Data Communications Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Data Communications explores the principles and technologies behind the transmission of data across networks and communication systems. The course covers fundamentals such as signal types, analog and digital transmission, data encoding and modulation, error detection and correction, data link protocols, and multiplexing techniques. Students will also study network topology, communication media, packet switching, and relevant standards and protocols, gaining an understanding of how data is reliably and efficiently exchanged between devices in local and wide-area networks.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the differences between a physical topology and a logical topology.
Answer: The term physical topology, or network topology, mostly applies to hardware and describes how computers, other devices, and cables fit together to form the physical network. The term logical topology has to do with software and describes how access to the network is controlled, including how users and programs initially gain access to the network and how specific resources, such as applications and databases, are shared on the network.
Q2) What is the most popular web server application?
A) Microsoft Internet Information Services
B) NGINX
C) Lighttpd
D) Apache Answer: D
Q3) What is the minimal amount of voltage required to damage an electrical component?
A) 5 volts
B) 10 volts
C) 100 volts
D) 1500 volts
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three different types of cabling recognized by TIA/EIA as acceptable for horizontal wiring?
Answer: TIA/EIA recognizes three possible cabling types for horizontal wiring: UTP, STP, or fiber optic cable. UTP (unshielded twisted pair) cable is a type of copper-based cable that consists of one or more insulated twisted-wire pairs encased in a plastic sheath. STP (shielded twisted pair) cable is a type of copper-based cable containing twisted-wire pairs that are not only individually insulated, but also surrounded by a shielding made of a metallic substance such as foil. Fiber-optic cable is a form of cable that contains one or several glass or plastic fibers in its core and comes in two types: single-mode fiber (SMF) or multimode fiber (MMF). Copper-based cable transmits data via electric signals, and fiber-optic cable transmits data via pulsing light sent from a laser or light-emitting diode (LED).
Q2) In a rack setup, a device called a KVM allows multiple consoles to connect to a single device on the rack.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using DHCP for IPv6 (i.e. DHCPv6), what port do clients receive responses on?
A) port 67
B) port 68
C) port 546
D) port 547
Answer: D
Q2) In a DNS zone, what type of record holds the name-to-address mapping for IPv6 addresses?
A) A record
B) AAAA record
C) PTR record
D) TXT record
Answer: B
Q3) An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits that are written as 10 blocks of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the different categories of routers, and how do they compare?
Q2) By default, what is the MTU size on a typical Ethernet network?
A) 1492 bytes
B) 1500 bytes
C) 1518 bytes
D) 1522 bytes
Q3) What are some of the basic functions of a network router?
Q4) What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?
A) The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.
B) The router attempts to forward the traffic on a local network.
C) The router resets the TTL to 128.
D) The router marks the packet as corrupted and forwards it to the next hop.
Q5) Originally codified by ISO, what does the "intermediate system" in IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) stand for?
A) The autonomous systems used by an organization.
B) An entire network consisting of various network devices.
C) The administrative boundaries of an organization.
D) An IS-IS capable network router.
Q6) How is the TTL (Time to Live) field utilized in IPv4?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type?
A) A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors.
B) A mismatched connector will not fit the coaxial cable for termination.
C) A mismatched connector will work fine, but breaks cabling standards.
D) A mismatched connector will destroy the equipment it is connected to.
Q2) What is the biggest limiting factor on fiber-optic cable length?
Q3) How does modal bandwidth affect the performance of a multimode fiber segment?
Q4) Noise can degrade or distort a signal on a network; what are some of its causes?
Q5) What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment?
A) statistical time division multiplexing
B) dense wavelength division multiplexing
C) coarse wavelength division multiplexing
D) spaced wavelength division multiplexing
Q6) A short circuit is one where needed connections are missing, such as when a wire breaks.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the 802.11ac standard is NOT accurate?
A) The standard was officially approved in early 2014.
B) 802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch.
C) 802.11ac access points can handle multiple transmissions at one time over the same frequency.
D) 802.11ac operates on the 5-GHz band.
Q2) The Wi-Fi Protected Setup PIN can be easily cracked through a brute force attack.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many data streams are used in 802.11ac Wave 2 devices?
A) 2 data streams
B) 3 data streams
C) 4 data streams
D) 8 data streams
Q4) What is the difference between war driving and war chalking?
