Cross-Sectional Anatomy for Imaging Sciences
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of human anatomy as visualized in cross-sectional imaging modalities such as computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Students will develop proficiency in identifying and correlating anatomical structures across axial, sagittal, and coronal planes, with emphasis on clinically relevant regions including the head, neck, thorax, abdomen, pelvis, and extremities. Through the integration of medical imaging and anatomical knowledge, learners gain essential skills for interpreting diagnostic images and understanding spatial relationships necessary for careers in radiologic and imaging sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Sonography Introduction to Normal Structure and Function 3rd Edition by Reva Arnez Curry
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31 Chapters
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845 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Before and After the Ultrasound Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laboratory values are part of the patient's clinical history. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Sources of infection for HBV and HIV include blood. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The ultrasound request form contains the patient history. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Inflamed appendix ____
Answer: IR
An interpretive report (final report) includes a detailed description of the ultrasound findings and a diagnosis (or diagnoses) derived from them.
Q5) An assessment/treatment plan is listed on the ultrasound request form.____
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Ultrasound Instrumentation: Knobology, Imaging Processing, and Storage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the functions of the keyboard controls: primary imaging controls, calculation controls, and additional controls.
Answer: Primary imaging controls (i.e., transducer selection, imaging preset, frequency, depth, TCG, TCG curve, focal zone position, focal zone number, dual image, image direction, freeze, cine loop, print/store, and trackball) are essential for producing and recording images of diagnostic quality. Calculation controls include the calculations package activated upon imaging preset and measurement functions (i.e., distance, trace, measure, and off). Additional important controls include body pattern and Doppler, color, power Doppler, pulsed wave, and M-mode controls, as well as monitor controls for brightness and contrast.
Q2) Teleradiology involves radiologic consultations done within the imaging center where an examination was performed. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: General Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients have been known to answer to the wrong name; therefore, the sonographer should always _____________________________________________.
Answer: check the patient's identification bracelet (or identification number) against the patient chart; or, ask outpatients to repeat their name back to the sonographer Prior to an exam, sonographers must make sure they have the correct patient. Patients have been known to answer to the wrong name. The sonographer should check the patient's identification bracelet or number against the patient chart and request form; they should ask outpatients to repeat back their names.
Q2) The sonographer should always have a ________________________________ available for shorter patients or those who require a little more assistance.
Answer: step stool with handles Sonographers should always have a handled step stool available for shorter patients or those who require a little more assistance.
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Chapter 4: First Scanning Experience
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Sample Questions
Q1) The level of echogenicity and appearance of tissue texture depend on
A) the type of localized disease present.
B) the density of the disease in the tissue.
C) the effect of the disease on the internal architecture.
D) all of the above
Q2) If a mass is discovered superior to the right kidney, it could originate from all of the following organs except the:
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Adrenals
D) Spleen
Q3) With regard to composition, a mass is classified as ______, ______, or ______.
Q4) Sagittal and coronal scanning plane images show only longitudinal sections of structures. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Long axis measurements are taken in either the sagittal or coronal scanning plane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Interdependent Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The endocrine system secretes hormones directly into the bloodstream to regulate reproduction, growth and development, metabolism, blood sugar levels, stress response, and ovulation. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The reproductive system is not assisted by the endocrine system. ____
A)True B)False
Q3) Veriform is a wormlike motion that moves contents along the large bowel. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nervous system uses long-term coordination of responses to stimuli to help maintain homeostasis. ____
A)True B)False
Q5) Homeostasis is defined as _____________________________________________________.
Q6) A body system's function may serve as an accessory function to another body system. ____
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Anatomy Layering and Sectional Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lesser sac
A) extends from the diaphragm to the pelvis and covers the width of the abdomen.
B) is a diverticulum of the greater sac located posterior to the stomach.
C) is a double layer of peritoneum that extends from the stomach to adjacent abdominal organs.
D) attaches to the anterior surface of the transverse colon.
Q2) The renal arteries are located _________ to the renal veins.
A) inferior
B) posterior
C) anterior
D) lateral
Q3) In gross anatomy, the tail of the pancreas is located ___________ to the splenic artery.
