Critical Care Pharmacology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Critical Care Pharmacology explores the principles and practices of medication management in critically ill patients, emphasizing the unique pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic considerations present in the intensive care unit. The course covers drug selection, dosing adjustments, monitoring, and adverse effect prevention for a range of pharmacologic agents commonly used in critical care, including vasoactive medications, sedatives, analgesics, antimicrobials, anticoagulants, and drugs for organ support. Attention is given to the complexities arising from organ dysfunction, drug interactions, and rapidly changing patient conditions, preparing students to participate effectively in interdisciplinary critical care teams and to deliver safe, evidence-based pharmacotherapeutic interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Priorities in Critical Care Nursing 7th Edition by Linda D. Urden
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
42 Chapters
1239 Verified Questions
1239 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2074 Page 2
Chapter 1: Critical Care Nursing Practice
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41257
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted to a rural ICU in Montana.Critical care nurses are assisting with monitoring and care of the patient from the closest major city.This is an example of A) telemedicine.
B) tele-ICU.
C) tele-informatics.
D) tele-hospital.
Answer: B
Q2) A physician and nurse are performing a dressing change on an unresponsive patient in room I-14.The physician asks the nurse for an update on the patient in room I-13.The nurse should
A) give the update to the physician.
B) refuse to give the update because of HIPAA requirements.
C) give the update because the patient's unconscious state will not compromise confidentiality.
D) refuse to give the update because of OSHA requirements.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Ethical Issues
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41258
Sample Questions
Q1) Place the following steps in ethical decision making in the order in which they should be carried out:
1)Identify the health problem.
2)Implement decisions.
3)Identify the decision maker.
4)Define the ethical issue.
5)Evaluate actions and decisions.
6)Gather additional information.
7)Examine moral and ethical principles.
8)Explore alternative options.
A) 1, 4, 6, 7, 8, 3, 2, 5
B) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8
C) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8
D) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Legal Issues
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41259
Sample Questions
Q1) Two nurses talking about a patient's condition in the cafeteria could lead to allegations of
A) slander.
B) libel.
C) invasion of privacy.
D) defamation.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following actions demonstrate the act of battery?
A) Performing CPR on a patient with a DNR order
B) Threatening to punch someone
C) Sexual misconduct
D) Drawing blood without the patient's consent
E) Threatening to restrain a patient for not using his or her call light for mobility assistance
Answer: A,C,D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Genetics and Genomics in Critical Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41260
Sample Questions
Q1) Philadelphia translocation is a specific chromosomal abnormality that occurs from a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 where parts of these two chromosomes switch places.This abnormality is associated with which disease?
A) Hemophilia A
B) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C) Obesity
D) Marfan syndrome
Q2) A family pedigree is used to determine whether a disease has a genetic component.The proband can be defined as:
A) the disease being mother related or father related.
B) the first person in the family who was diagnosed with the disorder.
C) who in the family is the xy band.
D) the disease locus.
Q3) An example of direct-to-consumer genomic testing is:
A) genetic testing through amniocentesis.
B) paternity testing from buccal swabs of the child and father.
C) biopsy of a lump for cancer.
D) drug testing using hair follicles.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Patient and Family Education
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41261
Sample Questions
Q1) How should a nurse respond when a patient asks if he or she is going to die?
A) Avoid the question by leaving the room.
B) Defer the question to the physician.
C) Answer honestly and sensitively with information that is understandable and in simple terms.
D) Speak with the family first before answering the patient.
Q2) Group discussion as a patient teaching strategy for educating both a patient newly diagnosed with diabetes and a patient who has had the disease for years
A) is an efficient use of the nurse's time.
B) will address the same teaching topics with both patients.
C) will be effective because both patients undoubtedly have identical goals.
D) is not an appropriate teaching strategy.
Q3) Acute illness disrupts the patient's and family's normal routines.Coping mechanisms include
A) denial.
B) adaptation.
C) values.
D) anger.
