Cross-sectional Anatomy for Imaging Professionals Exam Answer Key - 845 Verified Questions

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Cross-sectional Anatomy for Imaging Professionals

Exam Answer Key

Course Introduction

This course provides an in-depth exploration of human anatomy as visualized through cross-sectional imaging modalities such as CT, MRI, and ultrasound. Emphasis is placed on the identification and correlation of anatomical structures in multiple planes, with practical application to diagnostic imaging and clinical practice. Students will develop a foundational understanding of the relationships between organs, tissues, and anatomical landmarks essential for accurate image interpretation, with special focus on regions commonly encountered in routine imaging. Through lectures, visual aids, and laboratory exercises, participants will enhance their competency in recognizing normal anatomy and variations, paving the way for improved diagnostic accuracy and patient care in the imaging environment.

Recommended Textbook

Sonography Introduction to Normal Structure and Function 3rd Edition by Reva Arnez Curry

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31 Chapters

845 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Before and After the Ultrasound Examination

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Sample Questions

Q1) The sonographer should always review the ultrasound request form. _____

A)True

B)False Answer: True

Q2) The ultrasound request form contains the patient history. ____ A)True

B)False Answer: True

Q3) An assessment/treatment plan is listed on the ultrasound request form.____

A)True

B)False Answer: False

Q4) Sources of infection for HBV/HIV include pericardial fluid. ____

A)True

B)False Answer: True

Q5) Sources of infection for HBV and HIV include amniotic fluid. ____

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Ultrasound Instrumentation: Knobology, Imaging Processing, and Storage

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the differences between PACS, HIS, and RIS.

Answer: HIS is a hospital-wide computerized data collection system, of which RIS is a specialized, radiology-centered subset. PACS is the computer system that allows electronic storage, retrieval, and viewing of digitized images on computer workstations. PACS is a computer system that allows electronic storage and viewing of digital images. It works basically by capturing the ultrasound image, storing it locally on a hard drive, and then sending it to the computer workstation and external locations. HIS captures the patient's demographic information, as well as information from the patient's medical record. RIS can integrate with other information systems to allow patient scheduling, digital dictation, and the use of work lists.

Q2) Explain why it is important to learn the knobology of the ultrasound system.

Answer: The sonographer's knowledge of knobology allows for optimum manipulation of system controls to produce images of diagnostic quality. Sonographers must master the ultrasound system controls to produce these optimum images and to retrieve diagnostic information from the ultrasound examination.

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Chapter 3: General Patient Care

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Q1) A sterile field is created by ________________________________. To maintain a sterile field, _________________________.

Answer: placing prepackaged sterile drapes around the cleaned site; all items that enter the sterile field must be sterile. A sterile field is created by placing prepackaged sterile drapes around the cleaned site. To maintain a sterile field, all items that enter the field must be sterile.

Q2) If patients ask about the ultrasound findings, they should be told that sonographers _____________________; rather, sonographers

Answer: do not provide a diagnosis; provide the ultrasound images to an interpreting physician, who provides an interpretive report to the referring physician Patients should be told that sonographers do not provide a diagnosis; rather, they provide the sonographic images to an interpreting physician, who sends an interpretive report to the patient's referring physician.

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Chapter 4: First Scanning Experience

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Sample Questions

Q1) The level of echogenicity and appearance of tissue texture depend on

A) the type of localized disease present.

B) the density of the disease in the tissue.

C) the effect of the disease on the internal architecture.

D) all of the above

Q2) If a mass is discovered superior to the right kidney, it could originate from all of the following organs except the:

A) Liver

B) Kidneys

C) Adrenals

D) Spleen

Q3) Which of the following statements is most likely true of an intraorgan mass?

A) Discontinuity of the organ capsule

B) Obstruction of other organs and structures

C) Disruption of the normal internal architecture

D) Internal invagination of organ capsules

Q4) "A circumscribed disease process" describes a __________.

Q5) Normal muscle echo texture appears _______ with ______ echogenicity.

Q6) Transverse planes divide the body into unequal ______ and _________ sections.

Q7) Axial views show a structure's depth and ______________.

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Chapter 5: Interdependent Body Systems

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Q1) The paired lungs enclose the branching bronchial tree and alveoli. ____

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which body system does nothing directly to contribute to the survival of the human body?

A) Central nervous system

B) Endocrine system

C) Reproductive system

D) Digestive system

Q3) Ovulation is the

A) mature ova.

B) immature ova.

C) encasement of immature ova.

D) discharge of a mature ovum from its follicle.

Q4) The respiratory system delivers oxygen, nutrients, and white blood cells to body structures and removes toxins. ____

A)True

B)False

Q5) The _______________ system monitors and controls almost every organ in the body.