A) medial
B) left lateral
C) inferior
D) anterior
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Chapter 7: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 50% of ectopic thyroids are lingual in nature. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Thyroid follicle formation begins by week 5. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The celiac axis and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are derived from the vitelline artery complex. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Swallowing begins at
A) 12 weeks.
B) 11 weeks.
C) 7 weeks.
D) 20 weeks.
Q5) The midgut forms
A) the distal duodenum, small bowel, and proximal part of the colon.
B) the distal part of the colon.
C) part of the mouth, as well as the pharynx, esophagus, stomach, and proximal part of the duodenum.
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Chapter 8: The Abdominal Aorta
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spine ____
Q2) The inferoposterior pancreatic duodenal artery feeds the pancreatic head and duodenal area and is a branch of the A) celiac artery.
B) superior mesenteric artery.
C) pancreatic artery.
D) suprarenal arteries.
Q3) Body of the pancreas ____
Q4) The common iliac arteries can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The splenic artery supplies the A) spleen, left kidney, and pancreas.
B) spleen, pancreas, and stomach.
C) spleen, pancreas, and left adrenal gland.
D) spleen, pancreas, and left lobe of the liver.
Q6) Splenic vein ____
Q7) Splenic artery ____
Q8) Pylorus of the stomach ____
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Chapter 9: The Inferior Vena Cava
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatic veins ____
Q2) The left hepatic vein is easily seen on ultrasound. ____ A)True
B)False
Q3) Intestines ____
Q4) Right kidney ____
Q5) The right renal vein is easily seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) The IVC can be divided into the following sections:
A) Suprahepatic, infrahepatic, and midhepatic
B) Hepatic, prerenal, renal, and postrenal
C) Hepatic, lumbar, renal, and gonadal
D) All of the above
Q7) The gonadal veins are easily seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q8) The left common iliac vein is easily seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Portal Venous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portal triad is located
A) throughout the liver.
B) in several places in the liver.
C) at the opening of the liver.
D) none of the above
Q2) After the main portal vein forms, the vessel courses
A) superiorly for 5 to 6 cm and then branches into the right and left branches.
B) laterally for 7 to 8 cm and then branches into the medial and lateral branches.
C) medially for 3 to 4 cm and then branches into the anterior and posterior branches.
D) inferiorly for 5 to 6 cm and then branches into the anterior and posterior branches.
Q3) The bifurcation of the left portal vein is best seen in a sagittal scanning plane. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inferior vena cava lumen ____
Q5) Head of the pancreas ____
Q6) Hepatic artery walls ____
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Chapter 11: Abdominal Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is NOT true about the celiac artery?
A) The celiac artery feeds organs that have low vascular resistance.
B) The celiac artery originates from the posterolateral wall of the abdominal aorta.
C) The celiac artery has three branches: the common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric arteries.
D) The superior mesenteric artery and the celiac artery may share a common trunk at their origin.
Q2) Which is NOT a tributary of the inferior vena cava?
A) Hepatic vein
B) Portal vein
C) Renal vein
D) Right suprarenal vein
Q3) The left renal vein serves as a valuable landmark for locating the renal arteries. It courses
A) anterior to the abdominal aorta and posterior to the superior mesenteric artery.
B) posterior to the abdominal aorta and anterior to the left renal artery.
C) posterior to the inferior vena cava and anterior to the abdominal aorta.
D) anterior to the inferior vena cava and anterior to the abdominal aorta.
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Chapter 12: The Liver
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Sample Questions
Q1) The left portal vein serves as ________ between the medial and lateral left lobe.
A) an intralobar boundary
B) intralobar drainage
C) an intersegmental boundary
D) intersegmental drainage
Q2) In patients with severe portal hypertension, the left portal vein may communicate with the
A) umbilical vein.
B) right portal vein.
C) left hepatic vein.
D) splenic vein.
Q3) The inferior surface of the liver is marked by indentations from each of the following except the
A) first part of the duodenum.
B) hepatic flexure of the colon.
C) head of the pancreas.
D) right adrenal gland.
Q4) Glycogenesis ______
Q5) Diabetes ______
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Chapter 13: The Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common bile duct is routinely seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The left hepatic duct is routinely seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) CCK is a peptide hormone that increases hepatic production of bile. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the A) celiac artery.
