Critical Care Nursing Question Bank
Course Introduction
Critical Care Nursing focuses on the specialized knowledge and advanced clinical skills necessary for the care of patients experiencing life-threatening health conditions. This course explores the physiological, psychological, and ethical aspects of critical illness, equipping students with expertise in monitoring and managing complex patient needs in intensive care settings. Topics include advanced assessment techniques, ventilatory support, hemodynamic monitoring, pharmacology, and the management of multi-organ dysfunction. The course also emphasizes teamwork, rapid decision-making, patient advocacy, and effective communication with patients and families during high-stress situations.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition
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82 Chapters
1873 Verified Questions
1873 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/252 Page 2
Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3999
Sample Questions
Q1) Suggestions that a home health nurse could make to an elderly client with cataracts to reduce the risk of falls in his home would include
A) arranging scatter rugs to prevent slipping on the hardwood floor.
B) using lower-illumination bulbs to prevent eyestrain.
C) using night lights in every room.
D) wearing soft-soled house shoes indoors.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is planning a community STD (sexually transmitted disease) screening fair. This activity would be considered
A) epidemiologic prevention.
B) primary prevention.
C) secondary prevention.
D) tertiary prevention.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Assessment
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4000
Sample Questions
Q1) In the preparation of a nursing care plan relative to the client's mental status, the least helpful data would be those resulting from
A) client's overall response to the interview.
B) formal psychological tests.
C) notation of appropriateness of affect.
D) observation of nonverbal behavior.
Answer: B
Q2) Percussion
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: A
Q3) To assess precipitating factors, the nurse interviewer would ask
A) "Do you remember the first time you had this problem?"
B) "How many times has the problem been related to activity?"
C) "What measures relieve this problem for you?"
D) "What were you doing when you first noticed the problem?"
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4001
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working in the intensive care unit. When assessing the clients, the nurse notes one of them, who was scheduled to transfer to a step-down unit as soon as a bed becomes available, has a respiratory rate change from 18 to 20 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (O<sub>2</sub> sat) of 92%, when earlier it was 93%. The client denies complaints. The nurse calls the physician and requests a chest x-ray and arterial blood gases (ABGs). This nurse is working at which Benner Level of Competency in Nurses?
A) Advanced beginner
B) Competent
C) Expert
D) Proficient
Answer: C
Q2) A nurse with 6 year's labor and delivery experience is floated to the intensive care unit. In this situation, the nurse would most likely function at the level of A) advanced beginner.
B) competent.
C) novice.
D) proficient.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4002
Sample Questions
Q1) When the client asks the nurse what "placebo effect" means, the nurse includes in the response that the placebo effect describes a
A) deterioration of the product to the point that it renders the product incapable of offering any therapeutic benefit.
B) phenomenon of a person taking the placebo and claiming positive effects because of psychological factors unrelated to the product.
C) practice of manufacturers to make hugely inflated claims to induce the potential user to believe in the worth of the product.
D) product that, although producing therapeutic effects for many users, has no effect on others.
Q2) The nurse cautions that, when consumed in large quantities, antioxidants can become pro-oxidants, which
A) absorb large quantities of free radicals.
B) can produce free radicals.
C) create a free radical "shield."
D) enhance the immune system.
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Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4003
Sample Questions
Q1) After each telehealth communication the nurse should
A) immediately document the content of the call in the client's record.
B) inform the physician of the information or teaching given.
C) schedule a later call to check on the client's progress.
D) send the client a written form of the pertinent information.
Q2) One challenge for nurses working in ambulatory care centers is
A) clients give overall responsibility for self-care to the center.
B) duties are rigidly defined within the interdisciplinary team.
C) length of client visit is short, reducing assessment time.
D) use of telephones and computers eases assessment potential.
Q3) The nurse-manager explains to a new nurse at the ambulatory clinic that the service for which the telephone nursing practice is not feasible is
A) assessing a client's needs based on the nurse's perception.
B) developing a collaborative plan of care with a client.
C) evaluating outcomes of practice and care.
D) prioritizing the urgency of a client's needs.
