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Democracy and Citizenship Exam Solutions - 4836 Verified Questions

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Democracy and Citizenship Exam Solutions

Course Introduction

This course explores the foundational concepts of democracy and citizenship, examining their historical development, theoretical frameworks, and contemporary challenges. Students will analyze the principles and institutions that underpin democratic governance, as well as the rights, responsibilities, and participation of citizens within diverse political contexts. Through case studies and comparative analysis, the course investigates how citizenship is defined and practiced across societies, focusing on issues such as civil liberties, political participation, social movements, and the impact of globalization. The course encourages critical engagement with questions of inclusion, representation, and the evolving relationship between individuals and the state in modern democracies.

Recommended Textbook

The Struggle for Democracy 9th Edition by

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Chapter 1: Democracy and American Politics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A representative democracy always includes free elections.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The American government is best described as a system of direct democracy.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) According to Struggle for Democracy, popular sovereignty, political equality, and political liberty

A) are attainable in perfect form.

B) are components of capitalism.

C) are vital benchmarks of representative democracy.

D) are not important aspects of democracy.

E) none of the above

Answer: C

Q4) Fair elections mean that all candidates have an equal chance of being elected.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: The Constitution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Each branch of government has power, but none is able to exercise all of its powers on its own. This feature of American government is known as ________.

Answer: checks and balances

Q2) The provision of the Constitution that forbids states from impairing the obligation of contracts is

A) also vital to promoting interstate commerce.

B) ensures that states do not coin their own money.

C) is essential to protecting property rights.

D) related to reserve powers granted to the states.

E) none of the above

Answer: C

Q3) "________ laws" forbade farm foreclosures for nonpayment of debts.

Answer: Stay

Q4) Many of the Framers' ideas about balanced government were derived from the French philosopher ________.

Answer: Montesquieu

Q5) Freedom of assembly is guaranteed in the ________ Amendment. Answer: First

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Chapter 3: Federalism States and Nations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The distribution of financial grants by the national government to the states began in the 1860s.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Funds to be spent on a specific activity or programs are known as

A) block grants.

B) categorical grants.

C) fiscal grants.

D) state grants.

E) federal grants.

Answer: B

Q3) Powers are divided between the central government and smaller governmental units in a

A) confederal government.

B) system of federalism.

C) unitary form of government.

D) centrist form of government.

E) republican form of government.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Structural Foundations of the American Government

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Q1) Soon after World War II, the U.S. turned inward, taken over by strong isolationist sentiments.

A)True

B)False

Q2) ____________ is not as common in other rich democracies as in the U.S.

A) A high tax rate

B) Competitive individualism

C) Affirmative action

D) Socialism

E) Voter participation

Q3) Sourcing

A) is subcontracting jobs to other American companies.

B) is subcontracting jobs to foreign companies.

C) has benefited American workers.

D) is relegated to industry in which the U.S. trades with Japan.

E) is less likely in free trade industries.

Q4) The president has become more powerful relative to Congress over economic policymaking in part due to America's rise to superpower status.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Public Opinion

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most important factor in constructing an accurate poll or survey is that

A) a large number of people must be interviewed in order to avoid skewing the sample with distorted viewpoints.

B) the survey must be completed several weeks in advance of the election or event that is being measured.

C) the sample of people interviewed must be representative of the population being measured.

D) the questions must contain broad generalities so that the person being interviewed will not be influenced.

E) there must be less than ten questions for each survey so as not to bore the respondent.

Q2) Young people tend to solidify their policy preferences and party loyalties in response to the historical moment at which they come of age.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What does the case study of the Vietnam War illustrate about public opinion?

Q4) A system of interlocking attitudes and beliefs is called an ________.

Q5) The sense of belonging to a political party is called ________.

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Chapter 6: News Media

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Sample Questions

Q1) How is the media organized regarding ownership?

Q2) The freedom of the press is guaranteed in the ________ amendment.

A) First

B) Fourth

C) Fifth

D) Sixth

E) Ninth

Q3) The FCC regulates print media.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Much of the news is created or originated by ________ officials, not by reporters.

Q5) The media's interpretation of stories is called ________ .

Q6) Prior restraint is unconstitutional through the

A)First Amendment.

B) Fourth Amendment.

C) Fifth Amendment.

D) Sixth Amendment.

E) Seventh Amendment.

Q7) What makes a political event newsworthy?

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Chapter 7: Interest Groups and Business Corporations

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Sample Questions

Q1) In lobbying Congress, interest groups spend most of their time trying to cultivate relationships with

A) congressional leaders.

B) party leaders.