Q5) All wireless signals are carried through the air by electromagnetic waves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding VNC (Virtual Network Computing or Virtual Network Connection), what statement is accurate?
A) VNC is faster than Remote Desktop, and requires less network bandwidth.
B) VNC is open source, allowing companies to develop their own software based on VNC.
C) VNC uses the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
D) VNC is a standard developed by Microsoft and used by Windows Remote Desktop.
Q2) Office 365 is an example of an SaaS implementation with a subscription model.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The PPP headers and trailers used to create a PPP frame that encapsulates Network layer packets vary between 8 and 10 bytes in size due to what field?
A) priority
B) FCS
C) FEC
D) encryption
Q4) What are some of the features that all cloud services usually have in common?
Q5) All types of remote access techniques connecting to a network require at least one of what two different types of remote access server?
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) With VTP, where is the VLAN database stored?
A) On the router responsible for maintaining the VTP database.
B) On the switch that is known as the stack master.
C) On the switch that is configured as the trunk root.
D) On the designated VLAN server for the network.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding IPv6 subnetting is NOT accurate?
A) IPv6 addressing uses no classes, and is therefore classless.
B) IPv6 does not use subnet masks.
C) A single IPv6 subnet is capable of supplying 18,446,744,073,709,551,616 IPv6 addresses.
D) The largest IPv6 subnet capable of being created is a /64.
Q3) When dealing with a Cisco switch, what is NOT one of the pre-established VLANs?
A) VLAN 1
B) VLAN 1001
C) VLAN 1003
D) VLAN 1005
Q4) In 1993, the IETF devised a shorthand method for identifying network and host bits in an IP address. What is this method, and how do you use it?
Q5) What is the difference between a default VLAN and a native VLAN?
Q6) How does the logical process of combining bits known as ANDing work?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements describes a worm?
A) A program that disguises itself as something useful but actually harms your system.
B) A process that runs automatically, without requiring a person to start or stop it.
C) A program that runs independently of other software and travels between computers and across networks.
D) A program that locks a user's data or computer system until a ransom is paid.
Q2) Sudden unexplained increases in file sizes and unusual error messages with no apparent cause are both potential symptoms of a viral infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is vulnerability scanning, and what are the two different types of vulnerability scans?
Q4) Current research indicates that a long, random string of words, such as correct horse battery staple is more secure than a random series of letters, numbers, and symbols that is short enough to be remembered.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) The storm-control command is a type of flood guard that is available on most major network switch vendor platforms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What kind of firewall can block designated types of traffic based on application data contained within packets?
A) stateful firewall
B) stateless firewall
C) content-filtering firewall
D) packet-filtering firewall
Q3) What scenario might be ideal for the use of root guard in configuring a switch?
A) You wish to block BPDUs on an access port serving network hosts.
B) You wish to disable STP on a port connected to a partnered company's switch.
C) You wish to prevent switches beyond a certain port from becoming the root bridge, but still wish to use STP.
D) You wish to prevent a rogue switch or computer from hijacking the network's STP paths.
Q4) What is the difference between an Intrusion Detection System and an Intrusion Protection System?
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe the average amount of time that will pass for a device before a failure is expected to occur?
A) estimated time to failure (ETTF)
B) product cycle lifetime (PCL)
C) maximum time available (MTA)
D) mean time between failures (MTBF)
Q2) The SNMP version 3 protocol introduces authentication, validation, and encryption for messages exchanged between devices and the network management console.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment?
A) It protects against electrical surges.
B) It shields equipment from lightning damage.
C) It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage.
D) It filters line noise from incoming power.
Q4) The creation of a response team should include what team roles?
Q5) The DiffServ technique for addressing QoS issues defines what two different types of data stream forwarding?
Q6) What are some of the more common network performance metrics that are utilized?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels?
A) 1
B) 12
C) 24
D) 64
Q2) The NIU (network interface unit) or NID (network interface device) at the ISP's demarc serves what purpose?
Q3) What is the size of an ATM cell, including the header?
A) 48 bytes
B) 53 bytes
C) 64 bytes
D) 84 bytes
Q4) WANs connect nodes, such as workstations, servers, printers, and other devices, in a small geographical area on a single network.
A)True
B)False
Q5) DSL signals travel over telephone lines using the 300 to 3300 Hz frequency range.
A)True
B)False
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