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Cybersecurity Fundamentals provides a comprehensive introduction to the foundational concepts, technologies, and practices essential for protecting information systems against cyber threats. The course covers core topics such as security principles, risk management, cryptography, network security, threat landscapes, and ethical considerations. Students will learn about common cyberattacks, vulnerabilities, and the methods used to prevent, detect, and respond to incidents. Through a blend of theory and practical exercises, this course equips learners with the knowledge and skills necessary to understand the importance of cybersecurity in modern digital environments and prepares them for more advanced study or entry-level roles in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Guide to Network Defense and Countermeasures 3rd Edition by Randy Weaver
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Q1) What is a script kiddie?
Answer: The term script kiddie is often used to describe relatively unskilled programmers who spread viruses and other malicious scripts to exploit weaknesses in computer systems.Script kiddies lack the ability to create viruses or Trojan programs on their own,but they can usually find these programs online.
Q2) A method of authenticating a user using physical information,such as retinal scans,fingerprints,or voiceprints
A)auditing
B)biometrics
C)DMZ
D)DDoS attack
E)packet filters
F)port
G)RBAC
H)signatures
I)socket
J)worm
Answer: B
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Q1) a transmission in which one packet is sent from a server to each client that requests a file or application
A)broadcast
B)datagram
C)fragmentation
D)multicast
E)scopes
F)unicast
G)stateless autoconfiguration
H)network identifier
I)Multicast Listener Discovery
J)Network Address Translation
Answer: F
Q2) The _____________ field in an IP header is a 3-bit value indicating whether a datagram is a fragment.
Answer: flags
Q3) ________________ IPv6 addresses are used for one-to-one or one-to-many communication.
Answer: Anycast
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Q1) lets the other computer know it is finished sending data
A)back door
B)MTU
C)ping sweep
D)scan throttling
E)packet injection
F)signature
G)vanilla scan
H)RPC
I)FIN packet
J)RST packet
Answer: I
Q2) Of what category of attack is a DoS attack an example?
A) bad header information
B) single-packet attack
C) multiple-packet attack
D) suspicious data payload
Answer: C
Q3) A TCP packet with no flags set is referred to as a _________ packet.
Answer: null
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Q1) What feature does RIPng support that is not supported by RIP?
A) gigabit Ethernet
B) supernetting
C) IPv6
D) 32-bit addresses
Q2) Which of the following is true about extended IP ACLs?
A) the 'established' keyword is not available except on standard ACLs
B) you can apply multiple outbound ACLs on a single interface
C) the default inverse mask for the source is 0.0.0.0
D) they should be applied to an interface close to the traffic source
Q3) The enable ___________ password uses type 5 encryption and overrides the enable password.
Q4) Which of the following is a command you would find in an antispoofing ACL for network 172.31.0.0/16?
A) permit ip any 172.31.0.0 0.0.255.255 log
B) deny TCP 172.31.0.0 0.0.0.0 any log
C) deny ip 172.31.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log
D) permit icmp any any redirect
Q5) List the five types of Cisco router passwords.
Q6) What is a dynamic route?
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Q1) Which of the following is true about PRNGs?
A) they are not completely random
B) their state is measured in bytes
C) the shorter the state, the longer the period
D) they can never produce the same value
Q2) The standardization of cryptographic protocols discourages attackers from trying to break them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What three conditions must be true to make a hashing algorithm secure?
Q4) Because IPsec Security Associations are bidirectional,only one need be established between two parties.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast block cipher with stream cipher.
Q6) At which layer of the OSI model does IPsec work?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Six

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Q1) Describe two of the four methods of digital signal modulation.
Q2) A wireless _______________ combines management and security into a single appliance and can perform authentication,encryption,intrusion detection,and other functions.
Q3) What is a potential problem with having too many APs in a given area?
A) refraction
B) fading
C) multipath
D) co-channel interference
Q4) Which wireless transmission method uses a hopping code?
A) infrared
B) OFDM
C) narrowband
D) FHSS
Q5) What term is given to a device that is designed to generate radio signals,not including those from the antenna?
A) oscillator
B) conductive medium
C) intentional radiator
D) EIRP
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Q1) Which type of control frame does a station send to let the AP know is can transmit buffered frames?
A) CTS
B) ACK
C) RTS
D) PS-Poll
Q2) In which type of attack do attackers intercept the transmissions of two communicating nodes without the user's knowledge?
