Critical Thinking in Nursing Practice
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Critical Thinking in Nursing Practice introduces students to the essential concepts and techniques of analytical reasoning within the context of nursing. This course emphasizes the development of clinical judgment, problem-solving, and decision-making skills necessary for effective patient care. Through case studies, simulations, and reflective exercises, students learn to assess patient situations, interpret data, prioritize care, and apply evidence-based solutions while considering ethical and cultural factors. The course fosters an inquisitive mindset and encourages the use of critical thinking strategies to enhance personal and professional practice in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Critical Thinking for Person Centred Care 3rd Edition by Priscilla
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52 Chapters
1083 Verified Questions
1083 Flashcards
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Lemone
Chapter 1: Medical-Surgical Nursing in the Twenty-First Century
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47623
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is implementing a plan of care for a person. After providing care, what should the nurse do as the final step in the process?
A)Document.
B)Reassess the person.
C)Set daily priorities of care.
D)Provide a verbal handover report.
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse pauses to reflect on a previous person-centred care situation before providing care to a person at present. This nurse is using which critical thinking skill?
A)Reflection.
B)Reasoning.
C)Clarification.
D)Divergent thinking.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Health and Illness in Adults
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would use which term to refer to a person's status according to the illness-wellness continuum if he describes himself as being free of illness and feeling at peace with his environment?
A) Wellness.
B) Good health.
C) Neutral.
D) High-level wellness.
Answer: B
Q2) Which nursing activity would be considered secondary prevention?
A) Screening elderly individuals for blood pressure in a community-based setting.
B) Providing immunizations to pre-schoolers in a faith-based pre-school.
C) Providing an exercise session for individuals post hip replacement.
D) Right midclavicular line at the third intercostal space.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Nursing Care of People Having Surgery
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person has received conscious sedation for a surgical procedure. Which of the following will most likely apply to this person? The person will:
A)not respond to any stimuli.
B)not respond to verbal stimuli.
C)respond to physical and verbal stimuli.
D)not respond to physical stimuli.
Answer: C
Q2) How often should the nurse assess the person who has just arrived in the recovery room? Every:
A)15 minutes for the first hour.
B)hour.
C)30 minutes.
D)15 minutes for 30 minutes and then every one hour afterwards. Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Nursing Care of People Experiencing Loss, Grief, and Death
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A preoperative person says to the nurse, 'I hope I wake up after surgery; I don't know what my family would do if I died.' This person is demonstrating which nursing diagnosis?
A)Death anxiety.
B)Chronic sorrow.
C)Coping.
D)Anticipatory grieving.
Q2) A person who had a below-the-knee amputation two months ago is seen walking with a new limb prosthesis and returning to work. Which describes this person's emotional state? The person:
A)has completed the work of mourning the loss of his leg.
B)is in denial.
C)is having difficulty manifesting grief.
D)is attempting to postpone the reality of the loss of his limb.
Q3) A person tells the nurse, 'My husband left me to be with God.' What is this person demonstrating?
A)A cultural rite related to death.
B)An ethnic difference in the way in which death is expressed.
C)Bargaining.
D)Denial.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Nursing Care of People With Problems of Substance Misuse
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse learns that there are multiple ways for organic solvents to gain entry into the body. They are which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Swallowing.
B)Sniffing.
C)Bagging.
D)Huffing.
Q2) The spouse of a newly admitted person warns the nurse about the person's' behaviour because of recent heavy alcohol intake. For which health problem should the nurse plan care?
A)Tolerance.
B)Co-occurring disorder.
C)Substance dependence.
D)Substance-induced disorder.
Q3) A person tells the nurse, 'I seem to need one more drink each night after work, just to unwind.' Which condition is this person describing?
A)Cross-tolerance.
B)Tolerance.
C)Physical dependence.
D)Co-dependence.
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Chapter 6: Nursing Care of People Experiencing Disasters
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing unit has been alerted to a possible illness associated with the tainting of a popular over-the-counter pain medication. What is this event classified as?
A)A mass casualty incident
B)An accidental disaster
C)A conventional terrorist attack
D)A nonconventional terrorist attack
Q2) Which manifestation would indicate to the nurse that the person might be in the early alarm stage response to severe shock?
A)Weak, thready pulse.
B)Dilated pupils
C)Falling blood pressure
D)Decreased temperature
Q3) An Australian emergency room nurse is caring for a person admitted who was in a motor vehicle accident. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention for this nurse to implement?
A)Intubation
B)Insert IV cannulae
C)Staple wounds
D)Insert chest tube
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Chapter 7: Genetic Implications of Adult Health Nursing
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person tells the nurse that her mother has type 2 diabetes and heart problems. What is the significance of this information? It:
A)helps predict the future health of the person's children.
B)is not pertinent to the person's current health issues.
C)can help predict the person's future health problems.
D)is not relevant to the person's future health problems.
Q2) A baby is born with a genetic disorder. Neither parent has a history of this disorder. The nurse realises that the cause of this disorder could be which of the following?