E) disbelief.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Psychosocial and Spiritual Alterations and Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41262
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ occurs when the critical illness is so severe that the patient or family becomes overwhelmed.
A) Anxiety
B) Spiritual distress
C) Stress overload
D) Hopelessness
Q2) A patient has recently been weaned off mechanical ventilation after 3 weeks of treatment.The patient is now refusing to have the ventilator removed from the room.What type of alteration is the patient experiencing?
A) Disturbed self-esteem
B) Regression
C) Hopelessness
D) Disturbed body image
Q3) Identify actions that a critical care nurse can take to decrease stressors at work.
A) Request temporary assignments in a less stressful setting.
B) Use self-reflection when feeling overwhelmed.
C) Maintain good physical health.
D) Ignore feelings of frustration and anger.
E) Use stress management techniques.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Sleep Alterations and Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41263
Sample Questions
Q1) REM sleep comprises what percent of the sleep cycle?
A) 70% to 75%
B) 45% to 65%
C) 15% to 20%
D) 20% to 25%
Q2) What occurs physiologically during REM sleep?
A) Growth hormone is secreted.
B) Metabolic needs are decreased.
C) Sympathetic nervous system predominates.
D) Heart rate and blood pressure decrease.
Q3) Sleep disturbance in critically ill patients is defined as insufficient duration or stages of sleep that results in
A) less sleep that promotes recovery.
B) discomfort and interferes with quality of life.
C) adaptation of the environment to promote sleep.
D) more sleep that promotes recovery.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Nutrition Alterations and Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41264
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with severe malnutrition as a result of hepatic failure.A triple-lumen central venous catheter is placed in the right subclavian vein,and TPN is started.For which of the following complications should the patient be evaluated immediately after insertion of the catheter?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Central venous thrombosis
D) Pulmonary aspiration
Q2) A patient has a new order for intermittent nasogastric feedings every 4 hours.The nasogastric tube is placed by the nurse.The best method for confirming the placement of the tube before feeding would be to
A) obtain radiography of the abdomen.
B) check the pH of fluid aspirated from the tube.
C) auscultate the left upper quadrant of the abdomen while injecting air into the tube.
D) auscultate the right upper quadrant of the abdomen while injecting air into the tube.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
10
Chapter 9: Pain and Pain Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41265
Sample Questions
Q1) Using a specific pain intensity scale in the CCU
A) eliminates the need for the subjectivity of the patient.
B) allows for one tool for all patient types.
C) provides consistency of assessment and documentation.
D) is not necessary because all pain is treated equally in the CCU.
Q2) Relaxation,distraction,guided imagery,and music therapy are all examples of
A) physical techniques for pain management.
B) cognitive-behavioral techniques for pain management.
C) PCA management of pain.
D) equianalgesic management of pain.
Q3) Which of the following assessment findings might indicate respiratory depression after opioid administration?
A) Flushed, diaphoretic skin
B) Shallow respirations with a rate of 24 breaths/min
C) Tense, rigid posture
D) Snoring
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Sedation,Agitation,Delirium: Assessment and Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41266
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted into the critical care unit 3 days ago.She has just been weaned from mechanical ventilation.She suddenly becomes confused,seeing nonexistent animals in her room and pulling at her gown.You suspect this patient is
A) experiencing delirium or "ICU psychosis."
B) experiencing confusion caused by increased hypoxia.
C) hypocalcemic.
D) acting out to receive the attention she was getting while intubated.
Q2) A 56-year-old patient is admitted to the critical care unit with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).The patient has been intubated and is mechanically ventilated.The patient is becoming increasingly agitated,and the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator has been frequently triggered.After the patient's agitation is controlled,which of the following drugs would be most appropriate for long-term sedation?
A) Morphine 2 mg/hr continuous IV drip
B) Haloperidol 15 mcg/kg/min continuous IV infusion
C) Propofol 5 mcg/kg/min by IV infusion
D) Lorazepam 0.01 to 0.1 mg/kg/hr by IV infusion
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: End-Of-Life Issues
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41267
Sample Questions
Q1) Family members become dissatisfied and stressed because of a lack of _____ among health care providers.