C) congressional members and their staff.

D) voters in representatives' districts.

E) congressional pages and clerks.

Q2) Nonbusiness groups and associations spend more than twice of what is spent by business groups and associations.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Career civil servants and upper-level appointees in the executive branch have a great deal of discretionary ________ because Congress passes policies that are broad and ambiguous.

Q4) The recent growth in lobbying by business firms and industry seems to be tied to A) increased presidential influence over the bureaucracy.

B) additional governmental regulation of the economy.

C) deregulation of the economy.

D) hyper-competition in the global economy.

E) court decisions concerning the rules of lobbying.

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Chapter 8: Social Movements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Women won the right to vote with the ratification of the

A) Fourteenth Amendment

B) Fifteenth Amendment

C) Seventeenth Amendment

D) Nineteenth Amendment

E) Twentieth Amendment

Q2) What impact have social movements had on American politics?

Q3) Resources are not important for successful social movements.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The most effective tool of the Civil Rights movement was

A) nonviolent civil disobedience.

B) international pressure.

C) television documentaries.

D) violent demonstrations.

E) voter registration drives.

Q5) What is the significance of the Seneca Falls Declaration?

Q6) The civil rights movement peaked in the 1960s

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Political Parties

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Sample Questions

Q1) Party realignment means

A) a new political party controls the presidency.

B) voters switch party loyalties briefly and then return to their former party.

C) a new political party controls the Congress.

D) a new party system takes the place of the old.

E) new political parties form.

Q2) Which of the following is a way in which political parties can encourage popular sovereignty and political equality?

A) they can make officeholders more accountable when things go wrong

B) they can help people who aren't well informed about candidates or issues decide who or what to vote for

C) they include a broad range of groups

D) they encourage political interest among the public

E) All of the above are correct.

Q3) Which of the following is an example of a "protest" minor party?

A) Socialist Labor party

B) Populist

C) Bull Moose party

D) Republican

E) all of the above

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Chapter 10: Participation Voting, and Elections

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some analysts suggest that the crucial factor in voter turnout is

A) the level of a person's formal education.

B) a person's gender.

C) a person's age.

D) a person's occupation.

E) a person's party affiliation.

Q2) Swift Boat Veterans for Truth and MoveOn.org are examples of ________ groups.

Q3) Each state's electors are equal in number to its state senators.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The highest voter turnout rate in American history was achieved in 1960.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Until __________, it was up to the individual states to determine who within its borders was eligible to vote.

A) the passage of the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments after the Civil War

B) the Bill of Rights was created during the Constitutional Convention

C) the Civil Rights Movement of the 1960s

D) the Voting Rights Act of 1965

E) the passage of the Nineteenth Amendment after World War I

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Chapter 11: Congress

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a legislator is guaranteed to win reelection, we might anticipate him or her to practice the trustee form of representation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Cloture, or ending debate, is needed to prevent a filibuster.

A)True

B)False

Q3) How often does reapportionment of House seats occur?

A) every ten years

B) every two years

C) every twenty years

D) after each election

E) with every new presidency

Q4) Republicans lost control of Congress mainly due to voter dissatisfaction over the crumbling economy.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Congressional redistricting is required by the US Constitution.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: The President

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Sample Questions

Q1) How did Franklin Roosevelt change the functions of the presidency?

Q2) Why are the president and Congress often at odds?

Q3) In the role as chief of state, the president

A) serves as commander-in-chief of the armed forces.

B) has assumed the leadership role in managing the nation's economy.

C) performs ceremonial functions and serves as the symbol of national authority and unity.

D) is expected to assume the initiative in forming public policy.

E) leads Congress into action.

Q4) Which of the following contributes to conflict between the president and Congress?

A) Since the 1960s, Congress has usually been controlled by the president's political party.

B) The president and members of Congress may be chosen in different elections.

C) The president and all members of Congress are chosen in the same elections.

D) The president and Congress have completely separate legislative powers.

E) none of the above

Q5) The Constitution created a presidency to dominate Congress.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: The Executive Branch

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Sample Questions

Q1) Congress has given some executive branch agencies the power to conduct quasi-judicial proceedings in which disputes are resolved. What is the impact of this power? Provide an example of this power in action.

Q2) Bureaucracy in the United States is an organizational hodgepodge.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Similar to Congress, federal civil servants are not representative of the larger population.

A)True

B)False

Q4) "Getting government off our backs" refers to the burden of A) Congress.

B) cost-benefit analysis.

C) bureaucracy.

