Data Communications
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Data Communications explores the fundamental concepts and techniques involved in the transmission of digital and analog data between computers and networking devices. The course covers key topics such as data transmission modes, signal encoding, error detection and correction, synchronization, multiplexing, switching techniques, and protocols used in modern networks. Students will gain a solid understanding of the technologies and standards that enable reliable and efficient communication over wired and wireless media, as well as insights into network configurations and the role of protocols in ensuring data integrity and security. This foundation prepares students for advanced networking topics and practical applications in various fields.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/183
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?
A) They lack scalability.
B) They are not necessarily secure.
C) They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers.
D) They centralize user account logins.
Answer: D
Q2) What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server?
A) POP3
B) IMAP4
C) SMTP
D) HTTPS
Answer: C
Q3) When dealing with static electricity, what kind of failure caused by static discharge shortens the life of a component, and can cause intermittent errors?
A) catastrophic failure
B) interrupting failure
C) upset failure
D) temporary failure
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What steps should be taken to manage documentation at a cabling plant?
Answer: Follow these guidelines to manage documentation at your cabling plant:
*Keep your cable plant documentation in a centrally accessible location. Make sure it includes locations, installation dates, lengths, and grades of installed cable.
*Label every data jack or port, patch panel or punch-down block, and connector or circuit.
*Use color-coded cables for different purposes and record the color schemes in your documentation. Cables can be purchased in a variety of sheath colors. For example, you might want to use pink for patch cables, green for horizontal wiring, purple for DMZ lines, and gray for vertical (backbone) wiring.
*Be certain to update your documentation as you make changes to the network. The more you document, the easier it will be to move or add cable segments in the future.
Q2) The industry standard height for a rack in rack units is 42U.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are troubleshooting a network issue on a client computer and discover that the network card has an IP address of 169.254.196.200. What does this mean?
A) The computer has been assigned a routed public IP address.
B) The network card has been erroneously assigned a loopback address.
C) The computer is configured to use DHCP, but was unable to lease an address.
D) The network card is set up for multicast communication.
Answer: C
Q2) UDP port 123 is utilized by the Network Time Protocol service.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) You are setting up a DNS zone and have been asked to create SPF and DKIM records. What type of DNS record will hold this information?
A) SRV record
B) CNAME record
C) TXT record
D) PTR record
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) By default, what is the MTU size on a typical Ethernet network?
A) 1492 bytes
B) 1500 bytes
C) 1518 bytes
D) 1522 bytes
Q2) UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is MAC address spoofing?
Q4) What are some of the basic functions of a network router?
Q5) You have been tasked with maintaining a network that is jumbo frame enabled. What does this mean?
A) The MTU for the network can be as high as 9198 bytes.
B) The network is not based on the Ethernet standard.
C) Fragmented frames will be consolidated into whole frames before being sent.
D) The MTU for the network is set at 65,535 bytes.
Q6) The CTRL + S key combination can be used to stop an actively running command.
A)True
B)False
Q7) How are routing paths determined?
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a coaxial cabling, what does the RG rating measure?
A) The number of twists in the copper core.
B) The overall thickness of the cable.
C) The maximum distance the cable is rated for, in kilometers.
D) The materials used for shielding and conducting cores.
Q2) What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment?
A) statistical time division multiplexing
B) dense wavelength division multiplexing
C) coarse wavelength division multiplexing
D) spaced wavelength division multiplexing
Q3) Utilizing time slots that are adjusted according to priority and need is an example of what type of multiplexing on copper lines?
A) time division multiplexing
B) statistical time division multiplexing
C) frequency division multiplexing
D) wavelength division multiplexing
Q4) When tracing a wire, how do you utilize a toner and probe kit?
Q5) How does modal bandwidth affect the performance of a multimode fiber segment?
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Wi-Fi Protected Setup PIN can be easily cracked through a brute force attack.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What 802.11 frame type is involved in association and reassociation, including probe and beacon frames?