A)An autosomal dominant condition.
B)Penetrance.
C)A spontaneous new mutation.
D)An X-linked dominant condition.
Q3) A person is upset to hear the nurse say that the results of genetic testing revealed 'wild-type' genes. What are 'wild-type' genes?
A)Mutated.
B)Altered.
C)Unexpected.
D)Normal.
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Chapter 8: Nursing Care of People in Pain
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a person's pain history. Which of the following methods of assessment would be useful for this?
A)PQRST (Provokes-Quality-Radiates-Severity-Time)guide.
B)Biofeedback rating.
C)Visual analogue scale.
D)FACES pain scale.
Q2) A person with a history of lumbar spinal cord nerve compression continues to complain of burning pain. Which type of pain is the person experiencing?
A)Palliative pain.
B)Myofascial pain syndrome.
C)Complex regional pain syndrome.
D)Visceral pain.
Q3) In which part of the body does a person experience pain caused by gallbladder disease?
A)Lower back.
B)Neck.
C)Right shoulder.
D)Left arm.
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Chapter 9: Nursing Care of People With Altered Fluid,
Electrolyte, Acid-Based Balance
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is admitted for treatment of hypercalcaemia. What will this person's intravenous fluid most likely be?
A)0.9% sodium chloride
B)5% dextrose in water
C)Hartmann's solution
D)Lactated Ringer's solution
Q2) A person with fluid retention related to renal problems is admitted to the hospital. The nurse realises that this person could possibly have which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
A)Hypercapnia
B)Hypocalcaemia
C)Hypernatraemia
D)Hypophosphataemia
Q3) A person is admitted with burns over 50% of his body. The nurse realises that this person is at risk of which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
A)Hyponatraemia
B)Hypercalcaemia
C)Hypermagnesaemia
D)Hypophosphataemia
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Chapter 10: Nursing Care of People Experiencing Trauma and Shock
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is admitting a trauma person. Which factors assist in determining the classification of trauma persons? (Select all that apply.)
A)Environment of the injury.
B)Vehicle speed.
C)Location of the injury.
D)Distance fallen.
E) None of the above
Q2) The nurse recognises that the probability of a cervical spine injury decreases if the patient has which of the following?
A)Midline cervical spine tenderness.
B)Focal neurological defects.
C)Absence of intoxication.
D)Painful distracting injury.
Q3) Which of the following are manifestations of moderate (Class III)haemorrhagic shock involving the loss of 1,800 ml of blood in an adult?
A)Pulse pressure decreased and heart rate less than 100 bpm.
B)Pulse pressure decreased and capillary refill mildly increased.
C)Blood pressure decreased and pulse pressure normal.
D)Heart rate greater than 120 bpm and capillary refill delayed.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nursing Care of People With Infections
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person has been vaccinated against measles. This is an example of which type of immunity?
A)Passive artificial
B)Active artificial
C)Active natural
D)Passive natural
Q2) A person who is demonstrating an inflammatory response is prescribed a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). The nurse realises that this medication will result in which of the following?
A)Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
B)Increase in the flow of serous exudate
C)Reduction in the production of leukotrienes
D)Increase in the production of histamine
Q3) A person is having skin testing done to assess for allergies. What would be evidence of exposure to an antigen?
A)A response that only appears 5 days later
B)Itching at the site of the skin test
C)An area of approximately 1 mm of induration and erythema
D)An area of greater than 10 mm of induration and erythema
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Nursing Care of People With Altered Immunity
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent asks the nurse about sexual practices and the risk of contracting HIV. Which of the following should the nurse instruct this person?
A)There is no such thing as safe sex.
B)Always use a condom.
C)The only totally safe sex is no sex.
D)Be sure to be tested for HIV every 6 months.
Q2) During the physical assessment of a person, the nurse wants to include the person's immunity function. Which of the following techniques would provide the nurse with the best information?
A)Auscultation of the heart
B)Palpation of the abdomen
C)Percussion of the lungs
D)Assessment of skin colour, temperature and moisture
Q3) A person is recovering from a skin graft where the skin of a pig is sutured to the person's ear. Which type of graft is this?
A)Xenograft
B)Allograft
C)Autograft
D)Isograft
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care of People With Cancer
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign neoplasm?
A)Encapsulated
B)Rapid growth
C)Difficult to remove
D)Can recur
Q2) A person asks the nurse, 'What does it matter what grade the tumour I had in my stomach was?' What is the best response by the nurse?
A)'It is a method of explaining the size of the tumour'.
B)'It helps us name the tumour'.
C)'It explains if the tumour has spread'.
D)'It indicates how aggressive the tumour is'.
Q3) Which type of diet is associated with an increased risk of developing breast cancer?
A)Large amounts of fruit and vegetables
B)Protein rich
C)Large amounts of dairy products
D)High fat, low fibre
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15
Chapter 14: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Integumentary System
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person's upper body is covered with flat red or purple freckles approximately 1 to 3 mm in diameter that do not blanch. What is the name given to these skin lesions?
