Cybersecurity Fundamentals Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Cybersecurity Fundamentals provides a comprehensive introduction to the principles and practices of securing digital information and systems. The course covers essential topics such as threat landscapes, common types of attacks, cryptography basics, network security, authentication, access control, and security policies. Students will explore how vulnerabilities are exploited, and learn about defense strategies, risk management, and best practices for protecting data and critical infrastructure. Through real-world examples and practical exercises, this course equips learners with the foundational knowledge required to understand and address cybersecurity challenges in todays interconnected world.
Recommended Textbook Guide to Network Defense and Countermeasures 3rd Edition by Randy Weaver
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Network Security Fundamentals
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ events usually track the operations of the firewall or IDPS,making a log entry whenever it starts or shuts down.
Answer: System
Q2) ______________________ is the capability to prevent a participant in an electronic transaction from denying that it performed an action.
Answer: Nonrepudiation
Q3) Which security layer verifies the identity of a user,service,or computer?
A) authentication
B) repudiation
C) physical security
D) authorization
Answer: A
Q4) Which of the following is NOT information that a packet filter uses to determine whether to block a packet?
A) checksum
B) port
C) IP address
D) protocol
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: TCP-IP
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three reasons an administrator would want to use subnetting.
Answer: Mirroring the organization's physical layout
Mirroring the organization's administrative structure
Planning for future growth
Reducing and controlling network traffic
Increasing network security
Logically segment a network
Q2) What is CIDR? Give an example.
Answer: CIDR is Classless Interdomain Routing which is an address notation scheme that specifies the number of masked bits in an IP address/subnet mask combination.Instead of using standard notation for subnet masks,with CIDR you can simply list the number of masked binary bits.The subnet mask 255.255.255.224,for example,has a total of 27 masked bits (eight in each of the first three octets and three in the last octet).In CIDR notation,you would write the network address 192.168.6.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 as 192.168.6.0/27.
Q3) ________________ IPv6 addresses are used for one-to-one or one-to-many communication.
Answer: Anycast
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Network Traffic Signatures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The signature of a normal FTP connection includes a three-way handshake.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In which type of scan does an attacker scan only ports that are commonly used by specific programs?
A) random scan
B) vanilla scan
C) ping sweep
D) strobe scan
Answer: D
Q3) The _______________ part of a packet is the actual data sent from an application on one computer to an application on another.
Answer: payload
Q4) What is the difference between a vanilla port scan and a strobe port scan?
Answer: In a vanilla scan,all ports from 0 to 65,535 are probed one after another.In a strobe scan,an attacker scans only ports that are commonly used by specific programs in an attempt to see whether the program is present and can be used.
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Chapter 4: Routing Fundamentals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enable ___________ password uses type 5 encryption and overrides the enable password.
Q2) What is a distance-vector routing protocol? Give one example.
Q3) What Cisco router command encrypts all passwords on the router?
A) enable secret password
B) secure passwords enable
C) crypto key passwords
D) service password-encryption
Q4) the port on a Cisco device that permits direct physical access from a nearby computer using the serial RS-232 protocol
A)ACE
B)ARP table
C)banner
D)console port
E)convergence
F)inverse mask
G)metrics
H)routing
I)stub router
j.virtual terminal
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Chapter 5: Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about Message Authentication Code.
A) it uses asymmetric encryption
B) the key is sent to the receiver securely
C) is uses PKI and certificates
D) it uses a private and public key
Q2) the current U.S.government standard for cryptographic protocols
A)AES
B)block cipher
C)ciphertext
D)cryptanalysis
E)DES
F)XOR function
G)IPsec
H)key management
I)plaintext
J)stream cipher
Q3) What is a digital signature and for what purpose is one used?
Q4) How does an asymmetric algorithm differ from a symmetric algorithm?
Q5) What is a Feistel network and what is its purpose?
Q6) What is a MAC tag and how does it work?
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Chapter 6: Wireless Network Fundamentals
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Q1) The _____________________ wireless standard will use the 5 GHz band and will provide multistation WLANs with up to 1 Gbps bandwidth.
Q2) The Fresnel zone is the dispersal pattern of waves as they travel from sending to receiving antennas.
A)True
B)False
Q3) the sequence of changing frequencies in FHSS that determines the sequence and speed of frequency hops
A)absorption
B)amplitude
C)antenna
D)chipping code
E)diffraction
F)fading
G)free space path loss
H)Fresnel zone
I)hopping code
J)polarization
Q4) Why should you use caution when using multiple APs?
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Chapter 7: Understanding Wireless Security
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Q1) A ____________ response is sent by a station in response to a request frame and indicates capabilities,supported data rates,and other information.
Q2) Which type of control frame does a station send to let the AP know is can transmit buffered frames?
A) CTS
B) ACK
C) RTS
D) PS-Poll
Q3) Which of the following is true about the association process?