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Chapter 6: Acute Health Care
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4004
Sample Questions
Q1) While administering an antibiotic to a client with an infection, the nurse explains the importance of completing the full course of antibiotic therapy. This is an example of A) formal education.
B) giving advice.
C) informal education.
D) setting an example.
Q2) When unit staffing includes unlicensed assistive personnel, the nurse is aware that A) delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel is not in the scope of RN practice. B) licensed personnel are accountable for the tasks delegated to the unlicensed personnel.
C) unlicensed assistive personnel do not have clinical duties on a client care unit. D) unlicensed assistive personnel have formal training and function independently.
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8
Chapter 7: Critical Care
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4005
Sample Questions
Q1) The ICU nurse planning care for a critically ill client tries to arrange care to minimize the most disruptive stressor for the client, which is
A) alteration in sleep.
B) fear of the unknown.
C) persistent pain.
D) sense of isolation.
Q2) The population that is increasingly using critical care units and needing specialized nursing care is the population of A) elderly.
B) middle-age adults.
C) underserved pregnant women.
D) uninsured.
Q3) A nurse working in critical care would plan interactions with clients' families based on the understanding that families most need A) knowledge.
B) respect.
C) sleep.
D) spiritual support.
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Chapter 8: Home Health Care
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4006
Sample Questions
Q1) The component that is not part of the Omaha System is A) Intervention Scheme.
B) Problem Classification Scheme.
C) Problem Rating Scale for Outcomes.
D) Rating Scale for Client Satisfaction.
Q2) A home health nurse explains to a client that the Omaha System was designed to facilitate
A) client understanding of the overall health care plan.
B) documentation of unusual events and associated malpractice risks.
C) nursing practice, documentation, and data management.
D) the nurse's ability to visit more clients during the workday.
Q3) The home health nurse explains that her philosophy is based on the belief that clients should
A) adhere to the care plan generated by the nurse.
B) alter cultural practices to meet health needs.
C) be knowledgeable about their health care.
D) feel no responsibility for their health care.
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Chapter 9: Long-Term Care
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4007
Sample Questions
Q1) The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA) affected nursing homes by A) allowing residents more choice in the selection of a nursing home.
B) mandating that each resident have a private room and bath.
C) producing profound reforms in nursing home care.
D) providing for better funding to meet the needs of the residents.
Q2) The form of residential long-term care facility that offers the most personal freedom, as well as provision of meals, medication supervision, and personal care assistance, is A) adult day care center.
B) assisted living center.
C) nursing home.
D) transitional care setting.
Q3) The nurse admitting a new resident to a long-term care facility is mindful that after the resident is assessed, a care plan must be written within A) 1 day.
B) 3 days.
C) 5 days.
D) 7 days.
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11
Chapter 10: Rehabilitation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4008
Sample Questions
Q1) The rehabilitation nurse explains that the transdisciplinary approach to rehabilitation provides the client with
A) more efficient service at a greatly reduced cost.
B) reduced number of personnel with whom to interact.
C) reduced time spent on therapeutic modalities.
D) shortened stay in the rehabilitation unit.
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse ensures that teaching is (Select all that apply)
A) designed, delivered, and reinforced in ways that are meaningful.
B) designed to cover all aspects of the rehabilitation process.
C) individualized to the client and family even when standardized material is used.
D) presented in appropriate levels and formats.
E) readily available so that learning can occur when the learner is ready.
Q3) The rehabilitation nurse uses the Functional Independence Measures (FIM) tool to assess the client's
A) attitude.
B) physical strength.
C) rehabilitation goals.
D) self-care capabilities.
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12
Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4009
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L. The nurse has initiated a slow IV infusion of hypertonic saline solution per IV pump in a large vein. Which other intervention should the nurse implement as a priority?
A) Assess the client for dysphagia.
B) Have on-hand a calcium-channel blocker in case of overdose.
C) Initiate seizure and safety precautions.
D) Start a second IV in case the first one infiltrates.
Q2) A client had a stroke and is now being tube-fed. An important intervention the nurse should include in the care plan related to fluid and electrolyte balance is to
A) consult with a dietitian about providing sufficient calories.
B) check the sodium concentration of the formula.