A)Cysts
B)Venous stars
C)Petechiae
D)Vesicles
Q2) A person who is scheduled for abdominal surgery is concerned about an unsightly scar. During the preoperative teaching session, what should the nurse explain to the person?
A)There will be no scarring.
B)Plastic surgery can remove the scar at a later date.
C)A scar will be unavoidable.
D)It will depend upon the location and angle of the incision.
Q3) A person has jaundice. The nurse would expect which change in laboratory test results to be consistent with jaundice?
A)High levels of serum creatinine
B)Decreased red blood cell count
C)Increased serum bilirubin
D)Low levels of serum albumin
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care of People With Integumentary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which reason would corticosteroid medication be used to treat a skin disorder?
A)Moisturise the skin.
B)Suppress inflammation.
C)Lubricate the skin.
D)Retard water loss.
Q2) An older person is concerned about a painful rash located on the left side of the upper chest. What should the nurse realise this person is experiencing?
A)Shingles.
B)Herpes simplex.
C)Condylomata acuminata.
D)Verruca vulgaris.
Q3) A middle-aged person with a history of sun exposure has broken blood vessels on the cheeks. How should the nurse document this finding?
A)Psoriasis.
B)Keratosis.
C)Telangiectases.
D)Cherry angiomas.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care of People With Burns
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person comes into the doctor's office after sustaining chemical burns to both hands. Where does this person need to be treated?
A)The hospital emergency department.
B)The outpatient ambulatory clinic.
C)The doctor's office and then at home.
D)A burn centre.
Q2) A person comes into the emergency department with full-thickness burns over 25% of his body. Which intravenous solution should the nurse prepare for this person?
A)Normal saline.
B)Hartmann's solution.
C)5% dextrose in normal saline.
D)4% dextrose in 1/5th normal saline.
Q3) The family of a person with full-thickness burns asks why the 'scabs are being cut off' the person's leg. How should the nurse respond to the family?
A)'The scabs are removed to check for blood flow to the burned area.'
B)'The scabs are old burned tissue that needs to be removed to promote healing.'
C)'I'll ask the doctor to come and talk with you about the treatment plan.'
D)'The person asked for the scabs to be removed.'
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Chapter 17: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the Endocrine System
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to assess a person's thyroid gland. Which body area should the nurse use as a landmark for this organ?
A)Clavicle
B)Trachea
C)Mandible
D)Angle of Louis
Q2) A middle-aged person has a low cortisol level. What could this finding indicate?
A)Cushing's syndrome.
B)Acromegaly.
C)Grave's disease.
D)Hypothyroidism.
Q3) A person is concerned about his spouse's inability to conceive. Which hormone should be evaluated because of this issue?
A)Thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B)Adrenaline.
C)Parathormone.
D)Follicle-stimulating hormone.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Nursing Care of People With Endocrine Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which manifestation is consistent with this diagnosis?
A)Muscle weakness.
B)Blurred vision.
C)Bradycardia.
D)Lethargy.
Q2) A person asks why the skin is tanning despite rarely spending time out of doors in the sun. '''What should the nurse assess in this person?
A)Ask what time of day the person is outdoors.
B)Ask if the person is still taking the prescribed steroid for Addison's disease.
C)Palpate the person's adrenal gland.
D)Perform a complete integumentary assessment.
Q3) A person with myxoedema is concerned about a rising cholesterol level despite adhering to a strict diet. How should the nurse respond to this person?
A)'It's a normal part of ageing.'
B)'The thyroid gland disease can affect your cholesterol level.'
C)'You need to cut all fat out of your diet'
D)'Maybe you don't realise how much fat is in the foods that you eat.'
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Chapter 19: Nursing Care of People With Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with type 2 diabetes wants to lose 10 kg and asks for help with meal planning. What would be appropriate for this person to aid with weight loss and blood glucose level maintenance?
A)Plan for a small breakfast, moderate-sized lunch and large dinner with a bedtime snack.
B)Eat the largest meal of the day for breakfast and two small meals for lunch and dinner.
C)Eat the largest meal in the middle of the day at lunch with smaller meals for breakfast and dinner.
D)Plan for three equal-sized meals with one or two snacks.
Q2) A person is scheduled for an oral glucose tolerance test. Which plasma glucose level indicates the presence of diabetes mellitus two hours after the person ingests 75 g of glucose?
A)2.2 mmol/L.
B)4.4 mmol/L.
C)8.8 mmol/L.
D)11.1 mmol/L.
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Chapter 20: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Gastrointestinal
System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person asks, 'How much calcium should I be taking each day?' How much calcium should the person consume each day?
A)8 mg
B)15 mg
C)150 mg
D)1000 mg
Q2) An older adult tells the nurse that he is noticing that he wants more 'salt and spices' on his foods. What is this person experiencing?
A)A salt deficiency
B)Hormonal changes
C)An age-related change in taste
D)A vitamin deficiency
Q3) A person with type 2 diabetes says, 'I've never heard about the liver having anything to do with my blood sugar.' Which of the following should the nurse explain to this person?