7

Q6) Homeostasis is defined as

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Chapter 6: Anatomy Layering and Sectional Anatomy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The greater sac

A) extends from the diaphragm to the pelvis and covers the width of the abdomen.

B) is the omental bursa.

C) is a double layer of peritoneum that extends from the stomach to adjacent abdominal organs.

D) is a diverticulum of the mesentery located posterior to the stomach.

Q2) In gross anatomy, the tail of the pancreas is located ___________ to the splenic artery.

A) medial

B) left lateral

C) inferior

D) anterior

Q3) Which structure is NOT oriented vertically in the body?

A) Abdominal aorta

B) Superior mesenteric vein

C) Right renal artery

D) Superior mesenteric artery

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Chapter 7: Embryology

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Q1) The embryonic/fetal spleen produces red and white blood cells. ____

A)True

B)False

Q2) The prerenal section of the IVC is derived from the

A) subcardinal/supracardinal vein.

B) proximal vitelline vein.

C) subcardinal vein.

D) supracardinal veins.

Q3) Accessory ovaries are the most common congenital anomaly of the female genital tract. ____

A)True

B)False

Q4) The diencephalon gives rise to the

A) pineal gland, pituitary gland, olfactory bulbs, and optic tracts.

B) cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles.

C) thalamus and hypothalamus.

Q5) The gastrointestinal tract begins to form at 4 weeks of embryologic age. ____

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: The Abdominal Aorta

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Sample Questions

Q1) The average anteroposterior diameter of the adult abdominal aorta is

A) 1 cm.

B) 1.5 cm.

C) 2 cm.

D) 3 cm.

Q2) The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound. ____

A)True

B)False

Q3) The inferoposterior pancreatic duodenal artery feeds the pancreatic head and duodenal area and is a branch of the

A) celiac artery.

B) superior mesenteric artery.

C) pancreatic artery.

D) suprarenal arteries.

Q4) The renal arteries ( RA) can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Splenic vein ____

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Chapter 9: The Inferior Vena Cava

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Sample Questions

Q1) The right hepatic vein is easily seen on ultrasound. _____

A)True

B)False

Q2) The walls of the hepatic veins are brightly echogenic. ____

A)True

B)False

Q3) The IVC courses through the liver. ____

A)True

B)False

Q4) The diameter of the normal adult IVC is approximately

A) 1 cm.

B) 1.5 cm.

C) 2.5 cm.

D) 3 cm.

Q5) Where should the transducer be placed to visualize the common iliac veins?

A) On the right and left groin areas

B) Near the umbilicus

C) At the symphysis pubis

D) None of the above

Q6) Right kidney ____

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Chapter 10: The Portal Venous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Normal liver ____

Q2) The portal triad is located

A) throughout the liver.

B) in several places in the liver.

C) at the opening of the liver.

D) none of the above

Q3) In a transverse scanning plane, the main portal vein initially appears in an axial section as an oval, anechoic structure. ____

A)True

B)False

Q4) The medial branch of the left portal vein is easier to visualize than the lateral branch.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Hepatic artery walls ____

Q6) The portal vein

A) supplies blood for detoxification.

B) supplies blood for liver function.

C) removes blood from the liver.

D) drains into the inferior vena cava.

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Chapter 11: Abdominal Vasculature

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Sample Questions

Q1) The hepatic artery enters the porta hepatis along with the

A) right hepatic and splenic veins.

B) main portal vein and common bile duct.

C) right hepatic vein and common bile duct.

D) left portal vein and right branch of the hepatic artery.

Q2) Which structure does NOT border the abdominal aorta anteriorly?

A) Portal vein

B) Superior mesenteric artery

C) Celiac axis

D) Stomach

Q3) High resistance Doppler spectral waveforms recorded throughout the renal medulla and cortex suggest

A) proximal renal artery stenosis.

B) flow-limiting disease in the distal renal artery.

C) intrinsic medical renal disease.

D) the presence of accessory renal arteries.

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Chapter 12: The Liver

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Sample Questions

Q1) The right and left lobes of the liver are related to the _______ of the diaphragm.

A) anterior surface

B) superior surface

C) posterior surface

D) undersurface

Q2) The boundaries of the bare area of the liver include

A) left coronary ligament, transverse colon, and stomach Antrum.

B) lesser sac, hepatoduodenal ligament, and right kidney.

C) inferior vena cava, main portal vein, and middle hepatic vein.

D) falciform, coronary, and triangular ligaments.

Q3) The quadrate lobe of the liver is also referred to as

A) the papillary projection.

B) the main lobar fissure.

