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This course explores the origins, development, and current state of democracy in the United States. Students will examine the philosophical foundations and historical context that shaped American democracy, drawing on key writings such as Tocquevilles "Democracy in America" as well as the U.S. Constitution and Federalist Papers. The course addresses critical themes such as the balance of power, civil liberties, political participation, and the evolution of democratic institutions. Attention is given to major challenges facing democracy in the United States today, including polarization, social inequality, and the influence of media and technology on public opinion and governance. Ultimately, the course provides students with the analytical tools needed to assess the strengths and weaknesses of American democracy in both historical and contemporary contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Struggle for Democracy 2012 Election Edition 11th Edition by Edward S. Greenberg
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is participation in the political process an important condition of popular sovereignty?
A) Participation conveys the will of the people.
B) Participation prevents leaders from being responsible to the public.
C) Participation helps to ensure that the public is well-informed about policy issues.
D) Participation protects the public from overly responsive political leaders.
E) Participation overcomes political apathy and political efficacy.
Answer: A
Q2) In what type of situation would you recommend direct democracy over representative democracy? Why? Give an example.
Answer: An ideal response will:
1. Note that direct democracy requires that people are able to meet regularly to discuss issues.
2. Discuss how direct democracy may be more appropriate in small communities, areas such as New England towns where participation is encouraged, and schools and local communities. It is more likely that these citizens can meet regularly, and also be reasonably informed on issues.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain what inspired the Constitutional Convention in 1787.
Answer: An ideal response will:
1. Detail the problems under the Articles of Confederation, including the inability of the national government to levy taxes or to fund Revolutionary War debt, monetary problems, and problems with interstate commerce.
2. Discuss the role of civil uprisings and disorder like Shays's Rebellion.
3. Recognize that the original purpose of the Convention was to strengthen the Articles of Confederation.
Q2) What was the greatest fear of the Anti-Federalists during the Constitutional Convention and subsequent debate?
A) that a weak national government would undermine the survival of the United States
B) that a strong national government would infringe on the essential liberties of the people
C) that a powerful judiciary would restrict freedom of religion
D) that powerful state governments would never assent to the new Constitution
E) that a weak judiciary would be unable to enforce the new Constitution
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is a system under which significant government powers are divided between the central government and smaller units, such as states or provinces.
Answer: Federalism
Q2) Which of the following cases involved the commerce clause?
A) McCulloch v. Maryland
B) Wickard v. Filburn
C) Brown v. Board of Education
D) Marbury v. Madison
E) Tinker v. Des Moines
Answer: B
Q3) Some of the elements of federalism go back in history at least as far as the Union of Utrecht in the __________ in 1579.
Answer: Netherlands
Q4) Dual federalism is an interpretation of federalism in which the states and the national government separate jurisdictions and responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The American economic system is best characterized as __________.
A) capitalist
B) collectivist
C) isolationist
D) mercantilist
E) socialist
Q2) Which of the following regions has the lowest gross domestic product?
A) Africa
B) China and Japan
C) North America
D) Northern Europe
E) Western Europe
Q3) __________ is the transformation of an economy from one dominated by agriculture to one dominated by manufacturing.
Q4) American political culture is particularly conducive to redistributive policies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are Americans' concerns about outsourcing? Are they justified?
Q7) What kinds of challenges does globalization pose for labor unions? Page 6
Q6) Can the United States still be considered the only superpower? Why or why not?
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Questions
Q1) James Madison, Alexander Hamilton, Walter Lippmann, and Sir Robert Peel were alike in this opinion. What was it?
A) They all expressed grave doubts about the wisdom of democracy.
B) They all expressed grave doubts about the wisdom of the public.
C) They all expressed grave doubts about the wisdom of democratically elected leaders.
D) They all expressed supreme confidence in the wisdom of the public.
E) They all expressed supreme confidence in the wisdom of democratically elected leaders.
Q2) Of the following, which would political scientists consider least likely to be an agent of political socialization?
A) a college education
B) popular culture
C) school
D) family
E) intelligence
Q3) Young people coming of age politically during the 1960s turned out to be much more __________ throughout their lives than young people coming of age during the 1950s or during the Reagan years.
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Q1) Which of the following is a concern of scholars about the effects of corporate ownership of media?
A) It adds dangerously to the already strong business presence in American politics.
B) News organizations may not pull any punches when reporting about the activities of competing corporations.
C) Only popular perspectives on current events will be reported.