C) prevent too-rapid infusion by using a feeding pump.
D) provide 1 ml of water per 1 kilocalorie of formula.
Q3) The nurse anticipates that an order for an isotonic intravenous (IV) solution will read
A)0.45% sodium chloride.
B)0.9% sodium chloride.
C) 3% sodium chloride.
D) 5% dextrose in water.
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13
Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4010
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who is scheduled for surgery the following day has preoperative electrolyte levels drawn. The nurse would notify the surgeon's office to report
A) a calcium level of 9.6 mg/dl.
B) a chloride level of 101 mEq/L.
C) a potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L.
D) a sodium level of 132 mEq/L.
Q2) The nurse is instructing a client to eat foods that are high in potassium, such as (Select all that apply)
A) bananas.
B) broccoli.
C) cantaloupe.
D) corn.
E) cranberry juice.
F) lima beans.
Q3) When giving IV potassium, the nurse takes the precaution of
A) agitating the bag to prevent bolus administration.
B) ensuring potassium dilution with glucose solution.
C) leaving the IV cannula inserted as long as possible.
D) using a large cannula for infusion.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4011
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old client admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and who is becoming progressively more confused. Her vital signs are as follows: T, 101° F; P, 112 beats/min; R, 28 breaths/min; BP, 100/70 mm Hg. ABG results are pH 7.50, PaCO<sub>2</sub> 25 mm Hg, and bicarbonate level 18 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these findings to indicate
A) metabolic acidosis secondary to fever.
B) metabolic alkalosis secondary to bicarbonate excess.
C) respiratory acidosis secondary to anxiety.
D) respiratory alkalosis secondary to hypoxemia.
Q2) The nurse is assigned to a client with insulin-dependent diabetes who was brought to the emergency department because of shortness of breath and confusion. On admission, the client's blood glucose level is 720 mg/ml, and ABG values are pH of 7.28, PaCO<sub>2</sub> of 35 mm Hg, and bicarbonate level of 15 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these readings as indicating
A) compensated metabolic acidosis.
B) compensated respiratory acidosis.
C) uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
D) uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4012
Sample Questions
Q1) The client who has received odansetron (Zofran) asks, "What will the drug do?" The nurse should base a reply on the knowledge that odansetron
A) controls intraoperative secretions.
B) produces an antiemetic effect.
C) promotes rapid sedation.
D) relieves postoperative pain.
Q2) In the first 3 days after surgery, the nurse would anticipate the fluid and electrolyte adjustment of
A) elevated hematocrit level.
B) fluid retention.
C) increase in serum potassium level.
D) increased urine output.
Q3) The preoperative assessment finding that the nurse would report to the surgeon for preoperative treatment is
A) hemoglobin concentration of 13.5 mg/dl.
B) partial thromboplastin time of 25 seconds.
C) potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L.
D) sodium level of 140 mEq/L.
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Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4013
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working on a general medical-surgical unit in the hospital cares for clients with a variety of diseases that have a genetic component, including (Select all that apply)
A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
C) diabetes.
D) heart disease.
E) sickle cell anemia.
Q2) A nurse explains to a family that if a man has a recessive gene on his X chromosome, that characteristic can be passed on to
A) any child of either gender.
B) his daughters.
C) his sons.
D) no child as it is a random mutation.
Q3) The Human Genome Project (HGP) was begun in 1990 to
A) alter the course of inherited disorders.
B) clone an animal, then a human.
C) determine the location of genes on chromosomes.
D) replicate the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4014
Sample Questions
Q1) After explaining how malignant cells differ from normal cells to a client with breast cancer, the nurse knows the client understands the characteristics of malignant cells when the client says "Malignant cells
A) are larger than normal cells and have designated purposes."
B) cannot grow if inflammation is present."
C) develop chromosomal abnormalities as they mature."
D) develop the same antigens as normal cells do."
Q2) A nurse is administering IV chemotherapy. What personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse use when doing this task?
A) A gown and gloves
B) Gloves and a mask
C) No special PPE is needed
D) Only gloves
Q3) The nurse reviewing a research report recognizes that a discussion of oncogenes will address
A) a chemotherapeutic agent that eradicates viruses that cause cancer.
