Cybersecurity Principles Test Questions
Course Introduction
Cybersecurity Principles provides a comprehensive introduction to the foundational concepts, practices, and technologies essential to protecting information systems. The course explores the core pillars of cybersecurity, including confidentiality, integrity, and availability, and examines the threat landscape faced by individuals and organizations. Students learn about key security mechanisms such as authentication, access control, network security, cryptography, and risk management. Real-world case studies and current events are analyzed to illustrate vulnerabilities, attack methods, and defense strategies. By the end of the course, students will have a solid understanding of cybersecurity frameworks, policy development, security best practices, and legal and ethical considerations in the digital age.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Security Principles and Practice 3rd Edition by William Stallings
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Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Q1) __________ is the protection afforded to an automated information system in order to attain the applicable objectives of preserving the integrity,availability,and confidentiality of information system resources.
Answer: Computer Security
Q2) Misappropriation and misuse are attacks that result in ________ threat consequences.
Answer: usurpation
Q3) Confidentiality,Integrity,and Availability form what is often referred to as the _____.
Answer: CIA triad
Q4) X.800 architecture was developed as an international standard and focuses on security in the context of networks and communications.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) A loss of _________ is the disruption of access to or use of information or an information system.
Answer: availability
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Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Q1) Also referred to as single-key encryption,the universal technique for providing confidentiality for transmitted or stored data is __________ .
Answer: symmetric encryption
Q2) Two of the most important applications of public-key encryption are digital signatures and key management.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Some form of protocol is needed for public-key distribution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The purpose of a __________ is to produce a "fingerprint" of a file,message,or other block of data.
A)secret key
B)digital signature
C)keystream
D)hash function
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Q1) The __________ is the pattern formed by veins beneath the retinal surface. Answer: retinal pattern
Q2) Each individual who is to be included in the database of authorized users must first be __________ in the system.
A)verified
B)identified
C)authenticated
D)enrolled
Answer: D
Q3) A __________ is an individual to whom a debit card is issued. Answer: cardholder
Q4) An institution that issues debit cards to cardholders and is responsible for the cardholder's account and authorizing transactions is the _________.
A)cardholder
B)issuer
C)auditor
D)processor
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) An independent review and examination of system records and activities in order to test for adequacy of system controls,to ensure compliance with established policy and operational procedures,to detect breaches in security,and to recommend any indicated changes in control,policy and procedures is a(n)__________ .
Q2) __________ access control controls access based on the identity of the requestor and on access rules stating what requestors are or are not allowed to do.
Q3) An auditing function monitors and keeps a record of user accesses to system resources.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are three key elements to an ABAC model: attributes which are defined for entities in a configuration;a policy model,which defines the ABAC policies;and the __________ model,which applies to policies that enforce access control.
Q5) Security labels indicate which system entities are eligible to access certain resources.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The basic elements of access control are: subject,__________,and access right.
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Chapter 5: Database and Cloud Security
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Q1) With ___________ administration the owner (creator)of a table may grant and revoke access rights to the table.
Q2) The __________ is responsible both for the cloud infrastructure and for the control of data and operations within a public cloud.
Q3) In addition to granting and revoking access rights to a table,in a ___________ administration the owner of the table may grant and revoke authorization rights to other users,allowing them to grant and revoke access rights to the table.
Q4) Fixed server roles operate at the level of an individual database.
A)True B)False
Q5) T F 4.The value of a primary key must be unique for each tuple of its table. A)True B)False
Q6) A _________ is the result of a query that returns selected rows and columns from one or more tables.
Q7) A __________ language provides a uniform interface to the database for users and applications.
Q8) In a relational database columns are referred to as _________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) The __________ is what the virus "does".
A)infection mechanism
B)trigger
C)logic bomb
D)payload
Q2) The __________ is when the virus function is performed.
A)dormant phase
B)propagation phase
C)triggering phase
D)execution phase
Q3) A __________ is code inserted into malware that lies dormant until a predefined condition,which triggers an unauthorized act,is met.
A)logic bomb
B)trapdoor
C)worm
D)Trojan horse
Q4) A virus that attaches to an executable program can do anything that the program is permitted to do.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) A DoS attack targeting application resources typically aims to overload or crash its network handling software.
A)True
B)False
Q2) SYN-ACK and ACK packets are transported using IP,which is an unreliable network protocol.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best defense against being an unwitting participant in a DDoS attack is to prevent your systems from being compromised.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a _______ attack the attacker creates a series of DNS requests containing the spoofed source address for the target system.
A)SYN flood
B)DNS amplification
C)poison packet
D)UDP flood
Q5) A ______ is a graphical puzzle used to attempt to identify legitimate human initiated interactions.
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Q1) A common location for a NIDS sensor is just inside the external firewall.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anomaly detection is effective against misfeasors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Copying a database containing credit card numbers,viewing sensitive data without authorization,and guessing and cracking passwords are examples of _________ .
