraoral radiographs if a child cannot tolerate intraoral placement of the image receptor?

Q4) Should a thyroid collar be used when exposing radiographs on children?

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Chapter 27: Pediatric Radiographic Techniques

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Q1) Should the radiographer tell the gagging patient that the gag reflex is all in the mind?

Q2) Each of the following statements regarding dental radiography of the older adult patient is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) A smaller, lighter weight image receptor holder may be more comfortable.

B) Use of a commercial image receptor edge protector may make the procedure more comfortable.

C) If necessary, the radiographer should hold the image receptor in the patient's mouth during the exposure.

D) If necessary, an extraoral radiograph may be substituted.

Q3) To aid in managing a patient with special needs, an organized radiographer will:

A) progress through the procedure rapidly and accurately.

B) expose the easier projections first.

C) have all supplies and equipment ready before exposure.

D) All of the above.

Q4) Is receipt of large amounts of therapeutic radiation to the head and neck area a contraindication to future dental radiographs?

Q5) Should the radiographer expose the anterior or posterior projections first?

Q6) What are two stimuli that must be diminished or eliminated to reduce gagging?

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Chapter 28: Radiographic Techniques for Patients With Special Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Precise positioning of the image receptor and accurate angulation will eliminate overlap between the canine and first premolar on a canine periapical radiograph.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of these is NOT a method of localization?

A) The tube-shift method

B) The working radiograph method

C) The definitive evaluation method

D) The right-angle method

Q3) What is a duplicate radiograph?

Q4) For a maxillary molar disto-oblique periapical radiograph, the vertical angulation is that used for the standard paralleling technique.

A) increased by 5 degrees over B) increased by 10 degrees over C) decreased by 5 degrees from D) decreased by 10 degrees from

Q5) What are three methods of localization?

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Q6) Should exposure settings for edentulous areas be the same as for areas with teeth present?

Chapter 29: Radiographic Techniques for Specific Oral Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The exposure settings used for extraoral radiographs depend on each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) The patient's size

B) The tissue density

C) The film-screen combination

D) The developer temperature

Q2) A transcranial radiograph evaluates the maxillary, frontal, and ethmoid sinuses.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of these extraoral radiographs is most often used to aid in diagnosing temporomandibular joint problems?

A) Lateral skull projection

B) Transcranial projection

C) Reverse Towne projection

D) Posteroanterior projection

Q4) How many intensifying screens are inside a cassette?

Q5) Extraoral films are more sensitive to light than intraoral films.

A)True

B)False

Q6) What type of gloves are required when handling extraoral film in the darkroom? Page 31

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Chapter 30: Radiographic Techniques

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Q1) The greatest limitation of panoramic radiographs is the inability to:

A) locate impacted teeth.

B) produce image sharpness.

C) assess growth and development.

D) detect caries in advanced stages.

Q2) What is the name of the anatomic landmark that appears on a panoramic image as a radiolucent, tunnel-like passageway outlined by two thin radiopaque lines that extend from the mandibular foramen on the ramus to the mental foramen on the body of the mandible?

Q3) The radiographer must be skilled at setting the correct size and shape of the focal trough to produce a diagnostic panoramic radiograph.

A)True

B)False

Q4) All panoramic images have between 10 and 30 percent image magnification.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Most panoramic machines have wide focal troughs in the anterior region.

A)True

B)False

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