A) rogue device
B) wardriver
C) man-in-the-middle
D) brute force
Q3) How is wireless security different than wired security?
Q4) A ____________ response is sent by a station in response to a request frame and indicates capabilities,supported data rates,and other information.
Q5) Describe 802.1x authentication.
Q6) What is the purpose of MAC address filtering and how can attackers defeat it?
Q7) Each access point has a(n)______________ that essentially functions as the name of the network.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a method used by passive sensors to monitor traffic?
A) spanning port
B) network tap
C) packet filter
D) load balancer
Q2) the process of maintaining a table of current connections so that abnormal traffic can be identified
A)accountability
B)escalated
C)event horizon
D)inline sensor
E)intrusion
F)passive sensor
G)profiles
H)sensor
I)stateful protocol analysis
J)true positive
Q3) A network ____________ is a type of passive sensor that consists of a direct connection between a sensor and the physical network medium.
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Q1) Software firewalls are usually more scalable than hardware firewalls.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of hardware firewalls?
A) not scalable compared to software firewalls
B) not dependent on a conventional OS
C) less expensive than software firewalls
D) easy to patch
Q3) Which element of a rule base conceals internal names and IP addresses from users outside the network?
A) tracking
B) filtering
C) NAT
D) QoS
Q4) Stateless packet filtering keeps a record of connections that a host computer has made with other computers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A primary objective of a rule base is to ______________ communications based on complex rules.
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Q1) What is a step you can take to harden a bastion host?
A) enable additional services to serve as honeypots
B) open several ports to confuse attackers
C) configure several extra accounts with complex passwords
D) remove unnecessary services
Q2) Which network device works at the Application layer by reconstructing packets and forwarding them to Web servers?
A) Layer 7 switch
B) translating gateway
C) proxy server
D) ICMP redirector
Q3) Which of the following is best described as software that prioritizes and schedules requests and then distributes them to servers based on each server's current load and processing power.
A) server pooling software
B) traffic distribution filter
C) priority server farm
D) load-balancing software
Q4) A primary goal of proxy servers is to provide security at the _______________ layer.
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Q1) What was created to address the problem of remote clients not meeting an organization's VPN security standards?
A) split tunneling
B) VPN quarantine
C) IPsec filters
D) GRE isolation
Q2) Which VPN protocol uses UDP port 1701 and does not provide confidentiality and authentication?
A) IPsec
B) L2TP
C) PPTP
D) SSL
Q3) List two reasons IPsec has become the standard set of protocols for VPN security.
Q4) Which of the following is true about using VPNs?
A) more expensive than leased lines
B) can use an existing broadband connection
C) usually higher performance than leased lines
D) not dependent on an ISP
Q5) List two advantages and two disadvantages of VPNs.
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Q1) a protocol designed to improve DNS security by using cryptography to ensure DNS integrity and authentication
A)anycast addressing
B)DNSSEC
C)network access points
D)pharming
E)POP ISPs
F)security-aware resolver
G)spear phishing
H)slit DNS architecture
I)split brain DNS architecture
J)zone transfer
Q2) Windows Basic Authentication requires that users enter a username and password and the password is transmitted using a hashing algorithm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________ are networks of zombie computers that magnify the scope and intensity of an attack.
Q4) What is a buffer overflow attack?
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Q1) The people that manage security for the organization should not be same people that conduct risk analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) routers,cables,bastion hosts,servers,and firewall components that enable employees to communicate with one another
A)extranet
B)network assets
C)privileged access policy
D)risk management
E)role-based authentication
F)search warrant
G)subpoena
H)tunneling protocols
I)two-factor authentication
J)vulnerabilities
Q3) SNA starts with the assumption that a system or network will be
Q4) What is the purpose of a privileged access policy?
Q5) What points should a third-party access policy include? List at least three.
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Q1) Discuss operational auditing.Include in your discussion what should be looked for in an operational audit and what methods might be used in the audit.
Q2) Security auditing is the process of documenting countermeasures put in place due to attacks on the network.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List and define the areas for which DiD calls for maintenance.
Q4) List three types of changes for which you should use change management.
Q5) You should review the logs and alerts created by your security devices,a process called _________ monitoring.
Q6) Which type of change does NOT typically require the use of change management procedures?
A) new VPN gateways
B) changes to ACLs
C) changing a manager's permissions to a file
D) new password systems or procedures
Q7) A(n)____________________ audit should look for accounts assigned to employees who have left the company or user group.
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