B) proper hepatic artery.
C) splenic artery.
D) common hepatic artery.
Q5) The left and right hepatic ducts form the A) cystic duct.
B) common hepatic duct.
C) common bile duct.
D) portal triad.
Q6) Length of the right and left hepatic ducts ____
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Chapter 14: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pancreas is mostly an endocrine gland. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) The thickness of the pancreas is approximately
A) 2 cm.
B) 2.5 cm.
C) 3 cm.
D) 3.5 cm.
Q3) Pancreatic juice reaches the duodenum via the common bile duct. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The CBD and GDA appear circular in the long axis (transverse view) of the pancreas.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The main pancreatic duct can be seen in the body of the pancreas. ____
A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the echogenicity of the renal sinus?
A) High level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) Low level echoes
Q2) What is the echogenicity of the urinary bladder wall?
A) High level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) Low level echoes
Q3) List the structures contained in the renal pelvis.
Q4) List and explain the laboratory values that help measure renal function.
Q5) The adrenal cortex produces steroid hormones. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) The base of the medullary pyramid comes in contact with the ________.
Q7) The adult male and female urethras measure, respectively,
A) 10 cm and 2.5 cm.
B) 20 cm and 3.5 cm.
C) 15 cm and 2.5 cm.
D) 20 cm and 5.5 cm.
Q8) The apex of the medullary pyramid sits within a __________.
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Chapter 16: The Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spleen ____
Q2) The average volume of the adult spleen is about
A) 50 ml.
B) 200 ml.
C) 400 ml.
D) 600 ml.
Q3) Left renal cortex ____
Q4) In an adult, the spleen is composed primarily of red blood cells. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) The spleen is anterior to the diaphragm and stomach. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) The spleen has a hilar area, similar to the liver and the kidneys. ____
A)True
B)False
Q7) The spleen is highly vascular. ____
A)True
B)False
Q8) Splenic artery lumen ____
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Chapter 17: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The esophageal wall normally measures _____ at the esophagogastric (EG) junction.
A) 2 cm
B) 3 mm
C) 5 mm
D) 10 mm
Q2) The duodenum is located within the peritoneal cavity. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Abnormal bowel loops demonstrate peristalsis and are compressible; normal loops are noncompressible. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which substance is digested and absorbed in the GI tract?
A) Fats
B) Water
C) Carbohydrates
D) All of the above
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Chapter 18: The Prostate Gland and Seminal Vesicles
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Sample Questions
Q1) When imaging or describing the glandular prostate, the best technique to describe the prostate is to use A) regions.
B) zones.
C) anterior and posterior terminology.
D) medial and lateral terminology.
Q2) Alkaline, viscous fructose is produced by the prostate gland. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The area close to the center of the prostate is called the A) anterior fibromuscular region.
B) verumontanum.
C) central zone.
D) regional stroma.
Q4) The seminal vesicles join with the ductus deferens to form the ejaculatory ducts. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Female Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The uterine tubes are oriented ________ in the body.
Q2) When the uterine body and fundus are situated posteriorly adjacent to the cervix, the uterine position is described as
A) anteflexed.
B) retroflexed.
C) retroverted.
D) anteverted.
Q3) The portions of the large intestine contained within the true pelvis are the A) ascending colon and rectum.
B) transverse colon and rectum.
C) ascending and descending colon.
D) sigmoid colon and rectum.
Q4) The arteries in the uterus that penetrate the myometrium are the A) spiral arteries.
B) arcuate arteries.
C) straight arteries.
D) radial arteries.
Q5) The peritoneal cavity space posterior to the broad ligaments is the ________.
Q6) The _______ ligaments are not true ligaments and provide minimal support.
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Q7) The two descriptive compartments of the pelvis are the ________ and ________.
Chapter 20: First Trimester Obstetrics 0 to 12 Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corpus luteum
A) may become enlarged and cystic.
B) is an abnormality.
C) contains the yolk sac.
D) is eventually obliterated by the amniotic cavity.
Q2) On a short axis view, the umbilical cord presents as
A) a single large, round, anechoic vessel flanked by two small, round, anechoic vessels encircled by thick, bright walls.
B) a single small, round, anechoic vessel interposed between two large, round, hypoechoic vessels.