A) care provided
B) communication
C) patient's prognosis
D) patient's outcome
Q2) According to the Society for Critical Care Medicine,which of the following are among the most important needs of the family of the dying patient?
A) To be helpful
B) To stay informed
C) To achieve a sense of control
D) To vent emotions
E) To be fed, hydrated, and rested
Q3) Haloperidol is recommended as useful treatment of _____.
A) anxiety
B) dyspnea
C) delirium
D) pain
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular Anatomy and Physiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41268
Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac cells contain _____ and _____,the proteins responsible for their contractile nature.
A) Z-disc, A-band
B) actin, myosin
C) I-band, M-band
D) renin, angiotension-converting enzyme
Q2) The outermost layer of the artery that helps strengthen and shape the vessel is the A) tunica.
B) intima.
C) adventitia.
D) media.
Q3) Which of the following is most descriptive of the capillary?
A) Large diameter, low pressure
B) Small diameter, high pressure
C) Large diameter, high pressure
D) Small diameter, low pressure
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Clinical Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41269
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are created by the turbulence of blood flow through a vessel caused by constriction of the blood pressure cuff.
A) Korotkoff sounds
B) Pulse pressures
C) Murmurs
D) Gallops
Q2) Which of the following describe(s)S?,the first heart sound?
A) It is associated with closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves.
B) It is a high-pitched sound.
C) It can be heard most clearly with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.
D) The best listening point is in the aortic area.
E) The "split" sound can best be detected in the tricuspid area.
Q3) A nurse from the ICU receives a report from the ED nurse on a patient that includes a diagnosis of syncope unknown etiology.Orthostatic VS lying: 110/80 mm/Hg; sitting: 100/74 mm/Hg; standing: 92/40 mm/Hg.Based on this information,the nurse should monitor the patient's
A) breathing.
B) dietary intake.
C) peripheral pulses.
D) activity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Diagnostic Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41270
Sample Questions
Q1) A positive signal-averaged ECG indicates that the patient
A) has had a heart attack.
B) is at increased risk of sudden cardiac death.
C) has no heart disease.
D) has no need for an electrophysiology study.
Q2) When comparing a portable chest radiograph taken in an intensive care unit bed with one taken with the patient upright in the radiology department,one significant difference is that the
A) portable chest radiograph is usually clearer.
B) one in the intensive care unit is considered a posterior view.
C) portable chest radiograph magnifies some thoracic structures and decreases the sharpness of the structures.
D) departmental chest radiograph enlarges some thoracic structures.
Q3) The patient's admitting 12-lead ECG shows peaked P waves.Which of the following admitting diagnoses could be responsible for this finding?
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Pulmonary edema
C) Ischemia
D) Pericarditis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 16
Chapter 15: Cardiovascular Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41271
Sample Questions
Q1) Three days after an anterior wall MI,a patient is in the critical care unit.The patient is receiving oxygen at 4 L/min by nasal cannula; nitroglycerin paste,1-inch q6h; and Lopressor 25 mg PO q12h.The monitor shows that the patient is beginning to have premature ventricular contractions (PVCs).Over the course of the next several hours,the PVCs increase in frequency to more than 15 per minute,with occasional runs of multifocal bigeminal PVCs.The patient's vital signs follow: heart rate,84 beats/min; sinus rhythm with described PVCs; blood pressure,124/68 mm Hg; respirations,20 breaths/min; and SpO<sub>2</sub>,92%.Laboratory values are blood pH,7.44; potassium,4.4 mEq/L; and magnesium,1.0 mEq/L.Which of the following,if ordered,would be inappropriate for this patient?