D) reinventing government

E) none of the above

Q5) Americans believe that the private sector can usually do a better job than the bureaucracy.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: The Courts

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Sample Questions

Q1) In forma pauperis is an </KT>announcement that the Supreme Court will hear a case on appeal from a lower court; its issuance requires the vote of four of the nine justices.</P></DEF></GLOS></SIDE>

A)True

B)False

Q2) The main protection for the corporation against regulation by both the state and federal governments came from the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause. A)True

B)False

Q3) A ________ is the opinion of a justice or justices who support the majority decision but have different legal reasons for doing so.

Q4) In the second period of its history, from the Civil War to the New Deal, the Supreme Court

A) fought the rise of the business corporation.

B) never gave in to the expansion of government regulation. C) failed to protect business corporations from state regulation. D) used the Fourteenth Amendment to protect corporations from regulation. E) engaged in a practice known as total incorporation.

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Chapter 15: Freedom: the Struggle for Civil Liberties

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lawrence v. Texas upheld as constitutional state antisodomy laws.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Protecting __________ was prioritized by the U.S. Supreme Court in the nineteenth century.

A) the right to keep and bear arms

B) freedom of speech

C) equality

D) property rights

E) group sovereignty

Q3) The right to privacy is established in which Supreme Court case

A) Furman v. Georgia

B) Gideon v. Wainwright

C) Gitlow v. New York

D) Mapp v. Ohio

E) Griswold v. Connecticut

Q4) Discuss the nationalization of the Bill of Rights. How did the Court accomplish its goal to incorporate these protections to the states? Assess whether or not this was a good strategy or not.

Q5) The major liberty stated in the original Constitution was ________.

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Chapter 16: Civil Rights: the Struggle for Political Equality

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Q1) Under what type of scrutiny does the Supreme Court examine sexual discrimination suits?

A) Intermediate scrutiny

B) Suspect scrutiny

C) Strict scrutiny

D) Ordinary scrutiny

E) Lax scrutiny

Q2) In Richmond v. Croson Co. (1989), the Supreme Court subjected all state and local affirmative action policies to "ordinary scrutiny."

A)True

B)False

Q3) In Harris v. Forklift Systems, Inc. (1993), the Supreme Court ruled that

A) workers do not have to prove that offensive actions take place or prevent them from doing their jobs.

B) workers should provide evidence that they have suffered psychological harm.

C) workers have to prove offensive actions take place.

D) workers do not have to prove that the work environment is hostile or abusive.

E) workers have to prove that they are unable to do their jobs because of offensive actions.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: The Budget and Economic Policies

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are examples of negative externalities EXCEPT

A) corporate downsizing.

B) toxic waste.

C) water pollution.

D) workplace injuries.

E) smoke pollution.

Q2) What is the primary source of discretionary spending in the federal budget?

Q3) What is the monetary value of all goods and services produced in a nation each year, excluding income residents earn abroad?

A) The gross domestic product (GDP)

B) The Federal Reserve Board

C) The balance of payments

D) Fiscal policy

E) Monetary policy

Q4) Examples of a progressive tax in the United States are

A) excise taxes on alcohol.

B) social security payroll taxes.

C) medicare payroll taxes.

D) excise taxes on cigarettes.

E) federal income taxes.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Social Safety Nets

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Sample Questions

Q1) Recently, the design and administration of which type of program has been turned over to the states?

A) Medicaid

B) Social security

C) Medicare

D) TANF

E) AFDC

Q2) Though it attracts more popular criticism than virtually any other government program, public assistance (welfare)

A) has never been reformed.

B) gives more benefits to more Americans than any other government program.

C) is actually quite popular.

D) accounts for a small part of the federal budget.

E) remains ineffective.

Q3) Welfare assistance is no longer a federal entitlement.

A)True

B)False

Q4) How is the American welfare state different from those found in other Western democratic nations?

Q5) What is SCHIP?

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Foreign Policy and National Defense

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true?

A) The Israeli-Palestinian conflict is on the verge of being resolved.

B) Most Middle Eastern countries do not recognize Israel's right to exist.

C) The Palestinian Authority has the support of Hamas.

D) Hamas and Hezbollah support a two-state solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.

E) Most Middle Eastern countries support a two-state solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.

Q2) Figure 19.3 is quite clear that

A) a majority of nations have favorable views of the United States.

B) favorable views of the United States have increased since 1999.

C) favorable views of the United States have declined across all countries listed.

D) Canada continues to have the most favorable view of the United States of any country.

E) Great Britain's favorability has declined the most of any nation.

Q3) The Joint Chiefs of Staff is part of the congressional decision making structure.

A)True

B)False

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