C) two linear, anechoic vessels with bright walls that join the fetal portal vein and a single linear, anechoic vessel with hyperechoic walls that joins the urinary bladder.
D) a single large, anechoic vessel flanked by two linear, anechoic vessels.
Q3) The embryonic gut herniates
A) into the small bowel.
B) at 5 to 6 weeks GA.
C) into the base of the umbilical cord.
D) into the amnion.
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Chapter 21: Second and Third Trimester Obstetrics 13 to 42
Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What vessels comprise the umbilical cord?
A) Portal vein and umbilical artery
B) Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein
C) One umbilical artery and two umbilical veins
D) Umbilical artery and right and left portal veins
Q2) The thalami are
A) centrally located in the brain and appear anechoic.
B) centrally located in the brain and appear homogeneous.
C) the highly echogenic lines seen dividing the cerebrum.
D) the bright, drumstick-shaped portions of the lateral ventricles.
Q3) The bright reflection of the fetal skeleton is an indication of ______________________within the developing bones.
Q4) Some experts believe that __________________ in the 2nd trimester can be used as an accurate predictor of an abnormal fetal outcome.
Q5) The anechoic areas between the bright subcutaneous and peritoneal fat are the ____________________ and __________________________.
Q6) The three causes of placenta previa are ________________, _______________, and _______________________.
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Chapter 22: High-Risk Obstetric Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________________________ measures the degree of fetal lung development.
Q2) Ultrasound is used during in utero procedures to confirm that the needle is in the correct position and that ___________________________.
Q3) Increases in the pulsatility of the inferior vena cava are associated with A) macrosomia.
B) fetal hypoxia.
C) twin gestations.
D) intrauterine growth restriction.
Q4) If division occurs in the embryonic disk more than 13 days after fertilization, the result is
A) the demise of one twin.
B) a dichorionic-monoamniotic gestation.
C) conjoined twins.
D) a dichorionic-diamniotic gestation.
Q5) In multifetal gestations, identifying chorionicity (placentae) is most accurate
A) during the 3rd trimester.
B) at exactly 12 gestational weeks.
C) from gestational weeks 6 through 10.
D) from gestational week 14 through gestational week 16.
Q6) Twin gestations result from fertilization of either _______ or a _______.
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Chapter 23: The Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
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Q1) When ultrasound fails to identify abnormal parathyroid glands preoperatively, and in patients considered for repeat surgery, which test(s) is/are commonly used?
A) Selective venous sampling
B) Arteriography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) Computed tomography only
D) Scintigraphy, SPECT, and MRI
Q2) The mathematical method for calculating thyroid volume is based on the ellipsoid formula with a correction factor, which is:
A) Length ´ Width ´ Thickness ´ 0.72 for each lobe.
B) Length ´ Width ´ Thickness ´ 0.62 for each lobe.
C) Length ´ Width ´ Circumference ´ 0.52 for each lobe.
D) Length ´ Width ´ Thickness ´ 0.52 for each lobe.
Q3) Which neck muscle(s) is/are located posterior to the thyroid gland?
A) Longus colli muscle
B) Omohyoid and thyrohyoid muscles
C) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
D) Sternothyroid and sternohyoid muscles
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Chapter 24: Breast Sonography
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Q1) The parenchymal portion of the breast includes all of these structures except A) lobes.
B) ducts.
C) fat.
D) lobules.
Q2) Mammography is preferred to sonography for examining dense breast tissue. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The glandular layer of the breast atrophies after menopause. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Elastography is a technique that improves sonographic visualization of tissues in fibrous breasts. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) Breast computer-aided detection (B-CAD) automatically selects a region of interest for computer-aided assessment of the breast. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Penile and Scrotal Ultrasound
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Q1) What is the echogenicity of the corpus spongiosum?
A) Low level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) High echogenicity
D) It cannot be identified on ultrasound.
Q2) Spermatozoa exit the testis through the A) tail of the epididymis.
B) efferent ducts.
C) body of the epididymis.
D) head of the epididymis.
Q3) The penis is composed of
A) two corpora spongiosa midventrally and one corpus cavernosum dorsolaterally.
B) two corpora spongiosa dorsolaterally and one corpus cavernosum midventrally.