C) the medial portion of the left lobe.

D) Glisson's capsule.

Q4) Diabetes ______

Q5) Cell membranes ______

Q6) Cholesterol ______

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Chapter 13: The Biliary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The landmarks that help identify the gallbladder on longitudinal section are the portal vein, main lobar fissure, and right kidney. ____

A)True

B)False

Q2) Length of the common hepatic duct ____

Q3) The common bile duct enters the duodenum through the hepatopancreatic ampulla. ____

A)True

B)False

Q4) A normal gallbladder appears round on the longitudinal view. ____

A)True

B)False

Q5) CCK is a peptide hormone that stimulates the sphincter of Oddi to contract. ____

A)True

B)False

Q6) Diameter of the cystic duct ____

Q7) The common bile duct is routinely seen on ultrasound. ____

A)True

B)False

Q8) Length of the common bile duct ____

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Chapter 14: The Pancreas

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sagittal views of the pancreas show the gland in transverse sections. ____

A)True

B)False

Q2) The acini cells produce the hormones insulin, glucagon, and somastatin. ____

A)True

B)False

Q3) The portal vein is formed

A) posterior to the neck of the pancreas.

B) anterior to the neck of the pancreas.

C) posterior to the head of the pancreas.

D) anterior to the head of the pancreas.

Q4) The pancreas is mostly an endocrine gland. ____

A)True

B)False

Q5) Pancreatic juice is composed of nucleic acids and also enzymes that help digest fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. ____

A)True B)False

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Chapter 15: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) List and explain the laboratory values that help measure renal function.

Q2) The adrenal medulla is the source of the hormones that produces the "flight or fight" response. ____

A)True

B)False

Q3) The structures anterior to the right kidney are the:

Q4) The apex of the medullary pyramid sits within a __________.

Q5) List the structures contained in the renal pelvis.

Q6) Where is erythropoietin produced?

A) Adrenal cortex

B) Kidney

C) Juxtaglomerular apparatus

D) Posterior pituitary gland

Q7) The base of the medullary pyramid comes in contact with the ________.

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Chapter 16: The Spleen

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Sample Questions

Q1) The spleen has a hilar area, similar to the liver and the kidneys. ____

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which artery is a branch of the splenic artery?

A) Left gastric artery

B) Short gastric artery

C) Right gastroepiploic artery

D) Inferior mesenteric artery

Q3) The spleen takes damaged cells out of circulation. ____

A)True

B)False

Q4) The average volume of the adult spleen is about

A) 50 ml.

B) 200 ml.

C) 400 ml.

D) 600 ml.

Q5) The hilar area of the spleen is not covered by peritoneum. ____

A)True

B)False

Q6) Splenic artery lumen ____

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Chapter 17: The Gastrointestinal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which substance is digested and absorbed in the GI tract?

A) Fats

B) Water

C) Carbohydrates

D) All of the above

Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of the stomach

A) neck

B) body

C) pylorus

D) fundus

Q3) The ascending colon is anterolateral to the

A) tail of the pancreas.

B) neck of the gallbladder.

C) left iliac crest.

D) lower pole of the right kidney.

Q4) Which of the following is NOT a part of the small bowel ?

A) Duodenum

B) Ileum

C) Cecum

D) Jejunum

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Chapter 18: The Prostate Gland and Seminal Vesicles

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Q1) Denonvilliers' fascia

A) is an interior covering for the prostate gland.

B) is the external coating for the seminal vesicles.

C) lies between the prostate and the rectum.

D) lines the external wall of the urinary bladder.

Q2) The periurethral tissues can easily be differentiated from the anterior fibromuscular stroma. ______

A)True

B)False

Q3) When zones are compared on ultrasound, the peripheral zone may appear more echogenic than which structure(s)?

A) Central zone

B) Transition zone

C) Periurethral tissues

D) All of the above

Q4) The prostate weighs about

A) 5g

B) 10g

C) 20g

D) 40g

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Chapter 19: The Female Pelvis

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the uterine body and fundus are tilted posteriorly, uterine position is described as

A) anteflexed.

B) retroflexed.

C) retroverted.

D) anteverted.

Q2) Which of the following is used to divide the pelvic cavity into the pelvis major (false pelvis) and the pelvis minor (true pelvis)?

A) Pubic symphysis

B) Linea alba

C) Linea terminalis

D) Iliac crests

Q3) Which support structure anchors the ovary loosely to the uterine cornu?

A) Mesovarium

B) Ovarian ligament

C) Round ligament

D) Cardinal ligament

Q4) The uterine tubes are oriented ________ in the body.

Q5) The peritoneal cavity space posterior to the broad ligaments is the ________.