A)The liver acts as a store of glucagon.
B)The liver releases stored glucose in times of low blood sugar levels.
C)The liver has nothing to do with blood glucose control.
D)The liver produces hormones that affect blood glucose levels.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Nursing Care of People With Nutritional Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses the person for which common manifestation of malnutrition?
A)Diabetes
B)Hypertension
C)Gallbladder disease
D)Petechiae
Q2) Which waist-to-hip ratio increases the risk of a female developing stroke, elevated insulin levels, and an abnormal lipid profile?
A)0.2
B)0.3
C)0.5.
D)0.8
Q3) A female learns that she has regained 7 kg that she had lost the previous year. Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?
A)'Even with the weight gain you are still not obese.'
B)'I can teach you about a new diet that would help you lose the weight within 2 weeks.'
C)'Weight swings like this are perfectly normal and very common.'
D)'Return to the diet, exercise, and behaviour change techniques that have worked for you in the past.'
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Chapter 22: Nursing Care of People With Upper
Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with peptic ulcer disease says, 'I feel so much better now that I've stopped eating.' The nurse realises that this person is at risk of developing which nursing diagnosis?
A)Fluid volume overload
B)Risk of aspiration
C)Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
D)Diarrhoea
Q2) The nurse learns that an elderly person with ill-fitting dentures has been using an over-the-counter preparation for a gum sore over the last month. Which of the following should the nurse instruct this person?
A)Make an appointment to see the doctor.
B)Continue to use the preparation.
C)Choose a different over-the-counter preparation.
D)Get a new set of dentures.
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Chapter 23: Nursing Care of People With Bowel Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the assessment of a person's perianal area, the nurse notes 'donut-shaped red tissue'. What is this finding indicative of?
A)Anorectal abscess
B)Pilonidal disease
C)Prolapsed rectum
D)Anorectal fistula
Q2) The nurse is assessing a person with diarrhoea. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to ask during the focused assessment?
A)'Are you still taking the medication for depression?'
B)'Tell me about your work responsibilities.'
C)'Are you still taking the prescribed sleeping medication?'
D)'Have you been feeling blue or sad recently?'
Q3) A person is having stool collected for guaiac testing. What is the test looking for in the stool? The presence of:
A)white blood cells.
B)parasites.
C)blood.
D)bacteria.
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Chapter 24: Nursing Care of People With Gallbladder, Liver, and Pancreatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy for gallstones. Which of the following should be included in the care of this person after the procedure?
A)Assess the person for secondary haemorrhage.
B)Admit the person to the hospital until the stones have passed.
C)Instruct the person about the potential for nausea, vomiting and haematuria post-procedure.
D)Monitor vital signs for 8 hours post-procedure.
Q2) A person with hepatic cirrhosis begins to bleed. Which of the following is the first priority of treatment?
A)Assessment of vital signs
B)Administration of diuretics
C)Restoration of haemodynamic stability
D)Obtaining labs to determine level of blood loss
Q3) A person's indirect (unconjugated)bilirubin blood levels will rise with which condition?
A)Biliary obstruction
B)Pancreatitis
C)Transfusion reaction
D)Alcoholic cirrhosis of the liver
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Chapter 25: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the Renal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) While conducting the functional health pattern assessment, the nurse would like to assess the person's nutritional-metabolic status in relation to the renal system. Which of the following questions would provide the most information about this status?
A)'Do you have any difficulty urinating?'
B)'Do you ever have swelling in your ankles?'
C)'Do you get easily tired?'
D)'How often do you go to the toilet?'
Q2) The nurse is preparing to catheterise a person after the person has just independently voided. What is the purpose of this catheterisation? To:
A)check for the presence of kidney stones.
B)evaluate for residual urine.
C)serve as a urine output baseline.
D)evaluate renal function.
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Chapter 26: Nursing Care of People With Urinary Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is admitted with multiple medical problems and incontinence, regardless of the position or situation. Which type of incontinence is the person most likely experiencing?
A)Functional.
B)Overflow.
C)Stress.
D)Urge.
Q2) A woman asks the nurse for ways to prevent recurrent urinary tract infections. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
A)'Restrict fluid intake.'
B)'Wear clean nylon underpants.'
C)'Clean the perineal area from back to front.'
D)'Avoid douching.'
Q3) A married woman has a history of repeated urinary tract infections. Which of the following should the nurse include while assessing this person?
A)Physical activity level.
B)Height and weight.
C)Type of contraception used.
D)Type of work.
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Chapter 27: Nursing Care of People With Kidney Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for a person in renal failure with the diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements?
A)Provide mouth care before meals.
B) Weigh weekly.
C)Schedule meals for three times each day.
D) Provide anti-emetic medication after meals.
Q2) A person is scheduled to have an arteriovenous (AV)fistula placed in the right arm for renal dialysis. Which of the following interventions are appropriate for this person? (Select all that apply.)
A)Always use the left arm for blood pressure readings.
B)The fistula will be used for dialysis immediately after placement.
C)Venipunctures can be performed on the right arm.