A) Lidocaine 100 mg IV push
B) Increase oxygen to 6 L/min by nasal cannula
C) Potassium chloride 40 mEq in 250 mL 0.9% saline IV piggyback over a 4-hour period
D) Magnesium sulfate 2 g IV piggyback over a 2-hour period
Q2) Which medication may be administered to the patient with hypertensive crisis?
A) Digitalis
B) Vasopressin
C) Verapamil
D) Sodium nitroprusside
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Cardiovascular Therapeutic Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41272
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with left-sided heart failure and a blood pressure of 220/118 mm Hg.Which of the following drugs will be most effective in decreasing the blood pressure and reducing afterload?
A) Dopamine (Intropin)
B) Verapamil (Calan)
C) Propranolol (Inderal)
D) Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride)
Q2) The most common complication of fibrinolytic therapy is
A) reperfusion chest pain.
B) lethargy.
C) bleeding.
D) heart blocks.
Q3) A nurse is providing care to a patient on fibrinolytic therapy.Which of the following statements from the patient warrants further assessment and intervention by the critical care nurse?
A) "My back is killing me!"
B) "There is blood on my toothbrush!"
C) "Look at the bruises on my arms!"
D) "My arm is bleeding where my IV is!"
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Pulmonary Anatomy and Physiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41273
Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen saturation of left atrial blood is normally between 96% and 99%.What is the explanation for less than 100% saturation?
A) As blood passes to the alveolar-capillary membrane, a predicted percentage of hemoglobin will not bind with oxygen.
B) During normal respiration, the majority of alveoli are not expanded.
C) Venous blood from the bronchial circulation is returned to the left atrium.
D) A small amount of blood leaks from the right atrium to the left atrium with each ventricular contraction.
Q2) How much of the basal oxygen consumption is required by the pulmonary system during normal quiet breathing?
A) 10% to 20%
B) 5% to 10%
C) 3% to 5%
D) 1% to 2%
Q3) Most of the work of breathing is done by the
A) pleura.
B) intercostal muscles.
C) diaphragm.
D) sternocleidomastoid.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 19
Chapter 18: Pulmonary Clinical Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41274
Sample Questions
Q1) On assessment of a client,you note fremitus over the trachea but not in the lung periphery.You know that this most likely represents
A) bilateral pleural effusion.
B) bronchial obstruction.
C) a normal finding.
D) apical pneumothorax.
Q2) A client just involved in a motor vehicle accident has sustained blunt chest trauma as part of his injuries.The nurse assessment reveals absent breath sounds in the left lung field.A left-sided pneumothorax is suspected and is further validated when assessment of the trachea reveals
A) a shift to the right.
B) a shift to the left.
C) no deviation.
D) subcutaneous emphysema.
Q3) The use of observation for assessment is known as A) inspection.
B) palpation.
C) percussion.
D) auscultation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Pulmonary Diagnostic Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41275
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents moderately short of breath and dyspneic.A chest radiographic examination reveals a large right pleural effusion with significant atelectasis.The physician or nurse practitioner would be most likely to order which of the following procedures?
A) Thoracentesis
B) Bronchoscopy
C) Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan
D) Repeat chest radiograph
Q2) For which of the following conditions is a bronchoscopy indicated?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Ineffective clearance of secretions
C) Upper gastrointestinal bleed
D) Instillation of surfactant
Q3) V/Q scans are ordered to evaluate the possibility of which of the following?
A) Pulmonary emboli
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Emphysema
D) Acute respiratory distress syndrome
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41276
Sample Questions
Q1) The two most common causes of hospital-acquired pneumonia in the United States are
A) Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Escherichia coli and Haemophilus influenzae
C) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Klebsiella spp. and Enterobacter spp.
Q2) A patient was admitted to the critical care unit after a left pneumonectomy.The patient is receiving 40% oxygen via a simple facemask.The morning chest radiography study reveals right lower lobe pneumonia.After eating breakfast,the patient suddenly vomits and aspirates.The single most important measure to prevent the spread of infection between staff and patients is
A) respiratory isolation.
B) hand washing.