B) factors in the immune system protecting the client from malignant growths.
C) risk factors in cancer development.
D) segments of DNA that transform normal cells into malignant cells.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4015
Sample Questions
Q1) Before the specially trained nurse gives the prescribed dose of a chemotherapeutic agent, the nurse should
A) collect an extra syringe and needle in case of contamination.
B) cover the client with a water-resistant shield.
C) explain the expected side effects of the drug to the client.
D) verify dose, drug, and schedule with another nurse.
Q2) A client with an advanced stage laryngeal cancer with widespread metastases is scheduled for surgery tomorrow morning. The nurse realizes that preoperative teaching has been effective when the client states
A) "After the operation, how soon will I know if they got it all?"
B) "I will be glad to have this tumor removed so I can breathe better."
C) "My family can't wait for this to be over so we can travel to Europe."
D) "So what is the cure rate for this kind of cancer?"
Q3) The nurse is developing a long-term plan for a 45-year-old client with a malignancy. The factor that would disqualify this client from receiving hospice services is
A) a life expectancy of less than 6 months.
B) an annual income of more than $30,000.
C) initiation of a course of curative chemotherapy.
D) living alone in an apartment complex.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4016
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a chronic, nonhealing ulcer on the lower leg. The nurse thinks the client could benefit from negative-pressure wound therapy. The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to
A) ask the charge nurse to discuss the matter with the physician.
B) call the physician and request an order for a negative pressure machine.
C) keep track of supplies used currently to estimate the cost of continuing the present regimen.
D) request the physician write an order to consult the wound care nurse.
Q2) A client is being discharged with a large wound on the right ankle that has cellulitis. The client is obese, smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day, and is sedentary. In the discharge instructions, which lifestyle modification would be most important for the nurse to include? The client should
A) drink more water.
B) lose weight.
C) start an exercise routine.
D) stop smoking.
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Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4017
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explaining an infection to a client with the flu would describe an infection as a/an
A) defect in the immune system.
B) hypersensitivity reaction between a human antigen and a biologic agent.
C) inflammatory response to an irritant.
D) parasitic relationship between an organism and host.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client who develops a urinary tract infection during hospitalization explains that the infection is likely a
A) consequence of bacteremia.
B) nidus formation.
C) nosocomial infection.
D) viral infection.
Q3) The nurse, in compliance with the 1991 Recommendations for Immunization of Healthcare Workers by the CDC, will have received
A) a tetanus booster every year.
B) HIV vaccination upon employment.
C) immunization against cholera.
D) the three-dose series of hepatitis B vaccine.
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Chapter 20: Clients with Pain
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4018
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is in the hospital with an exacerbation of a chronic pain condition. Orders are for prn morphine IV push. When the primary nurse left for the weekend, the client's pain was under control. When the nurse returns to work, the client is reporting wild swings in pain control, being oversedated at some times and having extreme pain at other times. Which action by the primary nurse would best get this client's pain under control?
A) Ask the physician to order the pain medication on a round-the-clock schedule.
B) Observe the client for behaviors that might indicate possible addiction.
C) Plan to administer the maximum amount of pain medication the next time it is due.
D) Question the client about the pain to determine if he/she is exaggerating.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client with suspected appendicitis knows that the pain associated with appendicitis is
A) cutaneous pain.
B) somatic pain.
C) superficial pain.
D) visceral pain.
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Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4019
Sample Questions
Q1) The individual(s) who are widely known for the development of hospice care in the United States is/are (Select all that apply)
A) Dame Cicely Saunders.
B) Elisabeth Kübler-Ross.
C) Florence Nightingale.
D) Florence Wald.
Q2) The nurse suggests that the client should try a mu-agonist type of opioid, which is often effective in managing pain, such as A) acetaminophen.
B) hydromorphone.
C) ibuprofen.
D) naproxen.
Q3) A client using a new opioid analgesic for pain becomes drowsy after the first two doses. The nurse explains to the client and family that the dose may be too high if this persists for more than A) 1 day.
B) 2 to 3 days.
C) 5 to 7 days.