A) it is a three-step process
B) a station first listens for beacons
C) a station first send an association request
D) the AP transmits an invitation to associate
Q4) A RTS frame is the first step of the two-way handshake before sending a data frame.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe 802.1x authentication.
Q6) List the four most common types of control frames.
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems
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Q1) Which method for detecting certain types of attacks uses an algorithm to detect suspicious traffic,is resource intensive,and requires extensive tuning and maintenance?
A) brute force
B) heuristic
C) signature
D) anomaly
Q2) A network ____________ is a type of passive sensor that consists of a direct connection between a sensor and the physical network medium.
Q3) Which IDPS customization option is a list of entities known to be harmless?
A) thresholds
B) whitelists
C) blacklists
D) alert settings
Q4) A hybrid IDPS combines aspects of NIDPS and HIDPS configurations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define stateful protocol analysis.Include in your answer the concept of the event horizon.
Q6) Describe two advantages and two disadvantages of a signature-based system.
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Chapter 9: Firewalls
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Q1) simple filters that determine whether to allow or block packets based on information in protocol headers
A)cleanup rule
B)firewall
C)firewall appliance
D)firewall policy
E)proxy server
F)rule base
G)socket
H)state table
I)stateful packet filters
J)stateless packet filters
Q2) The Cisco PIX line of products is best described as which of the following?
A) software firewall
B) PC with firewall installed
C) firewall appliance
D) VPN gateway
Q3) Describe a firewall policy for application traffic.
Q4) Discuss what a firewall is and its role in a company's overall security scheme.
Q5) What is stateful packet filtering?
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Chapter 10: Firewall Design and Management
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Q1) a process that uses the source and destination TCP and UDP port addresses to map traffic between internal and external hosts
A)dual-homed host
B)load-balancing software
C)many-to-one NAT
D)one-to-one NAT
E)proxy server
F)reverse firewall
G)screened host
H)screening router
I)server farm
J)three-pronged firewall
Q2) What is a reverse firewall and why would you use one?
Q3) Which type of security device can speed up Web page retrieval and shield hosts on the internal network?
A) caching firewall
B) proxy server
C) caching-only DNS server
D) DMZ intermediary
Q4) What is a bastion host and how is one typically configured?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: VPN Concepts
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Q1) Which of the following is an improvement of TLS over SSL?
A) requires less processing power
B) uses a single hashing algorithm for all the data
C) uses only asymmetric encryption
D) adds a hashed message authentication code
Q2) a set of standard procedures that the IETF developed for enabling secure communication on the Internet
A)AH
B)ESP
C)GRE
D)IKE
E)IPsec
F)ISAKMP
G)Kerberos
H)KDC
I)SSL
J)TGT
Q3) List two advantages and two disadvantages of VPNs.
Q4) TLS splits the input data in half and recombines it using a(n)___________ function.
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Chapter 12: Internet and World Wide Web Security
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Q1) What type of attack involves plaintext scripting that affects databases?
A) phishing
B) ActiveX control
C) Java applet
D) SQL injection
Q2) What is a buffer overflow attack?
Q3) Which aspect of hardening a Windows Web server allows you to restrict access to the web server based on IP address?
A) authentication
B) NTFS permissions
C) access control
D) data confidentiality
Q4) What makes IP spoofing possible for computers on the Internet?
A) network address translation
B) the lack of authentication
C) the 32-bit address space
D) the DNS hierarchy
Q5) _______________________ is a name-resolution service that translates domain names to IP addresses.
Q6) How can you harden a DNS server using the split DNS architecture?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Security Policy Design and Implementation
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Q1) SNA starts with the assumption that a system or network will be
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a phase in the system development life cycle?
A) needs assessment
B) security audit
C) system implementation
D) performance monitoring
Q3) What are the three levels of escalation of threat or security incidents? Describe them.
Q4) Which of the following shows how devices are connected and includes an IP allocation register?
A) hardware inventory
B) topology map
C) asset table
D) security policy
Q5) Your exposure to risk increases if your organization has one or more factors that increase _____________ probabilities.
Q6) What are the four steps of Threat and Risk Assessment?
Q7) What is a server security policy? List at least three areas the policy should address.
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Chapter 14: On-Going Security Management
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Q1) Security auditing is the process of documenting countermeasures put in place due to attacks on the network.
A)True
B)False
Q2) the number of target computers on a network managed by a single command console
A)active defense in depth
B)centralized data collection
C)degaussing
D)distributed data collection
E)independent audit
F)operational audit
G)security event management program
H)social engineering
I)target-to-console ratio
J)Tinkerbell program
Q3) How does distributed data collection work when collecting data from multiple sensors?
Q4) You monitor and evaluate network traffic to gather evidence that indicates whether your IDPS _________________ are working well or need to be updated.
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