C) use of PPE.
D) antibiotics.
Q3) Aspiration can best be prevented by
A) observing the amount given in the tube feeding.
B) assessing the patient's level of consciousness.
C) encouraging the patient to cough and to breathe deeply.
D) positioning a patient in a semirecumbent position.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Therapeutic Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41277
Sample Questions
Q1) The finding of normal breath sounds on the right side of the chest and absent breath sounds on the left side of the chest in a newly intubated patient is probably caused by a A) right mainstem intubation.
B) left pneumothorax.
C) right hemothorax.
D) gastric intubation.
Q2) A patient was admitted to the critical care unit with acute respiratory failure.The patient has been on a ventilator for 3 days and is being considered for weaning.The ventilator high-pressure alarm keeps going off.When you enter the room,the ventilator inoperative alarm sounds.Which of the following criteria would indicate that the patient is ready to be weaned?
A) FiO<sub>2</sub> greater than 50%
B) Rapid shallow breathing index less than 105
C) Minute ventilation greater than 10 L/min
D) Vital capacity/kg greater than or equal to 15 mL
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 22: Neurologic Anatomy and Physiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41278
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures form(s)the blood-brain barrier?
A) Postsynaptic terminals
B) Pia mater
C) Vascular endothelial cells
D) Myelin sheath
Q2) Examples of small-molecule transmitters include
A) acetylcholine.
B) glucose.
C) norepinephrine.
D) dopamine.
E) epinephrine.
F) GABA receptors.
Q3) A person with a cerebellar lesion will have difficulty with A) breathing.
B) equilibrium.
C) memory.
D) speech.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Neurologic Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic
Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41279
Sample Questions
Q1) A critically injured patient can be aroused only by vigorous and continuous external stimuli.The patient's level of consciousness is considered
A) lethargic.
B) obtunded.
C) stuporous.
D) comatose.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes assessment of arousal?
A) It measures content of consciousness and is a higher level function.
B) It is an evaluation of the reticular activating system and its connection with the thalamus and the cerebral cortex.
C) It becomes a valid parameter when the patient is able to respond to verbal stimuli, such as squeezing the hands on command.
D) Noxious stimuli are not to be used as an assessment parameter.
Q3) The most important aspect of the neurologic examination is
A) medical history.
B) physical examination.
C) level of consciousness.
D) pupillary responses.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Neurologic Disorders and Therapeutic Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41280
Sample Questions
Q1) After neurosurgery,the patient is at the greatest risk of developing A) injury from falls.
B) infection.
C) seizures.
D) corneal abrasions.
Q2) Surgical placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is used to treat A) hyponatremia.
B) intracerebral hemorrhage.
C) spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q3) Nursing management of a patient with a clipped cerebral aneurysm receiving hypertensive hypervolemic hemodilution therapy includes
A) administering osmotic diuretics and vasodilator agents.
B) providing the patient with a quiet environment.
C) maintaining the patient's systolic blood pressure at 150 to 160 mm Hg.
D) keeping the patient's central venous pressure at 5 to 8 mm Hg.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Kidney Anatomy and Physiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41281
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following,if found in the urine,suggests damage to the glomerular membrane?
A) Creatinine
B) Bicarbonate ions
C) Sodium
D) Albumin
Q2) Where does the concentration and dilution of urine occur?
A) In the juxtamedullary nephrons
B) In the cortical nephrons
C) In the peritubular capillaries
D) In the internal nephron
Q3) The mobilization of calcium from bone stores is accomplished through the influence of which hormone?
A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) Erythropoietin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Kidney Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41282
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following urine values reflects a decreased ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine?
A) pH of 5.0
B) Specific gravity of 1.000
C) No casts
D) Urine sodium of 140 mEq/24 hr
Q2) A patient is admitted to the critical care unit in congestive heart failure secondary to renal insufficiency.The patient reports that over the past few weeks,his urine output has decreased,and he has developed peripheral edema and ascites.A diagnosis of renal failure is made.The nurse is assessing the peripheral edema.The nurse presses two fingers over the tibial area,and it takes 1 minute before the indention disappears.The nurse would chart the following result:
A) +1 pitting edema.