A) management frames
B) control frames
C) data frames
D) extended frames
Q3) Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation?
A) The signal is redirected into multiple directions.
B) The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.
C) The signal is returned back towards the source of the original signal.
D) The signal is completely absorbed by the diffracting material.
Q4) What is the hidden node problem, and how can it be mitigated?
Q5) Most wireless devices use one of two technologies to avoid interference. What are these technologies?
Q6) What is the difference between war driving and war chalking?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digital certificates are issued, maintained, and validated by an organization called a certificate authority (CA).
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of scenario would be best served by using a Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud model?
A) A group of developers needs access to multiple operating systems and the runtime libraries that the OS provides.
B) An organization wishes to gain access to applications through an online user interface, while maintaining compatibility across operating systems.
C) An organization needs to have a hosted virtual network infrastructure for their services, which are run on virtual machines.
D) A small organization needs to have high availability for their web server.
Q3) Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate?
A) The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN.
B) The vNIC will be assigned a NAT-ed IP address.
C) The vNIC will only be able to communicate across the bridge to the host PC.
D) The vNIC will utilize the host PC's IP address.
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information?
A) 802.1c
B) 802.1Q
C) 802.1V
D) 802.1d
Q2) A native VLAN mismatch occurs when two access ports that are connected to each other are both tagging traffic with different VLAN IDs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are working on a Cisco switch and need to learn what VLANs exist on the switch. Which command will list the current VLANs recognized by the switch?
A) get vlans
B) show vlan
C) list switch-vlans
D) show vlandb
Q4) A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the characteristics of malware that make it difficult to detect?
Q2) What type of an attack forces clients off a wireless network, creating a form of Wi-Fi DoS?
A) deauthentication attack
B) channel hopping attack
C) man-in-the-middle attack
D) ARP poisoning attack
Q3) What statement regarding the different versions of the SHA hashing algorithm is accurate?
A) SHA-0 is the most secure version of SHA.
B) SHA-1 supports a 128-bit hash function.
C) SHA-2 only supports a 256-bit hash.
D) SHA-2 and SHA-3 both support the same hash lengths.
Q4) Over a long-distance connection, using SSH keys is more secure than using passwords.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is vulnerability scanning, and what are the two different types of vulnerability scans?
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is used to describe the configuration of a port to copy all traffic passing through the switch to the device at the other end of the port?
A) port supertrunking
B) port mirroring
C) port shadowing
D) port lurking
Q2) Of the three methods of access control (RBAC, DAC, and MAC), RBAC is the least secure of the options.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You have been tasked with the configuration of a Juniper switch, and have been told to restrict the number of MAC addresses allowed in the MAC address table. What command should you use?
A) set max-mac
B) set total-macs
C) mac-address limit
D) mac-limit
Q4) How does a reverse proxy differ from a normal proxy?
Q5) How does the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) function?
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard?
A) IEEE 802.3af
B) IEEE 802.1cd
C) IEEE 802.3ad
D) IEEE 802.3bd
Q2) When viewing a syslog message, what does a level of 0 indicate?
A) The message is an error condition on the system.
B) The message is a warning condition on the system.
C) The message is an emergency situation on the system.
D) The message represents debug information.
Q3) How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment?
A) It protects against electrical surges.
B) It shields equipment from lightning damage.
C) It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage.
D) It filters line noise from incoming power.
Q4) A system with an availability of 99.999% can be down for a maximum of 52 minutes per year.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The word "synchronous" as used in the name of Synchronous Optical Network means that data being transmitted and received by nodes must conform to a timing scheme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today?
A) ADSL
B) VDSL
C) SDSL
D) G.Lite
Q3) DSL services require many subscribers to share the same local line, causing potential security concerns.
A)True
B)False
Q4) WANs connect nodes, such as workstations, servers, printers, and other devices, in a small geographical area on a single network.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between a DTE and a DCE?
Q6) List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
Page 14
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