Q4) The _________ (RFC 4766)document defines requirements for the Intrusion Detection Message Exchange Format (IDMEF).
Q5) The functional components of an _________ are: data source,sensor,analyzer,administration,manager,and operator.
Q6) ________ are decoy systems that are designed to lure a potential attacker away from critical systems.
Q7) __________ is a security service that monitors and analyzes system events for the purpose of finding,and providing real-time warning of attempts to access system resources in an unauthorized manner.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Q1) __________ protocols operate in networking devices,such as a router or firewall,and will encrypt and compress all traffic going into the WAN and decrypt and uncompress traffic coming from the WAN.
Q2) _________ control determines the direction in which particular service requests may be initiated and allowed to flow through the firewall.
A)Behavior
B)User
C)Direction
D)Service
Q3) The __________ protocol is an example of a circuit-level gateway implementation that is conceptually a "shim-layer" between the application layer and the transport layer and does not provide network-layer gateway services.
Q4) The _________ defines the transport protocol.
A)destination IP address
B)source IP address
C)interface
D)IP protocol field
Q5) Snort Inline adds three new rule types: drop,reject,and _________.
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Q1) Even though it is a high-level programming language,Java still suffers from buffer overflows because it permits more data to be saved into a buffer than it has space for.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Shellcode must be able to run no matter where in memory it is located.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A stack overflow can result in some form of a denial-of-service attack on a system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _________ is a form of overflow attack.
A)Heap overflows
B)Return to system call
C)Replacement stack frame
D)All of the above
Q5) __________ defenses aim to harden programs to resist attacks in new programs.
Page 12
Q6) __________ defenses aim to detect and abort attacks in existing programs.
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Chapter 11: Software Security
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Q1) Injection attacks variants can occur whenever one program invokes the services of another program,service,or function and passes to it externally sourced,potentially untrusted information without sufficient inspection and validation of it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To prevent XSS attacks any user supplied input should be examined and any dangerous code removed or escaped to block its execution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many computer security vulnerabilities result from poor programming practices.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To counter XSS attacks a defensive programmer needs to explicitly identify any assumptions as to the form of input and to verify that any input data conform to those assumptions before any use of the data.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _________ attacks are most commonly seen in scripted Web applications.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Q1) The three operating system security layers are: physical hardware,operating system kernel,and _________.
Q2) Lower layer security does not impact upper layers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A very common configuration fault seen with Web and file transfer servers is for all the files supplied by the service to be owned by the same "user" account that the server executes as.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You should run automatic updates on change-controlled systems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A malicious driver can potentially bypass many security controls to install malware.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Most large software systems do not have security weaknesses. A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) A multilevel secure system for confidentiality must enforce:
A)no read up
B)ss-property
C)no write down
D)all of the above
Q2) "No read up" is also referred to as the _________ property.
Q3) When multiple categories or levels of data are defined,the requirement is referred to as __________ security.
Q4) _________ rules are security policy restrictions on the behavior of IVPs and TPs.
Q5) An object is said to have a security clearance of a given level.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ access mode allows the subject neither read nor write access to the object but may invoke the object for execution.
Q7) A subject is said to have a security _________ of a given level.
Q8) _________ rules are built-in system security mechanisms that achieve the objectives of the certification rules.
Page 15
Q9) An object is said to have a security ________ of a given level.
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) The ________ has revised and consolidated a number of national and international standards into a consensus of best practice.
A)ISO
B)CSI
C)VSB
D)DBI
Q2) ________ specification indicates the impact on the organization should the particular threat in question actually eventuate.
A)Risk
B)Consequence
C)Threat
D)Likelihood
Q3) IT security management functions include:
A)determining organizational IT security objectives,strategies,and policies
B)detecting and reacting to incidents
C)specifying appropriate safeguards
D)all of the above
Q4) _________ is sharing responsibility for the risk with a third party.
Q5) Not proceeding with the activity or system that creates the risk is _________.
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls,plans,and Procedures
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Q1) Periodically reviewing controls to verify that they still function as intended,upgrading controls when new requirements are discovered,ensuring that changes to systems do not adversely affect the controls,and ensuring new threats or vulnerabilities have not become known are all ________ tasks.
A)security compliance
B)maintenance
C)incident handling
D)program management
Q2) The ________ audit process should be conducted on new IT systems and services once they are implanted;and on existing systems periodically,often as part of a wider,general audit of the organization or whenever changes are made to the organization's security policy.
Q3) ________ controls focus on the response to a security breach,by warning of violations or attempted violations of security policies.
A)Technical
B)Preventative
C)Detection and recovery
D)Management
Q4) Incident response is part of the ________ class of security controls.
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Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) ________ security protects computer-based data from software-based and communication-based threats.
A)Infrastructure
B)Premises
C)Physical
D)Logical
Q2) _______ should be located on the floor of computer rooms as well as under raised floors,and should cut off power automatically in the event of a flood.
A)Smoke detectors
B)UPS
C)Water sensors
D)Equipment power off switches
Q3) An area of a facility that has no security interest is classified as _________.