B) +2 pitting edema.
C) +3 pitting edema.
D) +4 pitting edema.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Kidney Disorders and Therapeutic Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41283
Sample Questions
Q1) To control azotemia,the recommended nutritional intake of protein is
A) .5 to 1.0 g/kg/day.
B) 1.2 to 1.5 g/kg/day.
C) 1.7 to 2.5 g/kg/day.
D) 2.5 to 3.5 g/kg/day.
Q2) Which electrolytes pose the most potential hazard if not within normal limits for a person with renal failure?
A) Phosphorous and calcium
B) Potassium and calcium
C) Magnesium and sodium
D) Phosphorous and magnesium
Q3) The most common site for short-term vascular access for immediate hemodialysis is the
A) subclavian artery.
B) subclavian vein.
C) femoral artery.
D) radial vein.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 29
Chapter 28: Gastrointestinal Anatomy and Physiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41284
Sample Questions
Q1) The function of bile is mainly to A) emulsify fat globules.
B) serve as a reservoir for bilirubin.
C) maintain triglyceride levels in the blood.
D) aid in detoxification of drugs in the liver.
Q2) The liver receives nutrient-rich blood from the gut,pancreas,spleen,and stomach from the
A) hepatic artery.
B) hepatic vein.
C) portal vein.
D) intralobular veins.
Q3) The gastrointestinal system plays a vital role in detoxification and elimination of A) viruses.
B) chemical toxins.
C) drugs.
D) bacteria.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Gastrointestinal Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41285
Sample Questions
Q1) Which radiographic test would be used to identify pseudocysts of the pancreas?
A) Plain film radiography
B) Abdominal ultrasonography
C) CT of abdomen
D) MRI of the abdomen
Q2) Which of the following serum laboratory values is increased in acute pancreatitis?
A) Bilirubin
B) Amylase
C) Lactate dehydrogenase
D) Ammonia
Q3) The patient has just returned from a liver biopsy.The patient should be positioned on the
A) left side for 2 hours.
B) right side for 2 hours.
C) left side for 6 to 8 hours.
D) right side for 6 to 8 hours.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Gastrointestinal Disorders and Therapeutic Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41286
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis.The nurse expects which of the following laboratory test results to be elevated?
A) Calcium
B) Serum amylase
C) Serum glucose
D) Potassium
E) WBC
F) Serum triglycerides
Q2) The patient at risk for GI hemorrhage should be monitored for which of the following signs and symptoms?
A) Metabolic acidosis and hypovolemia
B) Decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit
C) Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia
D) Hematemesis and melena
Q3) Which of the following disorders is the leading cause of upper GI hemorrhage?
A) Stress ulcers
B) Peptic ulcers
C) Nonspecific erosive gastritis
D) Esophageal varices
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 31: Endocrine Anatomy and Physiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41287
Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which fat and protein nutrients are broken down into end products that are changed to glucose is
A) glycogenolysis.
B) gluconeogenesis.
C) digestion.
D) biotransformation.
Q2) Adequate thyroid function depends on A) the basal metabolic rate.
B) dietary intake of iodine.
C) colloid osmotic pressure.
D) sodium levels in the blood.
Q3) A patient is admitted to the critical care unit after sustaining a head injury.Based on the injury,it is determined that there is a decrease in antidiuretic hormone (ADH).The major role of antidiuretic hormone is to regulate A) blood pressure.
B) fluid balance.
C) potassium.
D) homeostasis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 32: Endocrine Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic
Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41288
Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-year-old young woman is admitted to the critical care unit with severe hyperglycemia caused by new-onset type 1 diabetes mellitus.The patient is complaining of headache and blurred vision.The nurse knows that these are signs that may indicate
A) kidney stones.