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Q6) The _______ ligaments are not true ligaments and provide minimal support.

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Chapter 20: First Trimester Obstetrics 0 to 12 Weeks

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Sample Questions

Q1) Separation of chorion and amnion membranes at 14 weeks is

A) within normal limits.

B) a sign of twins.

C) due to a large yolk sac.

D) a sign of fetal death.

Q2) Which is NOT a common indication for a 1st trimester ultrasound examination?

A) Vaginal bleeding

B) Size bigger than dates

C) Size smaller than dates

D) Lack of sensation of fetal movement

Q3) The secondary yolk sac is

A) outside both the chorion and the amnion.

B) inside both the chorion and the amnion.

C) outside the amnion but inside the chorion.

D) outside the chorion but inside the amnion.

Q4) Lacunae are structures in the A) ovary.

B) fetal brain.

C) amnion.

D) placenta.

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Chapter 21: Second and Third Trimester Obstetrics 13 to 42

Weeks

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Sample Questions

Q1) Anechoic, tubular structures on the uterine surface of the placenta are called A) lacunae.

B) maternal marginal veins.

C) fetal marginal veins.

D) venous lakes.

Q2) The thalami are

A) centrally located in the brain and appear anechoic.

B) centrally located in the brain and appear homogeneous.

C) the highly echogenic lines seen dividing the cerebrum.

D) the bright, drumstick-shaped portions of the lateral ventricles.

Q3) The bright reflection of the fetal skeleton is an indication of ______________________within the developing bones.

Q4) Head circumference (HC) is best obtained through (a) ___________ plane(s) of section perpendicular to the ________________.

A) single; thalami, cavum septum pellucidum, and tentorium

B) multiple; thalami, cavum septum pellucidum, and tentorium

C) single; thalami, third ventricle, cavum septum pellucidum, and tentorium

D) multiple; thalami, third ventricle, cavum septum pellucidum, and tentorium

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Chapter 22: High-Risk Obstetric Sonography

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Q1) Amniocentesis is associated with which risk(s)?

A) Infection

B) Injury to the fetus

C) Premature delivery

D) All of the above

Q2) In multifetal gestations, identifying chorionicity (placentae) is most accurate

A) during the 3rd trimester.

B) at exactly 12 gestational weeks.

C) from gestational weeks 6 through 10.

D) from gestational week 14 through gestational week 16.

Q3) Which procedure is done earliest in a pregnancy?

A) Chorionic villus sampling

B) Amniocentesis for the L-S ratio

C) Amniocentesis for genetic analysis

D) Umbilical cord transfusions

Q4) If twin fetuses are of opposite gender, they are always

A) monochorionic and monoamniotic.

B) monochorionic and diamniotic.

C) dichorionic and monoamniotic.

D) dichorionic and diamniotic.

Page 25

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Chapter 23: The Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands

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Q1) The average weight of the thyroid gland is approximately

A) 25g.

B) 40g.

C) 15g.

D) 10g.

Q2) The thyroid is an endocrine gland that secretes three hormones, which are

A) triiodothyronine (T4), thyroxine (T5), and calcitonin.

B) triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and calcium oxide.

C) thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin.

D) triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T7), and iron.

Q3) Which statement is NOT true about the sonographic appearance of the neck muscles and the esophagus?

A) The esophagus appears hypoechoic with an echogenic center representing mucosa.

B) The infrahyoid muscles, or strap muscles, are hypoechoic relative to the thyroid gland.

C) The sternocleidomastoid muscle is hypoechoic compared with the thyroid gland.

D) The longus colli muscle is hyperechoic compared with the thyroid gland.

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Chapter 24: Breast Sonography

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Q1) The parenchymal portion of the breast includes all of these structures except A) lobes.

B) ducts.

C) fat.

D) lobules.

Q2) Elastography is a technique that improves sonographic visualization of tissues in fibrous breasts. ____

A)True

B)False

Q3) Oxytocin

A) aids breast development.

B) stimulates the breast's secretory system after childbirth.

C) acts on the breast during pregnancy to prepare for nursing.

D) stimulates the release of milk during nursing.

Q4) The breast has the largest amount of fatty tissue during the reproductive years. ____

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: Penile and Scrotal Ultrasound

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Q1) What is the echogenicity of the tunica albuginea?

A) Low level echoes

B) Medium level echoes

C) High echogenicity

D) It cannot be identified on ultrasound.

Q2) What is the echogenicity of the corpora cavernosa?

A) Low level echoes

B) Medium level echoes

C) High echogenicity

D) They cannot be identified on ultrasound.

