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Data Modeling introduces students to the foundational concepts and practical techniques used to represent and structure data within information systems. The course covers essential topics such as entity-relationship modeling, normalization, and the mapping of conceptual designs to physical database implementations. Through a combination of theory and hands-on experience, students learn how to analyze user requirements, create data models that optimize storage and retrieval, ensure data integrity, and support business processes. The course also emphasizes the application of data modeling tools and best practices relevant to a variety of relational and non-relational database environments.
Recommended Textbook
Database Systems Design Implementation and Management 13th Edition by Carlos Coronel
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Q1) Data constitute the building blocks of information.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When data are entered into a form and saved, they are placed in the underlying database as knowledge.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Describe what metadata are and what value they provide to the database system. Answer: The metadata describe the data characteristics and the set of relationships that links the data found within the database.For example, the metadata component stores information such as the name of each data element, the type of values (numeric, dates, or text)stored on each data element, and whether the data element can be left empty.The metadata provide information that complements and expands the value and use of the data.In short, metadata present a more complete picture of the data in the database.Given the characteristics of metadata, you might hear a database described as a "collection of self-describing data."
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Q1) One of the limitations of the _____ model is that there is a lack of standards.
Answer: hierarchical
Q2) The term _____ is used to refer to the task of creating a conceptual data model that could be implemented in any DBMS.
Answer: logical design
Q3) Which of the following types of HDFS nodes acts as the interface between the user application and the HDFS?
A) Data node
B) Client node
C) Name node
D) Map node
Answer: B
Q4) In the context of data models, an entity is a person, place, thing, or event about which data will be collected and stored.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Each row in the relational table is known as a(n) _____.
Answer: entity instance
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Q1) If the attribute (B) is functionally dependent on a composite key (A) but not on any subset of that composite key, the attribute (B) is fully functionally dependent on (A).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) You can think of a table as a persistent representation of a logical relation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) When you define a table's primary key, the DBMS automatically creates a(n) _____ index on the primary key column(s) you declared.
A) key
B) composite
C) unique
D) primary
Answer: C
Q4) The _____ relationship is the relational database norm.
Answer: 1:M
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Q1) The concept of relationship strength is based on how the _____ of a related entity is defined.
Q2) _____ not only helps database designers to stay on track during the design process, it also enables them to pick up the design thread when the time comes to modify the design.
Q3) Database design is a(n) _____ process based on repetition.
A) sequential
B) iterative
C) linear
D) intermittent
Q4) Relationships between entities always operate in one direction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the Chen and Crow's Foot notations, an entity is represented with a rectangle containing the entity's name.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In organizations that generate large numbers of transactions, _____ processing speeds are often a top priority in database design, whichresult inminimal access time.
Page 6
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Q1) Disjoint subtypes are subtypes that contain nonunique subsets of the supertype entity set.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) _____ occurs when a relationship is improperly or incompletely identified and is therefore represented in a way that is not consistent with the real world.
Q3) _____ completeness means that every supertype occurrence must be a member of at least one subtype.
Q4) Overlapping subtypes are subtypes that contain a unique subset of the supertype entity set.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In specialization hierarchies with multiple levels of supertype and subtypes, a lower-level subtype can inherit only a few of the attributes and relationships from its upper-level supertypes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The main concern with redundant relationships is that they remain _____ across the model.
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Q1) In a(n) _____ diagram, the arrows above the attributes indicate all desirable dependencies.
A) Chen
B) dependency
C) functionality
D) ER
Q2) To generate a surrogate key, Microsoft Access uses a(n) _____ data type.
A) character
B) sequence
C) AutoNumber
D) identity
Q3) Some very specialized applications may require normalization beyond the _____.
A) 1NF
B) 2NF
C) 3NF
D) 4NF
Q4) Relational models view data as part of a table or collection of tables in which all key values must be identified.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) A(n) _____ is a query that is embedded (or nested) inside another query.
A) alias
B) operator
C) subquery
D) view
Q2) The special operator used to check whether a subquery returns any rows is _____.
A) BETWEEN
B) EXISTS
C) LIKE
D) IN
Q3) The _____statement in SQL combines rows from two queries and returns only the rows that appear in the first set but not in the second.
Q4) A(n) _____ is an alternate name given to a column or table in any SQL statement. A) alias
B) data type
C) stored function
D) trigger
Q5) A(n) _____ order sequence is a multilevel ordered sequence that can be created easily by listing several attributes, separated by commas, after the ORDER BY clause.
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Q1) A sequence is not associated with a table and can be dropped from a database with a DROP SEQUENCE command.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The_____ constraint assigns a value to an attribute when a new row is added to a table.
A) NOT NULL
B) CASCADE
C) UNIQUE
D) DEFAULT
Q3) Oracle recommends _____ for creating audit logs.
A) triggers
B) stored procedures
C) stored functions
D) tables
Q4) Using Oracle _____, a designer can write a PL/SQL code block by enclosing the commands inside BEGIN and END clauses.