B) diabetes insipidus.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) hyperglycemia.
Q2) Which of the following laboratory studies or diagnostic procedures is most useful in identifying central diabetes insipidus (DI)?
A) Skull radiographs
B) Serum glucose level
C) Water deprivation test
D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulation test
Q3) Medications such as salicylates,lithium,and sulfonamides can influence thyroid levels by
A) increasing T?.
B) increasing T? .
C) decreasing T?.
D) decreasing T? .
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34
Chapter 33: Endocrine Disorders and Therapeutic Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41289
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nursing interventions should be initiated on all patients with SIADH?
A) Placing the patient on an air mattress
B) Forcing fluids
C) Initiating seizure precautions
D) Applying soft restraints
Q2) In the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH),the physiologic effect is
A) massive diuresis, leading to hemoconcentration.
B) dilutional hyponatremia, reducing sodium concentration to critically low levels.
C) hypokalemia from massive diuresis.
D) serum osmolality greater than 350 mOsm/kg.
Q3) The primary intervention for hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS)is
A) rapid rehydration.
B) monitoring vital signs.
C) high-dose intravenous (IV) insulin.
D) hourly urine sugar and acetone testing.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 35
Chapter 34: Trauma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41290
Sample Questions
Q1) A strategy to minimize secondary brain injury in head-injured patients is
A) hyperventilation to keep PCO<sub>2</sub> less than 30.
B) fluid restriction to keep central venous pressure less than 6 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.
C) maintaining body temperature more than 37.5° C.
D) fluid resuscitation as needed to keep the systolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg.
Q2) When opening the airway of an unresponsive trauma patient in the emergency department,which of the following considerations is correct?
A) Airway assessment must incorporate cervical spine immobilization.
B) Hyperextension of the neck is the only acceptable technique.
C) Flexion of the neck protects the patient from further injury.
D) Airway patency takes priority over cervical spine immobilization.
Q3) Fat embolism syndrome can occur as a complication of A) liver trauma.
B) burns.
C) orthopedic trauma.
D) spleen trauma.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 36
Chapter 35: Shock,sepsis,and Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41291
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hemodynamic parameters supports the diagnosis of cardiogenic shock?
A) Increased right atrial pressure
B) Decreased pulmonary artery wedge pressure
C) Increased cardiac output
D) Decreased cardiac index
Q2) The difference between primary and secondary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)is that primary MODS is the result of
A) widespread systemic inflammation that results in dysfunction of organs not involved in the initial insult.
B) direct organ injury.
C) disorganization of the immune system response.
D) widespread disruption of the coagulation system.
Q3) Which medication is not recommended in the treatment of shock-related lactic acidosis?
A) Glucose
B) Sodium bicarbonate
C) Vasoconstrictor
D) Large quantity of crystalloids fluids
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 36: Burns
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41292
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would prevent cross-contamination by direct contact and decrease the risk of infection in the burn-injured patient?
A) Gloves are the only personal protective equipment worn when changing dressings that are in direct contact of body fluids.
B) Family members only have to wear a gown when visiting a patient because masks will increase anxiety in the patient.
C) Changing gloves and hand washing should be done when moving from area to area on the same patient.
D) Sharing of equipment between patients in the same room does not show evidence of cross-contamination.
Q2) According to the American College of Surgeons,burns to which body surfaces are best treated in a burn center?
A) Arms
B) Perineum
C) Chest
D) Genitalia
E) Face
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38
Chapter 37: Organ Donation and Transplantation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41293
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would indicate that a newly transplanted liver is not functioning properly?
A) Increased serum glucose
B) Low aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
C) Elevated prothrombin time
D) Decreased blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
Q2) Because a patient who has received a lung transplant is at risk for ventilation/perfusion (V/Q)mismatch,it would be a priority for the nurse to monitor
A) blood gases.
B) cardiac output.
C) lung sounds.
D) blood pressure.