D)A functioning fistula has a palpable pulse and bruit on auscultation.
Q3) A person is admitted with signs of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following is indicative of metabolic acidosis?
A)Oliguria.
B) Muscle cramps.
C)Photophobia.
D) Kussmaul's respirations.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the Cardiovascular
and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which location will S1 be heard the loudest?
A)Right sternal border at the second intercostal space.
B)Left sternal border at the fifth intercostal space.
C)Left midclavicular line at the fifth intercostal space.
D)Right midclavicular line at the third intercostal space.
Q2) In the person with hypovolaemic shock, the nurse realises that the heart sounds will change in which of the following ways?
A)Diminished S2 and accentuated S1.
B)Diminished S1 and S2.
C)Accentuated S2 and diminished S1.
D)Accentuated S1 or S2.
Q3) Bradycardia occurs when the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of how many beats per minute in an adult?
A)Less than 60.
B)60-90.
C)90.
D)Greater than 100.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Nursing Care of People With Coronary Heart Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the following statements regarding cardiac catheterisation in the correct order:
A) inject contrast.
B) heart activity is filmed.
C) thread catheter to heart chamber.
D) catheter insertion in the leg.
E) peripheral IV insertion.
Q2) The S1 heart sound corresponds to which of the following physiological events?
A)The onset of cardiac diastole.
B)Ejection of blood from the atria.
C)Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
D)Closure of the AV valves.
Q3) The S2 will be heard the loudest at which location?
A)Right sternal border at the second intercostal space.
B)Left sternal border at the fifth intercostal space.
C)Left midclavicular line at the fifth intercostal space.
D)Right midclavicular line at the third intercostal space.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Nursing Care of People With Cardiac Disorders
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Q1) Sinus bradycardia (rate 56)is identified in a sleeping person on telemetry. What is the nursing priority for this person?
A)Check the medication administration record to see if a drug is ordered PRN that will help slow the heart rate.
B)Perform an immediate 12-lead ECG.
C)Call the doctor and report the dysrhythmia.
D)Awaken the person and see how the heart rate responds.
Q2) The following persons come to the outpatient clinic for a physical exam. Which person has signs and symptoms of hypertension that require further assessment?
A)A 30-year-old Asian female with a blood pressure of 118/70.
B)A 48-year-old Caucasian male with a blood pressure of 138/86.
C)A 55-year-old indigenous Australian male with a blood pressure of 120/100.
D)A 60-year-old indigenous Australian female with a blood pressure of 135/65.
Q3) What should a person who is taking a statin medication be monitored for?
A)Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels.
B)Constipation and sudden back pain.
C)Blood glucose and uric acid levels.
D)Serum cholesterol and liver enzymes.
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Chapter 31: Nursing Care of People With Vascular and Lymphatic Disorders
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Q1) The elderly person has just returned home from the hospital after treatment for chronic heart failure. The person experiences a pulse rate increase from 80 beats per minute to 102 beats per minute when walking between the kitchen and the laundry to do her washing. Which of the following are appropriate nursing actions for the community nurse?
A)Encourage the person to rest for 30 minutes between each load of laundry completed. B)Encourage the person to keep a chair near the washer/dryer unit and sit to rest until their heart rate returns to normal.
C)Suggest the person accomplish tasks like laundry early in the morning before fatigue is an issue.
D)Recommend that the person become more active in order to build stamina.
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a characteristic sign of pericarditis?
A)Pericardial friction rub
B)Low grade fever
C)Dyspnea
D)Tachycardia
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Chapter 32: Nursing Care of People With Hematologic Disorders
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Q1) To which if the following are neutrophils considered closely connected?
A)Platelet count
B)Immune response
C)Total white blood cell count
D)Peripheral blood
Q2) Upon analysis, a person's red blood cells (RBCs)appear microcytic and hypochromic. The nurse interprets this information to mean that this person is demonstrating signs of which type of anemia?
A)Chronic blood loss
B)Iron deficiency
C)Folic acid deficiency
D)Aplastic anemia
Q3) A 17-year-old person with oedematous lymph nodes and headaches is diagnosed with leukaemia. What condition does the person most likely have?
A)Chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML)
B)Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)
C)Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
D)Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
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Chapter 33: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Respiratory
System
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Q1) During an assessment, a person begins to cough. The nurse realises that this means what?
A)The person is trying to expel sputum.
B)The person has a cold.
C)Something other than air was entering the larynx.
D)The person has a respiratory infection.
Q2) A person is demonstrating poor exhalation. The nurse realises that this person is at risk of developing which of the following?
A)Increased carbon dioxide levels
B)Increased oxygen levels
C)Reduced oxygen capacity of red blood cells
D)Reduced respiratory reserve volume
Q3) The nurse notes that a person's respirations periodically stop while they are napping. How should these findings be documented?
A)Cheyne-Stokes respirations
B)Apnoea
C)Tachypnoea
D)Bradypnoea
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Chapter 34: Nursing Care of People With Upper Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) A young adult man is seen in the emergency department after sustaining injuries from a motorcycle accident. During the assessment, the person's nose begins to bleed. Which of the following should the nurse include in the assessment of this person?