D) 7 to 10 days.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4020
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaching a client with narcolepsy should include the A) importance of avoiding caffeine.
B) need to increase exercise.
C) proper way to use continuous positive-airway pressure (CPAP).
D) recommendation to take regular naps.
Q2) The nurse arranges the client care to prevent waking the older adult because the sleep patterns of older clients are characterized by A) increased REM sleep.
B) increased time spent in stage 1 sleep.
C) increased time spent in stage 4 sleep.
D) decrease in time to fall asleep.
Q3) The substance produced in the body that acts a strong sleep inducer is A) acetylcholine.
B) melanin.
C) melatonin.
D) serotonin.
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Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health
Concerns
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4021
Sample Questions
Q1) The nonverbal behavior of the nurse that is likely to increase anxiety in a client is
A) speaking slowly in a clear, firm voice.
B) maintaining a brisk, business-like approach.
C) listening with full attention.
D) decreasing noise levels and bright light.
Q2) A home health nurse is visiting a client living with his parents who has severe depression and is considered at risk of suicide. When the client refuses to sign a "no harm" contract, the most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) call 911, explaining that there is a psychiatric emergency.
B) instruct family members to keep a close watch on the client.
C) schedule another visit for the following day.
D) telephone the physician for a referral to a psychiatric nurse.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client with schizophrenia would assess for manifestations of this disorder, including (Select all that apply)
A) disorganized speech and behavior.
B) excessive and rapid speech.
C) flat or inappropriate affect.
D) sad moods and crying spells.
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Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4022
Sample Questions
Q1) The theory that describes substance abuse as a learned behavior is called the A) biologic model.
B) family system model.
C) psychological model.
D) sociocultural model.
Q2) The nurse reminds the client that in the United States, the most widely used psychoactive substance is
A) alcohol.
B) amphetamines.
C) caffeine.
D) marijuana.
Q3) During history-taking, a client tells the nurse that he is addicted to caffeine and that he drinks 10 to 12 cups of coffee a day as well as several cola drinks and iced tea. The nurse would warn the client that during his NPO status for surgery, he should expect to experience
A) diarrhea.
B) euphoria.
C) headache.
D) itching.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4023
Sample Questions
Q1) A client complains of deep aching in his lower leg. The nurse completes an assessment focusing on other indicators of A) bone cancer.
B) infection.
C) muscle strain.
D) neuromuscular impairment.
Q2) The client who has osteoarthritis describes a grating sound in the hip. The nurse explains that this bothersome manifestation is related to A) bursa enlargement.
B) joint irregularities.
C) normal findings with age.
D) the presence of fluid.
Q3) The nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment on a client who is right-hand dominant. The variation in muscle mass the nurse expects to find is A) atrophy.
B) fasciculations.
C) hypertrophy.
D) tremors.
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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4024
Sample Questions
Q1) The client returns from surgery for a THA with a Hemovac in place. The nurse assesses the first 6 hours drainage as 350 ml. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) change the client's position to supine.
B) drain the Hemovac and record the amount.
C) notify the physician of the amount of drainage.
D) report the excessive drainage to the oncoming nurse.
Q2) On admission assessment of a client with Paget's disease, the nurse would anticipate the client to complain of
A) continuous bone pain.
B) fever in the afternoon.
C) pain on ambulation.
D) swelling at site of deformity.
Q3) On admitting a client with acute osteomyelitis, the nurse is not surprised at the client's complaint of
A) generalized bone pain.
B) localized pain and redness.
C) nausea and vomiting.
D) paresthesias in the affected extremity.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal
Trauma or Overuse
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4025
Sample Questions
Q1) A victim of a motorcycle accident has an open fracture of the left femur with an associated wound of 8 cm. The nurse's assessment records this injury as grade A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q2) The principal concept that a nurse would include in a teaching plan regarding partial weight-bearing is that the client should A) bear as much weight as can be tolerated 30% to 50% of the time.
B) prevent the affected limb from touching the floor; bear weight on the unaffected limb. C) rest the affected foot on the floor and place weight on it 30% to 50% of the time.
D) use a walker or crutches and bear 30% to 50% of weight on the affected limb.