D) Too much diversity in perspectives will muddy the message that the corporate owners want to convey.
E) Increasing resources for things like foreign correspondents and investigative journalism becomes impossible.
Q2) Reporters get most of their political news from __________.
A) investigative journalism
B) online sources
C) government sources
D) acquisitions editors
E) polls and statistics
Q3) Describe a situation in which the media did not successfully fulfill its watchdog role. What were the consequences of its failure?
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Q1) What inequalities exist in the interest group system in American politics? What are their effects?
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a trade association?
A) the AFL-CIO
B) the National Association of Manufacturers
C) the American Association of Retired People (AARP)
D) the National Rifle Association
E) the National Wildlife Federation
Q3) What is a public interest group?
A) a group that conducts research and analysis on public policy issues
B) a group that expresses its political views publicly
C) a group that works to gain benefits for society as a whole
D) a group that most people in society are aware of
E) a group that represents workers within a particular industry
Q4) As described in the "Using the Framework" box about Medicare, the Medicare prescription drug benefit was created under the George W. Bush administration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is the outside strategy of "organizing the district" particularly effective?
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Q1) What prominent civil rights activist made the call for "black power" in 1966?
A) Stokely Carmichael
B) Martin Luther King, Jr.
C) Malcolm X
D) James Meredith
E) Rosa Parks
Q2) The struggle for women's suffrage refers to which of the following?
A) The struggle for women's right to run for office.
B) The struggle for women's right to have jobs outside the home.
C) The struggle for women's right to vote.
D) The struggle for women's right to equal pay.
E) The struggle for women's right to own property.
Q3) Which term refers to the number of groups involved in a political conflict?
A) mobilization
B) scope
C) majoritarian
D) collective bargaining
E) power
Q4) __________was sent to jail following her refusal to give up her seat on a Montgomery, AL, bus in 1957.
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Q1) The only minor party in the United States that ever managed to replace a major party is the __________ Party.
Q2) To be a member of the Republican Party or the Democratic Party or to be an independent is, in reality, a matter of __________.
A) attending meetings
B) identifying with a party's sentiments
C) doing volunteer work
D) organizational membership
E) supporting a candidate
Q3) Partisanship has been increasing since the 1980s, and seems likely to rise even more in the near future.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What institutional feature helps prevent the rise of minor parties?
A) a constitutional restriction
B) the electoral college
C) multi-member districts
D) proportional representation
E) open-primary systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Winning early primaries and caucuses does not give a presidential hopeful as much momentum as winning the later contests in bigger states.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Recently, liberal Democrats have passed national laws regulating the voting process and controlling requirements for voter registration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is age an important predictor of whether someone will vote?
Q4) Explain the issues with Latino voter mobilization. What should be done to increase Latino voter turnout?
Q5) Describe the current process for selecting presidential candidates. Is the process still relevant and worthwhile?
Q6) Compare the way the executive branch of government is elected in the United States to the way it is elected in England.
Q7) The United States has more elections than any other democracy.
A)True B)False

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Q1) Traditionally, members of the House have been expected to become specialists in some area or areas of policy and to defer to the judgment of other specialists on most bills. This mutual deference is known as __________.
A) appointee preeminence
B) committee referral
C) reciprocity
D) reconciliation
E) senatorial courtesy
Q2) Examine Congress's "power of the purse." How has its constitutional mandate to approve the budget altered over time? Would you change anything about the budget process? Justify your answer. Be sure to describe specific budget acts and controversies in your argument.
Q3) For most bills, hearings, negotiations, and markup take place in subcommittees. A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how the concept of America being a melting pot conflicts with descriptive representation in Congress. How can the issue of descriptive representation adversely impact the interests of a particular group?
Q5) Cloture is the only way to end a(n) __________.
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Q1) Why was the Twenty-Fifth Amendment to the Constitution adopted?
A) to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding presidential powers to conduct war
B) to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the role of the vice president should the president die or become incapacitated
C) to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the president's powers to negotiate treaties
D) to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the separate election of the vice president
E) to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the separation of powers between the executive branch and the legislative branch
Q2) Since the early months of 2011, Syrian ruler Bashar al-Assad has sought to suppress domestic dissent through the extensive use of deadly force. If President Obama sought to involve the United States in the crisis, what formal and informal powers could he use to enlist congressional and public support?
Q3) What is an executive order and what is a reason that a president would use it?
Q4) Compare the White House staff and the Cabinet.