A)Tobacco usage
B)Alcohol consumption
C)Normal dietary pattern
D)Use of cocaine or other substance abuse
Q2) A person who was diagnosed with the flu is demonstrating rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following is this person most at risk of developing?
A)Pneumothorax
B)Pleurisy
C)Atelectasis
D)Dehydration
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Chapter 35: Nursing Care of People With Ventilation Disorders
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Q1) A person states, 'I've been sick for days and all my general practitioner does is take a chest x-ray, hand me prescriptions, and tell me I have bronchitis.' Which of the following is correct about the person's treatment? It:
A)is inappropriate for the diagnosis of bronchitis.
B)should include more diagnostic tests.
C)is appropriate for the diagnosis.
D)should include hospitalisation for intravenous antibiotic therapy.
Q2) Which of the following should be included in the discharge instructions of a patient diagnosed with a lung abscess?
A)Complete the entire course of antibiotics.
B)Expect symptoms to initially worsen.
C)Recommence routine activities of daily living.
D)Lung abscesses rarely cause other problems once treatment is started.
Q3) A person is diagnosed with pleurisy. What does the nurse teach the person to do for the associated chest pain?
A)Warn the person to expect a fever to develop.
B)Teach the person how to splint the affected area when coughing.
C)Advise the person to maintain strict bed rest.
D)Only take the prescribed analgesic when the pain is severe.
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Nursing Care of People With Gas Exchange Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following would be the COPD classification of a person that presents with few symptoms and is left breathless on exertion?
A)Minimal
B)Mild
C)Moderate
D)Severe
Q2) An intubated person is not exhibiting signs of improved oxygenation. What should the nurse do? Select all that apply.
A)Insert an oral airway.
B)Prepare for an emergency tracheotomy.
C)Check the endotracheal tube placement.
D)Assess for the need to suction to clear the airway.
Q3) A person is prescribed a medication to reduce the need for inhaled corticosteroids while controlling asthma symptoms. What category of medication is this?
A)Leukotriene receptor antagonist
B)Mast cell stabiliser
C)Anticholinergic
D)Adrenergic stimulant
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Chapter 37: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Musculoskeletal
System
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Q1) The nurse is assessing the person's spine and the assessment includes an abnormal finding. To conduct further assessment, what should the nurse ask the person to do?
A)Lie down on their abdomen so the nurse can look at the spine more carefully.
B)Stand, bend back slowly, then to the right and left while the nurse looks from the back.
C)Bend over, stand upright, and stretch both arms over the head.
D)Sit, then stand, as the nurse observes the person from the front.
Q2) The nurse assesses a person and finds that a grating sound is present when a joint is bent and straightened. What is the appropriate medical term to describe this finding?
A)Bursitis.
B)Crepitation.
C)Synovitis.
D)Grinding.
Q3) When would a bone scan most likely be ordered for a person? When:
A)osteosarcoma is suspected.
B)a person complains of a new onset of pain in the area of the bone.
C)a muscle mass near the bone is suspected.
D)lab tests indicate a normal serum calcium level.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Nursing Care of People With Musculoskeletal
Trauma
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Q1) What is a priority nursing diagnosis to consider for every person who has undergone an above-the-knee amputation?
A)Chronic pain.
B)Risk for fluid volume deficit.
C)Risk of infection.
D)Disturbed body image.
Q2) Following hip replacement surgery, the person returns with an abductor pillow splint in place. What does this mean? The splint:
A)is only needed when the person rolls onto their side.
B)is used for the first day after surgery.
C)will stay on except when bathing.
D)is taken off while the person sleeps.
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A)Decreased peripheral pulse.
B)Decrease in pain.
C)Increased draining.
D)Tingling in an extremity.
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Chapter 39: Nursing Care of People With Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one of the first symptoms that the nurse would expect to find on assessment of a person with osteoarthritis?
A)Pain and stiffness in one or more weight-bearing joints.
B)Muscle spasms and weakness.
C)Pain when at rest.
D)Crepitus in the joint with movement.
Q2) A 52-year-old person is prescribed raloxifene (Evista)for the treatment of osteoporosis. How does this medication work on postmenopausal women? By:
A)stimulating osteoblast activity and increasing bone formation.
B)inhibiting bone breakdown.
C)inhibiting osteoclast activity.
D)preventing bone loss by mimicking what oestrogen does for bone density.
Q3) A person has early onset osteoarthritis of the left knee. The nurse expects which medication will be ordered?
A)Diclofenac (Voltaren).
B)Codeine.
C)Prednisone.
D)Allopurinol (Zyloprim).
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Chapter 40: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the appearance of normal cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)?
A)Pink without sediment.
B)Clear and colourless.
C)Yellow.
D)Amber.
Q2) The nurse understands that age-related changes in the neurological system include a slower response to change in balance, decreased cerebral blood flow, and decreased metabolism. What is an example of how this would affect home care for an older adult?