Q3) The median raphe divides the A) testicle into 200 to 300 lobules.

B) tunica vaginalis from the tunica albuginea.

C) tunica dartos from the cremaster muscle.

D) scrotum into two testicles.

Q4) What is the echogenicity of the corpus spongiosum?

A) Low level echoes

B) Medium level echoes

C) High echogenicity

D) It cannot be identified on ultrasound.

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Chapter 26: The Neonatal Brain

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Q1) What is the echogenicity of the sylvian fissure?

A) Echogenic

B) Moderately echogenic

C) Low level echoes

D) Hypoechoic

Q2) What is the echogenicity of the bones of the cranial vault?

A) Echogenic

B) Moderately echogenic

C) Low level echoes

D) Hypoechoic

Q3) The central fissure separates the

A) temporal lobes from the parietal lobes.

B) temporal lobes from the frontal lobes.

C) parietal and frontal lobes.

D) cerebrum from the cerebellum.

Q4) What is the echogenicity of the fourth and third ventricles?

A) Moderately echogenic

B) Anechoic

C) Hypoechoic

D) Low level echoes

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Chapter 27: Pediatric Echocardiography

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Q1) Which of the following is the best view for PW or CW Doppler of the aortic valve?

A) Apical Long Axis view

B) Apical Two Chamber view

C) Parasternal Short Axis view aortic valve level

D) Parasternal Long Axis view

Q2) In fetal development, if the bulboventricular looping is to the right, the result is dextrocardia. ____

A)True

B)False

Q3) Subxiphoid imaging is best used to help

A) interrogate the interatrial septum

B) determine situs

C) check for pericardial effusion

D) All of the above

Q4) The oxygen content in the pulmonary circuit is higher then in the systemic circuit.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 28: Adult Echocardiography

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Q1) In the parasternal short axis view, the great vessels cannot be identified. ____

A)True

B)False

Q2) Atrioventricular valves are not the same as semilunar valves. ____

A)True

B)False

Q3) M-mode echocardiography

A) is no longer needed, having been replaced by TEE, TTE, and 3D echocardiography.

B) provides measurements of cardiac structures for quantitative assessment.

C) performs the same function as Doppler assessment.

D) none of the above

Q4) Blood with a high oxygen content entering the heart comes from the pulmonary veins. ____

A)True

B)False

Q5) The moderator band cannot be seen on ultrasound. ____

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 29: Vascular Technology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement does NOT accurately define the left common iliac artery?

A) The vessel lies posterior to the ureter and anterior to the peritoneum.

B) The left common iliac vein is posterior to the artery.

C) The psoas magnus muscle borders the artery laterally.

D) The vessel is the first segment of the peripheral arterial tree distal to the aorta.

Q2) Which vessel is NOT part of the cerebrovascular system?

A) Common carotid artery

B) Vertebral artery

C) Internal carotid artery

D) Internal iliac artery

Q3) The Doppler spectral waveform from the normal common carotid artery is characterized by all of the following except

A) rapid systolic deceleration.

B) systolic window.

C) spectral broadening.

D) constant forward diastolic flow.

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Chapter 30: Three-Dimensional Ultrasound

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22069

Sample Questions

Q1) Matrix array transducers contain hundreds of imaging elements. ____

A)True

B)False

Q2) The SonoVCAD and SonoAVC are volumetric advances that can identify the

A) nongravid uterus and early pregnancy.

B) fetal heart outflow tract and ovarian follicles.

C) neonatal brain in three orthogonal views.

D) adult and pediatric urinary system.

Q3) Applications for three-dimensional (3D) ultrasound include which of the following?

A) Gynecologic procedures

B) Musculoskeletal procedures

C) Neither of the above

D) a and b

Q4) Rendering algorithms include

A) surface and orthogonal modes.

B) minimum and surface modes.

C) both of the above

D) none of the above

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Chapter 31: Interventional and Intraoperative Ultrasound

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22070

Sample Questions

Q1) The term percutaneous means

A) to pour over or through, especially the passage of a fluid through the vessels of a specific organ.

B) to sample.

C) to perform through the skin.

D) to suture.

Q2) A biopsy site is scanned before the biopsy to determine the best __________ with the shortest __________ and the __________ angle.

Q3) A percutaneous cholangiogram is an ultrasound-guided procedure for A) bile drainage.

B) evaluation of the gallbladder.

C) gallbladder biopsy.

D) evaluation of the liver.

Q4) Ultrasound-guided biopsies assist needle placement for

A) fluid sampling.

B) small organ or stone extraction.

C) amniocentesis.

D) tissue sampling.

Q5) Intraoperative ultrasound is not limited by __________, __________, or __________.

34

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