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Q1) If a Cabinet department is not implementing a policy supported by the president, what tools can the President use to influence the department?
Q2) The most recently-created Cabinet department is the __________.
Q3) What are the benefits and drawbacks of the rule-making requirements specified in the Administrative Procedure Act?
Q4) Which of the following is a drawback of privatization, or outsourcing?
A) The bidding process is too competitive.
B) The bidding process involves too many rules.
C) Privatized services often cost more to deliver.
D) Privatized service delivery is often too slow.
E) Privatization may decrease government accountability.
Q5) What function is the National Labor Relations board carrying out when it settles disputes between labor and management on federal labor laws?
A) creating regulations
B) adjudicating/engaging in quasi- judicial processes
C) providing expert advice
D) providing a check on congressional power
E) providing a check on judicial power
Q6) How does the president exercise control over the federal bureaucracy?
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Q1) Courts provide a statement of the legal reasoning behind their decisions in written __________.
A) briefs
B) arguments
C) opinions
D) laws
E) pamphlets
Q2) Which type of case represents over 75 percent of all cases heard in the 94 federal district courts?
A) civil
B) original
C) trial
D) appellate
E) criminal
Q3) The Judiciary Act of 1789 established the federal circuit courts and district courts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) By custom and tradition, appointees to the federal bench must be __________.
Q5) Describe the strict construction (or original intent) judicial philosophy.
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Q1) Is the right to privacy in the Constitution?
Q2) Discuss how the Supreme Court analyzes obscenity under the First Amendment.
Q3) How many of the amendments that comprise the Bill of Rights protect the rights of those accused of crime?
A) six
B) eight
C) three
D) five
E) one
Q4) Most developed countries use some form of the death penalty.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Under the Lemon test, the government must not foster _____________ between the state and religion.
Q6) Prior restraint is a constitutional doctrine that prevents the government from prohibiting speech or publication __________ the fact.
Q7) The Supreme Court has interpreted the Second Amendment to protect an individual's right to own __________.
Q8) Why is freedom of the press essential to democracy?
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Q1) What did the Supreme Court determine was unconstitutional in Brown v. Board of Education?
A) integrated schools
B) poll taxes
C) segregation of schools
D) unequal school funding
E) school busing
Q2) The __________ Amendment guarantees African Americans the right to vote.
Q3) Who had to pay poll taxes?
A) winning candidates
B) losing candidates
C) county clerks
D) voters
E) nonvoters
Q4) Because of the Supreme Court's decision in Regents of the University of California v. Bakke, an affirmative action program that uses racial __________ would likely be deemed unconstitutional.
Q5) Make an argument for interpreting the Fourteenth Amendment as supporting the right of gays and lesbians to get married to their same-sex partners.
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Q1) Medicare is designed to help the __________ population.
Q2) Which of the following is a point in favor of federal involvement in social policy?
A) The states have a long-standing tradition of extending rights to citizens.
B) The states are often viewed as laboratories of democracy.
C) The federal government can help to reduce inequality.
D) Federal legislation often increases inequality.
E) Federal power is usually transferred to the states.
Q3) Which of the following statements plausibly explains why Social Security is a prominent issue in many elections?
A) Young people are likely to follow politics and are likely to vote.
B) Young people are likely to follow politics, but they are unlikely to vote.
C) Seniors are likely to follow politics and are likely to vote.
D) Seniors are likely to follow politics, but they are unlikely to vote.
E) Seniors are unlikely to follow politics, but they do vote.
Q4) What does it mean for a social safety net program to be means-tested? How would Medicare change if it became a means-tested program? How would this change affect the cost of the program?
Q5) A ___________ program distributes benefits on the basis of demonstrated need.
Q6) Temporary Assistance to Needy Families replaced the federal program
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Q1) The failure of the U.S. government to notice the developing threat to American interests posed by a new terrorist organization would suggest that the intelligence community is not doing a good job.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Terrorists are most likely to target which of the following?
A) elected officials
B) members of the military
C) civilians
D) bureaucrats
E) political dissidents
Q3) Given the size of its economy and increased globalization, U.S. foreign policy toward __________ is motivated primarily by trade policy.
Q4) To what extent has recent U.S. foreign policy been multilateralist? What kinds of problems in the global world might be more readily solved using a multilateralist approach? Illustrate your answer with two recent U.S. foreign policy examples.
Q5) The __________ has primary responsibility for foreign, military, and defense policy in the United States.
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