A)The older adult will be less able to complete self-care activities.
B)The older adult may need additional time to process information.
C)The older adult will not be open to new learning.
D)The older adult will be easily distracted.
Q3) A The nurse is caring for a person scheduled for an Electromyogram (EMG). How should the nurse explain this test to the person?
A)It measures cerebral spinal fluid.
B)It measures the skeletal activity of the brain.
C)It measures the electrical activity of the skeletal muscles.
D)It is a diagnostic procedure for aneurysms.
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Chapter 41: Nursing Care of People With Intracranial Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The person is hit by a cricket ball. This is an example of what type of injury?
A)A deceleration injury.
B)A deformation head injury.
C)An acceleration injury.
D)An acceleration-deceleration injury.
Q2) The nurse is planning a seminar about headaches for a local community group. What type of headache has a strong familial connection, affects females three-to-one over males, and results in lost productivity?
A)Sinus.
B)Common migraine.
C)Cluster.
D)Tension.
Q3) Decerebrate posturing is present in an unconscious person after a motor vehicle accident. What would the nurse expect to see when assessing a person for decerebrate posturing?
A)The arms and legs are adducted and arms are hyperpronated.
B)The arms are pulled inward and the head is turned to the side.
C)The arms are flexed over the chest and spasms are rhythmic.
D)The arms and legs have tonic-clonic seizure activity.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Nursing Care of People With Cerebrovascular and Spinal Cord Disorders
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Q1) A person is recovering following a carotid endarterectomy. The person's blood pressure has risen this morning to 168/60. What should the nurse do?
A)Recheck the blood pressure every 30 minutes and report this change to the doctor when they make rounds the next time.
B)Record the blood pressure and find out who took this reading. Have that staff member demonstrate their blood pressure procedure and offer tips to obtain more accurate readings.
C)Check the standing orders and see if there is a medication ordered PRN for lowering blood pressure. If so, administer it and document the action.
D)Recheck the blood pressure and ensure the correct size cuff was used. Compare the trend of blood pressure readings and call the doctor now.
Q2) Which of the following persons is at highest risk of a spinal cord injury?
A)23-year-old man who plays basketball.
B)20-year-old female with a history of substance abuse.
C)18-year-old male with a prior motor vehicle accident.
D)50-year-old female with osteoporosis.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Nursing Care of People With Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a person who was just admitted with the diagnosis Guillain-Barré syndrome. What does the nurse anticipate that the person will exhibit?
A)Inability to change facial expressions.
B)Gastric irritation.
C)Heat intolerance.
D)Confusion.
Q2) How is tetanus completely preventable?
A)Passive immunisation.
B)Complete cleansing of all contaminated skin wounds.
C)Administering antibiotics immediately after a dog bite.
D)Active immunisation.
Q3) A test that is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis (MG)is ordered by the doctor. Because the test involves the injection of a drug that makes muscle strength improve for about five minutes, the nurse realises that this test likely is:
A)an analysis of antiacetylcholine receptor antibodies.
B)a nerve stimulation study.
C)a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)of the legs.
D)a Tensilon test.
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Chapter 44: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Eye and Ear
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Q1) A person is found to need corrective lenses. Which diagnostic test was most likely used to determine this finding?
A)Retinoscopy
B)Convergence test
C)Computed tomography (CT)scan
D)Tonometry
Q2) A person sustained an injury to the inner layer of the left retina. With what will this person have difficulty?
A)Peripheral vision and colour perception
B)Bright lights
C)Night vision
D)Visual discrimination
Q3) While assisting with morning care, the person's left cornea was accidentally touched, causing the person to blink and create tears. What should the nurse identify this response as being?
A)Unusual but something that would clear up in time
B)Abnormal and should be reported to the doctor
C)Normal
D)An exaggerated response suggestive of an underlying eye disease
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Chapter 45: Nursing Care of People With Eye and Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A school-age child is having difficulty walking and seeing during the night. What health problem should the nurse consider this child is experiencing?
A)Cataracts
B)Early macular degeneration
C)Retinitis pigmentosa
D)Detached retina
Q2) A person experiences hearing loss and odd popping noises in the left ear after 'having a cold.' What health problem is this person most likely demonstrating signs of having?
A)Suppurative otitis media
B)Otitis externa
C)Serous otitis media
D)Otitis interna
Q3) A person is hospitalised with blunt trauma to the left eye. What can the nurse do to minimise eye movement?
A)Patch the unaffected eye.
B)Patch or provide an eye shield for both eyes.
C)Have the person lay flat when in bed.
D)Place the person in a side lying position, with the affected eye down.
Page 47
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Chapter 46: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Male and Female Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to examine a man's reproductive organs. Which of the following should the nurse do in preparation for this examination? Select all that apply.
A)Ask the man to lie down on the exam table.
B)Arrange for a private examination room.
C)Use clean hands for the examination.
D)Ask the man to empty his bladder.
Q2) A man has an infection of his epididymis. Because of this infection the person will have a reduction in what?