Q3) A patient who has received a transplant is being taught about cyclosporine.Which statement made by the patient would indicate the teaching was effective?
A) "I know this drug prevents my immune system from working."
B) "If I find the capsules are hard to swallow, I'll take the liquid."
C) "I will need to watch for bruising."
D) "I will need to monitor my blood pressure."
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 38: Hematologic Disorders and Oncologic Emergencies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41294
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pathophysiologic events contributes to renal failure associated with tumor lysis syndrome?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Elevated white blood cell count
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Crystallization of uric acid in the renal tubules
Q2) Which of the following platelet counts would be most indicative of a diagnosis of ITP?
A) 28,000/mm3
B) 35,000/mm3
C) 72,000/mm3
D) 110,000/mm3
Q3) Clinical manifestations of ITP include which of the following?
A) Gingival bleeding
B) Retinal hemorrhage
C) Fluid retention
D) Muscle cramps
E) Petechial hemorrhages on legs
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 40
Chapter 39: The Obstetric Patient
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41295
Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical decisions in a critically ill obstetric patient include
A) fetal viability, hospital practices, and exposure to radiation.
B) fetal viability versus maternal death and parental desires.
C) medication use, personal value systems, and hospital policies.
D) parental desires, fetal viability, and community standards.
Q2) The most common obstetric cause of DIC is
A) pre-eclampsia.
B) abruptio placentae.
C) dead fetus syndrome.
D) amniotic fluid embolism.
Q3) Extrinsic factors that influence fetal development include all the following EXCEPT A) fungal infections.
B) chromosomal abnormalities.
C) "unknown" causes.
D) medication exposure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: The Pediatric Patient
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41296
Sample Questions
Q1) Causes associated with the diagnosis status epilepticus include
A) high fever.
B) encephalitis.
C) metabolic disorder.
D) meningitis.
E) gradual weaning of anticonvulsant drugs.
Q2) A 5-year-old boy has been admitted with severe asthma.His initial PaCO<sub>2</sub> was 30 mm Hg.One hour later his PaCO<sub>2</sub> is 45 mm Hg,and 1 hour after that,his PaCO<sub>2</sub> is 56 mm Hg.Which of the following interventions would be anticipated?
A) High-dose steroids
B) Chest percussion and vibration
C) Fluid resuscitation with normal saline
D) Mechanical ventilation
Q3) The upper airway of an infant is different from that of an adult in that the infant's
A) epiglottis is located lower than an adult's.
B) tongue is larger, and it fills the oral cavity.
C) larynx is tubular shaped with its narrowest portion at the epiglottis.
D) airway is more rigid than an adult's.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 42
Chapter 41: The Older Adult Patient
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41297
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be a normal assessment finding for an older patient?
A) Inability to remember what was eaten yesterday
B) An increase in resting heart rate
C) Hypoactive bowel sounds
D) Brisk papillary response to light
Q2) Which of the following will remain unchanged in an older person when he or she exercises?
A) Cardiac output
B) Heart rate
C) Blood pressure
D) Heart rhythm
Q3) Which of the following can be a normal assessment finding for an older patient?
A) Asymptomatic dysrhythmias
B) Decreased urine output
C) Increased respiratory effort
D) Difficulty problem solving
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 43
Chapter 42: The Perianesthesia Patient
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41298
Sample Questions
Q1) What medication may be used to treat laryngeal edema?
A) Racemic epinephrine
B) Succinylcholine
C) Albuterol
D) Morphine
Q2) What is the most common cause of hypoxemia?
A) Laryngeal edema
B) Laryngospasm
C) Bronchospasm
D) Ventilation/perfusion mismatching
Q3) Patients who shiver
A) are always hypothermic.
B) are always hyperthermic.
C) may be normothermic.
D) always shiver because of pain.
Q4) The duration of action of naloxone is
A) 30 minutes to 1 hour.
B) 1 to 4 hours.
C) 4 to 6 hours.
D) 6 to 10 hours.
Page 44
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.