A)unrestricted
B)controlled
C)limited
D)exclusion
Q4) ________ physical threats are more difficult to deal with than environmental and technical threats.
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) In large and medium-sized organizations,a(n)_________ is responsible for rapidly detecting incidents,minimizing loss and destruction,mitigating the weaknesses that were exploited,and restoring computing services.
Q2) Security education is most often taught by outside sources.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As part of their contractual obligation,employees should agree and sign the terms and conditions of their employment contract,which should state their and the organization's responsibilities for information security.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The principles that should be followed for personnel security are: limited reliance on key employees,separation of duties,and _______.
Q5) The goal of the _______ function is to ensure that all information destined for the incident handling service is channeled through a single focal point regardless of the method by which it arrives for appropriate redistribution and handling within the service.
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Q1) _________ audit trails are generally used to monitor and optimize system performance.
A)User-level
B)Physical-level
C)System-level
D)All of the above
Q2) Windows is equipped with three types of event logs: system event log,security event log,and ________ event log.
Q3) System conditions requiring immediate attention is a(n)_______ severity.
A)alert
B)err
C)notice
D)emert
Q4) Protection of the audit trail involves both integrity and confidentiality.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ______ is the process of defining normal versus unusual events and patterns.
Q6) Audit trails are different from audit logs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) _____ can be copyrighted.
A)Dramatic works
B)Architectural works
C)Software-related works
D)All of the above
Q2) ________ ensures that a user may make multiple uses of resources or services without others being able to link these uses together.
A)Anonymity
B)Pseudonymity
C)Unobservability
D)Unlinkability
Q3) The successful use of law enforcement depends much more on technical skills than on people skills.
A)True
B)False
Q4) No cybercriminal databases exist that can point investigators to likely suspects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The three types of patents are: utility patents,design patents,and ________.
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) The exact substitutions and transformations performed by the algorithm depend on the ________.
A)ciphertext
B)decryption algorithm
C)secret key
D)encryption algorithm
Q2) For symmetric encryption to work the two parties to an exchange must share the same _____,which must be protected from access by others.
Q3) For general-purpose block-oriented transmission you would typically use _______ mode.
A)CBC
B)CTR
C)CFB
D)OFB
Q4) Symmetric encryption is also referred to as secret-key or single-key encryption.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
Q5) The three most important symmetric block ciphers are: 3DES,AES,and _____.
Q6) _________ is the process of attempting to discover the plaintext or key.
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Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) SHA-1 is considered to be very secure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) SHA-2 shares the same structure and mathematical operations as its predecessors and this is a cause for concern.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The DSS makes use of the _________ and presents a new digital signature technique,the Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA).
A)HMAC
B)XOR
C)RSA
D)SHA-1
Q4) Perhaps the most widely used public-key algorithms are _________ and Diffie-Hellman.
Q5) Four possible approaches to attacking the RSA algorithm are: brute force,timing attacks,_________ attacks,and chosen ciphertext attacks.
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Q6) One of the first public-key schemes,_______,was developed in 1977 by Ron Rivest,Adi Shamir,and Len Adleman.
Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) S/MIME content-types support four new functions: enveloped data,__________,clear-signed data,and signed and enveloped data.
Q2) ESP supports two modes of use: transport and _________.
A)padding
B)tunnel
C)payload
D)sequence
Q3) A signed data message can only be viewed by a recipient with __________ capability.
Q4) The ______ is responsible for transferring the message from the MHS to the MS. A)MDA
B)MS
C)MUA
D)MSA
Q5) The _________ is used to convey SSL-related alerts to the peer entity.
Q6) If encryption is used alone,_______ is used to convert the ciphertext to ASCII format.
Q7) IP-level security encompasses three functional areas: authentication,confidentiality,and _________.
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) The focus of _________ is defining an identity for each user,associating attributes with the identity,and enforcing a means by which a user can verify identity.
Q2) The overall scheme of Kerberos is that of a trusted third-party authentication service.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Update is not required when the certificate lifetime expires or as a result of certificate revocation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is a set of SOAP extensions for implementing message integrity and confidentiality in Web services.
Q5) In a generic identity management architecture _______ are entities that obtain and employ data maintained and provided by identity and attribute providers,often to support authorization decisions and to collect audit information.
Q6) The certification _________ is the issuer of certificates and certificate revocation lists.
Q7) In a generic identity management architecture a ________ is an identity holder.
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) The transmission medium carries the radio waves for data transfer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most significant source of risk in wireless networks in the underlying communications medium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fields preceding the MSDU field are referred to as the _________.
Q4) The security requirements are: confidentiality,integrity,availability,authenticity,and
Q5) A(n)__________ is any entity that has station functionality and provides access to the distribution system via the wireless medium for associated stations.
A)ESS
B)access point
C)distribution system
D)MPDU
Q6) The two services involved with the distribution of messages within a DS are distribution and _________.
Q7) The field following the MSDU field is referred to as the ___________.
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