A)Mature sperm
B)Testosterone production
C)Sperm production
D)The ability to ejaculate
Q3) An elderly man comes into the emergency department for an oedematous and painful scrotum. The scrotum transilluminates. What is this man's scrotum filled with?
A)Urinary filtrate
B)Serous fluid
C)A mass
D)Prostatic secretions
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Chapter 47: Nursing Care of Men With Reproductive System and
Breast Disorders
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Q1) A man who is complaining of heaviness in his scrotum has learned that his serum lactic acid dehydrogenase level is elevated. What does this information indicate?
A)Presence of epididymitis
B)Definite testicular cancer
C)Possible testicular cancer
D)Possible varicocele
Q2) A 35-year-old man is concerned about his inability to sustain an erection. On what should the nurse focus when assessing this person?
A)Level of physical activity
B)Employment history
C)Substance use or abuse
D)Marital status
Q3) A 65-year-old man complains of 'problems emptying his bladder, especially at night.' Of what is this man demonstrating symptoms?
A)Bladder cancer
B)Epididymitis
C)Benign prostatic hyperplasia
D)Urinary tract infection
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Chapter 48: Nursing Care of Women With Reproductive
System and Breast Disorders
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Q1) A 55-year-old woman thinks she's 'losing her mind' because of constant anxiety, inability to sleep and headaches. Which condition is this woman describing?
A)Dysmenorrhoea
B)Extreme premenstrual syndrome
C)Menopause
D)Chronic fatigue syndrome
Q2) A woman is diagnosed with uterine prolapse into the vagina. What factor most likely contributed to this disorder?
A)Multiple pregnancies
B)Cervical polyps
C)Pelvic inflammatory disease
D)Vaginal tears
Q3) A woman is recovering from breast cancer surgery that included axillary node dissection. What is this woman at risk of developing?
A)Lymphoedema
B)Chronic anaemia
C)Metastasis
D)Extensive postoperative scarring
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Chapter 49: Nursing Care of People With Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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Q1) A woman is having difficulty accepting the diagnosis of a sexually transmitted disease because she has 'been on the pill' for years. What information can the nurse provide to this woman?
A)She possibly needs to change the type of birth control pill being used.
B)Oral contraceptives do not protect against sexually transmitted diseases.
C)Some diseases are virulent and the pill will not protect her.
D)Missed doses of the pill may have made her susceptible to infection.
Q2) A woman says that she has been using 'the medication for a yeast infection' but it is not 'getting any better.' The nurse suspects that which of the following relates to this female? The woman:
A)needs to continue using the medication for a much longer period of time.
B)might be using a medication that is not appropriate for the cause.
C)is not using the medication correctly.
D)is not washing her hands before applying the medication.
Q3) A woman is seen for a new onset of blisters on the labia majora. What is this woman experiencing?
A)First episode of a herpes virus infection.
B)Latency period of the herpes virus infection.
C)An adverse reaction to her current birth control methods.
D)Prodromal symptoms of the herpes virus.
Page 51
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Chapter 50: Mental Healthcare in the Australian Context
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Q1) What is the term for a distortion of sensory perception?
A)Hallucination
B)Illusion
C)Delusion
D)Psychosis
Q2) What are somatic delusions?
A)Beliefs that something odd is happening to a person's body
B)Beliefs that a person is being watched or followed
C)Delusions of grandeur
D)Auditory hallucinations
Q3) When do the majority of mental illnesses begin?
A)During early childhood
B)In old age
C)Between the ages of 15 to 25 years
D)From about 40 years of age
Q4) What is the model of care for mental healthcare nursing in Australasia?
A)Rehabilitation
B)Cure
C)Recovery
D)Protection
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Chapter 51: Community Care
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Q1) During the home visit, the community nurse learns the person cannot remember what they were taught about bathing and wound care. The nurse realises what about this person? The person:
A)is cognitively challenged.
B)forgot what was taught.
C)has a hearing impairment.
D)has poor vision.
Q2) After the initial assessment of a community nursing person, the nurse identifies areas in which the person can improve their health status. What should the nurse do with this information? Select all that apply.
A)Contract with the person to meet the goals.
B)Discuss with the family what to do with the information.
C)Write this information in the plan of care.
D)Work with the person to set achievable goals.
Q3) Tobacco smoking would be considered which type of social determinant?
A)Distal determinant
B)Intermediate determinant
C)Proximal determinant
D)Not considered a determinant
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Nursing Care of Clients in Regional, Rural and Remote Areas of Australia
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an open question?
A)'Does it hurt when you move your arm?'
B)'Is the pain better now?'
C)'Where is the pain?'
D)'What have you been taking for the pain?'
Q2) Which of the following statements is true? Compared to the urban population, people who live in rural and remote Australia have:
A)worse morbidity and worse mortality.
B)better morbidity and better mortality.
C)worse morbidity and better mortality.
D)better morbidity and worse mortality.
Q3) Which group within Australian society has the highest rate of suicide?
A)Farmers
B)Police officers
C)Office workers
D)Older adults
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Page 54