Q5) An explicit cursor must return two or more rows.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Coding, testing, and debugging are part of the _____ phase of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC).
A) planning
B) analysis
C) detailed systems design
D) implementation
Q2) The Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) traces the history of an information system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A designer must have a thorough understanding of the company's data types, extent, and uses in order to develop an accurate _____.
Q4) What are the factors affecting the purchasing decision for DBMS software?
Q5) The system's _____ defines the extent of the design according to operational requirements.
Q6) The term _____ describes the strength of the relationships found among a module's entities.
Q7) The advent of very sophisticated application generators and _____ has substantially decreased coding and testing time.
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Q1) A(n) _____ specifically reserves access to the transaction that locked the object.
A) shared lock
B) exclusive lock
C) binary lock
D) deadlock
Q2) What are the three basic techniques to control deadlocks?
Q3) A single-user database system automatically ensures_____ of the database, because only one transaction is executed at a time.
A) serializability and durability
B) atomicity and isolation
C) serializability and isolation
D) atomicity and serializability
Q4) _____ means that data used during the execution of a transaction cannot be used by a second transaction until the first one is completed.
A) Serializability
B) Atomicity
C) Isolation
D) Time stamping
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Q1) Once an SQL statement is transformed, the DBMS creates what is commonly known as a(n) _____ plan.
Q2) ______ helps provide a balance between performance and fault tolerance.
Q3) _____ is another name for table space.
Q4) The _____ analyzes the SQL query and finds the most efficient way to access the data.
Q5) On the server side, the database environment must be properly configured to respond to clients' requests in the fastest way possible, while making optimum use of existing resources. The activities required to achieve this goal are commonly referred to as _____ tuning.
A) client and server
B) database SQL
C) SQL performance
D) DBMS performance
Q6) All transaction management commands are processed during the parsing and execution phases of query processing.
A)True
B)False

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Q7) Summarize the steps required to formulate a query.
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Q1) _____ transparency is the highest level of transparency. The end user or programmer does not need to know that a database is partitioned.
A) Performance
B) Fragmentation
C) Location
D) Local mapping
Q2) A distributed _____ can reference several different local or remote data processing sites.
A) request
B) site
C) data location
D) transaction
Q3) The objective of _____ optimization is to minimize the total cost associated with the execution of a request.
A) data
B) remote
C) transaction
D) query
Q4) Data _____ describes the process of deciding where to locate data.
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Q1) An multidimensional database management systems (MDBMS) uses proprietary techniques to store data in _____ n-dimensional arrays.
A) table-like
B) matrix-like
C) network-like
D) cube-like
Q2) ______ is a method or process of government.
Q3) _____ splits a table into subsets of rows or columns and places the subsets close to the client computer to improve data access time.
A) Normalization
B) Meta modeling
C) Replication
D) Partitioning
Q4) In multidimensional terms, the ability to focus on slices of the cube to perform a more detailed analysis is known as _____.
Q5) _____ is a measurement of the density of the data held in the data cube and is computed by dividing the total number of actual values in the cube by the total number of cells in the cube.
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Q1) Discuss the 3 Vs of Big Data. How has the definition of Big Data regarding these items changed over time?
Q2) In agraph database, the representation of a relationship between nodes is called a(n) ______.
Q3) ______databases simply store data with no attempt to understand the contents of the value component or its meaning.
Q4) In the context of Big Data, ______ refers to the trustworthiness of a set of data.
A) value
B) variability
C) veracity
D) viability
Q5) In the context of Big Data, ______ relates to changes in meaning.
A) variety
B) variability
C) veracity
D) viability
Q6) Scaling out is also referred to as _______.
Q7) Within MapReduce, a(n) ______ runs maps and reduces tasks on nodes.
Q8) Discuss NewSQL and what it attempts to do.
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Q1) The use of HTML does not equip a web browser with computational abilities beyond formatting output text and accepting form field inputs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the ADO.NET framework, the _____ object contains the actual SQL code or a stored procedure call to be run by the database.
A) Command
B) DataReader
C) DataAdapter
D) DataSet
Q3) In the context of OLE-DB, a(n) _____ is an object (application or process) that requests and uses data.
Q4) APIs are faster than _____ scripts because the code resides in memory and there is no need to run an external program for each request.
Q5) What are the main types of objects in the OLE-DB model? Explain.
Q6) Open Database Connectivity (ODBC), a superset of the SQL Access Group Call Level Interface (CLI), is implemented by _____.
Q7) What is a server-side extension? Explain.
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Q1) _____ CASE tools provide support for the planning, analysis, and design phases.
A) Front-end
B) Back-end
C) Vertical
D) Horizontal
Q2) "All users must have passwords" is an example of a _____.
A) rule
B) policy
C) standard
D) procedure
Q3) A full backup, or database dump, produces a complete copy of the entire database.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ allows for the translation of the company's strategic goals into the data and applications that will help the company achieve those goals.
A) Access Management
B) Business Intelligence
C) Information engineering (IE)
D) MOLAP
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