C) two corpora cavernosa dorsolaterally and one corpus spongiosum midventrally.
D) two corpora cavernosa midventrally and one corpus spongiosum dorsolaterally.
Q4) The median raphe divides the A) testicle into 200 to 300 lobules.
B) tunica vaginalis from the tunica albuginea.
C) tunica dartos from the cremaster muscle.
D) scrotum into two testicles.
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Chapter 26: The Neonatal Brain
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Q1) What is the echogenicity of the cavum septum pellucidum?
A) Moderately echogenic
B) Low level echoes
C) Anechoic
D) Echogenic
Q2) What is the echogenicity of the quadrigeminal plate cistern?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q3) What is the echogenicity of the sylvian fissure?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q4) The fourth ventricle is connected to the third ventricle by the A) interventricular foramina of Monro.
B) aqueduct of Sylvius.
C) aperture of Magendie.
D) aperture of Luschka.
28
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Chapter 27: Pediatric Echocardiography
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Q1) On the electrocardiogram, what wave signals the onset of ventricular contraction?
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) QRS wave
D) E wave
Q2) The oxygen content and intracardiac pressures are higher on the right side of the heart than on the left. _____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The M-mode tracings of the mitral valve should be taken at the tips of the leaflets when in the parasternal view. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name two hormones secreted by the body that increase the heart rate.
A) Coumadin and Heparin
B) Lopressor and Inderal
C) Epinephrine and Thyroid Hormone
D) all of the above
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Chapter 28: Adult Echocardiography
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Q1) The apical four-chamber view displays the ventricles at the top of the screen and the atria at the bottom of the 2D sector image. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Atrioventricular valves are not the same as semilunar valves. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood with a high oxygen content entering the heart comes from the pulmonary veins. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Epicardium is another name for pericardium. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) The parasternal long axis view shows the right ventricle anteriorly. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) The bundle of His and the Purkinje fibers cannot function as pacemakers. ____
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Vascular Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best differentiates indirect noninvasive vascular test procedures from direct noninvasive vascular procedures?
A) Indirect test procedures provide morphologic information that allows evaluation of the severity of a lesion.
B) Indirect test procedures are physiologic and indicate the presence of significant occlusive disease by demonstrating pressure or limb volume changes downstream from the site of the lesion, whereas direct procedures evaluate the disease at the site where it is located
C) Indirect test procedures use continuous wave Doppler as well as plethysmographic testing.
D) Indirect test procedures detect lesions that are not yet hemodynamically significant, whereas direct test procedures give information only on disease that is flow reducing.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four segments of the internal carotid artery?
A) Petrous segment
B) Cavernous segment
C) Cerebral segment
D) Clinoid segment
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Chapter 30: Three-Dimensional Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Volume acquisition can be done by
A) automatic and orthogonal acquisition.
B) orthogonal and 4D acquisition.
C) automatic or manual acquisition.
D) none of the above
Q2) The SonoVCAD and SonoAVC are volumetric advances that can identify the
A) nongravid uterus and early pregnancy.
B) fetal heart outflow tract and ovarian follicles.
C) neonatal brain in three orthogonal views.
D) adult and pediatric urinary system.
Q3) Applications for three-dimensional (3D) ultrasound include which of the following?
A) Gynecologic procedures
B) Musculoskeletal procedures
C) Neither of the above
D) a and b
Q4) Matrix array transducers contain hundreds of imaging elements. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Interventional and Intraoperative Ultrasound
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Q1) With ultrasound-guided aspiration, the examiner can __________ any change in shape or size of a fluid-filled structure.
Q2) The advantages of interventional and intraoperative ultrasound include:
a. ___________________________
b. ___________________________
c. ___________________________
d. ___________________________
e. ___________________________
Q3) Endoluminal ultrasound is
A) used for percutaneous tube placement.
B) used to evaluate vessels and grafts during surgery.
C) not currently practiced.
D) limited to neurosurgical procedures.
Q4) Nephrostomy is the process of ultrasound-guided
A) chorionic villus sampling
B) percutaneous tube placement.
C) percutaneous biopsy.
D) percutaneous stone extraction.
Q5) Intraoperative ultrasound is not limited by __________, __________, or
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