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Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4026
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has been admitted with a diagnosis of primary starvation. The nurse explains to the family that this means the client
A) has a possible problem with the GI tract.
B) has not been eating enough calories and other nutrients.
C) is not eating, absorbing, or using micronutrients.
D) is over-excreting specific nutrients.
Q2) For a client having all the following GI tests, which test should the nurse schedule last?
A) Barium swallow
B) Computed tomography scan
C) Flat plate of abdomen
D) Ultrasound
Q3) For a client taking a histamine H? blocker to reduce clinical manifestations of gastritis, the nurse would clarify that the client is at risk for a possible deficiency of vitamin
A) A.
B) B<sub>12</sub>.
C) C.
D) D.
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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that in the administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN), options for infusion do not include which of the following?
A) Central venous access device inserted through the jugular vein
B) Peripheral IV catheter in the back of the hand
C) PICC line inserted peripherally and threaded to the subclavian vein
D) Totally implanted ports or external tunneled central venous catheters
Q2) The nurse explains to a client with renal failure who requires an oral nutritional supplement that the most appropriate brand would be
A) Boost Plus.
B) Nepro.
C) Nutra Shake.
D) Probalance.
Q3) The client manifestation noted by the nurse as inconsistent with malnutrition is A) constipation.
B) delayed wound healing.
C) fatigue.
D) postural hypotension.
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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with oral Candidiasis has the nursing diagnosis Acute Pain related to altered oral mucous membrane and ulcerations. To rinse the mouth and provide comfort, the nurse should instruct the client to use
A) a commercial mouthwash.
B) Dakin's solution.
C) half-strength peroxide.
D) saline mouth rinses.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client who has recently undergone oral surgery has made a nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements related to oral pain and difficulty eating. The nursing intervention that would best assist the client to achieve the goal of maintaining weight is
A) administering analgesics before meals.
B) increasing the time interval between oral care and mealtime.
C) regularly suctioning secretions from the mouth.
D) teaching the client to avoid putting food directly on the suture site.
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32
Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is instructing a client with a peptic ulcer on recommended dietary changes. A goal of teaching has been met when the client states that he/she will avoid which of the following beverages?
A) Apple juice
B) Lemonade
C) Milk
D) Water
Q2) The nurse is monitoring a client who has had gastric surgery for manifestations of dumping syndrome. The nurse should be particularly watchful for the early manifestation of
A) hypertension.
B) pain.
C) tenesmus.
D) vertigo.
Q3) An important health promotion activity for nurses to teach clients with chronic gastritis is to
A) avoid any spicy or overly-hot food.
B) see the health care provider at regular intervals.
C) stick to a regular exercise plan.
D) take only nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for mild pain.
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Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030
Sample Questions
Q1) An 83-year-old client is seen for urinary frequency and burning. A dipstick urine test reveals positive nitrates. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Assume the client has a UTI.
B) Catheterize the client for a sterile specimen.
C) Nothing; this is a normal finding.
D) Send the urine for a culture.
Q2) The nurse explains that a large increase of urobilinogen in the client's urine is consistent with the diagnosis of
A) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
B) cancer of the kidney or bladder.
C) gastroenteritis.
D) hepatitis or other liver disease.
Q3) In counseling a pregnant woman scheduled for an ultrasound of the kidneys, the nurse would advise that
A) a full bladder is required.
B) bed rest will be necessary.
C) the dye may cause a reaction.
D) the procedure is safe for the fetus.
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Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031
Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for a client who is vomiting fecal material, the nurse should place the highest priority on which action?
A) Administering parenteral fluids that contain electrolytes
B) Encouraging the client to take small sips of water
C) Giving the client frequent oral hygiene
D) Preparing the client for surgery
Q2) In counseling a client with ulcerative colitis for 25 years about health maintenance plans, the nurse would include the advice that the client should
A) avoid red meat.
B) obtain genetic counseling.
C) reduce physical exercise.
D) schedule regular proctoscopic examinations.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client with abdominal distention and vomiting that is fecal in nature should conduct further assessment aimed at discovering
A) a distal, small intestinal obstruction.
B) gastric ulceration.
C) gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding.
D) ulceration of the esophagus.
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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032
Sample Questions
Q1) In teaching a client who requires a condom catheter for control of incontinence how to properly apply the system, the nurse stresses that part of the correct method for applying the device is to
A) apply the condom close to the end of the penis.
B) attach the device with tape wrapped around the shaft of the penis.
C) fasten the sheath with elastic tape applied in a spiral manner.
D) retract the foreskin before application.
Q2) For a client experiencing urinary retention with overflow, the factor in the client's history that would prompt the nurse to question an order for a cholinergic medication is A) bladder outlet obstruction.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) frequent UTIs.
D) multiple pregnancies.
Q3) The nurse would realize that additional teaching is needed when the client with a ureteroileostomy says "I
A) am going shopping for new clothing that will better accommodate the pouch." B) will change the pouch when it begins to leak."
C) won't drink too much so the amount of urine I make will be less."
D) am going to cut down on eating dairy products."
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has renal cancer and is scheduled for a nephrectomy. Preoperatively, the nurse finds the client very quiet with a worried facial expression. Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A) "Chemotherapy has very good results when given after surgery."
B) "Don't worry; only about 35% of clients have advanced disease when diagnosed."
C) "Most people are worried before they go to surgery to remove cancer."
D) "You look concerned. Are you worried about having only one kidney?"
Q2) Given the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis, the appropriate nursing diagnosis would be
A) Deficient Knowledge related to decreasing risk factors
B) Fatigue related to increased metabolic demands and anemia
C) Impaired Urinary Elimination related to dysuria, pyuria, and frequency
D) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to fever, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
Q3) The nurse would anticipate that a client with rhabdomyolysis would exhibit
A) brown-tinged urine.
B) gross hematuria.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hypophosphatemia.
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Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4034
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a client with chronic renal failure that the rationale for receiving calcium carbonate is that it
A) binds with phosphorus to eliminate it from the body.
B) binds with potassium to eliminate it from the body.
C) helps prevent constipation.
D) helps prevent ulcer formation.
Q2) A client has been on dialysis for 6 weeks. The family is complaining that instead of feeling grateful at this second chance at life, the client has become irritable with them and seems depressed. The most helpful response by the nurse would be
A) "Depression is very common at this time; it is hard to adapt to the losses s/he feels."
B) "I am surprised that your loved one doesn't feel happier about being alive."
C) "This must be very hard on you for your loved one to be so unappreciative."
D) "We can arrange a psychiatric consultation if you think it will help."
Q3) A client with oliguric ARF would exhibit
A) a BUN/creatinine ratio of 30:1.
B) hematuria.
C) proteinuria.
D) a urine specific gravity of 1.001.
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38
Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035
Sample Questions
Q1) The client who has a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) density of 0.13 ng/ml is considered to have
A) a contaminated specimen.
B) the presence of cancer cells.
C) the need for a follow-up examination.
D) no risk for prostate cancer.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a client to perform testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse is aware that this procedure is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) quaternary prevention.
C) secondary prevention.
D) tertiary prevention.
Q3) The nurse informs a client that the factor that places her at risk for cancer of the cervix is
A) a mother who took diethylstilbestrol when pregnant with the client.
B) having a mother of Mediterranean heritage.
C) riding horseback since the client was a child.
D) using herbal remedies for her fertility problems.
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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is admitted to the hospital for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). To learn more about the client's concerns regarding this surgery and his sexual functioning, the nurse might say
A) "Did you talk to anyone about how this surgery will affect your sex life?"
B) "It is not unusual for a man to worry about how this surgery will affect his sex life. What are some of your concerns?"
C) "This surgery may affect your sex life. Would you like to talk about this?"
D) "You may have heard about some side effects of surgery. Are you worried about how this surgery will affect your sex life?"
Q2) In counseling a couple who want to conceive, the appropriate recommendation that the nurse would make to the man is
A) avoid using recreational drugs and alcohol.
B) have intercourse every 24 hours during ovulation.
C) take hot, soaking baths several times a week.
D) wear jockey shorts instead of boxer type.
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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would assess a client with leiomyoma for a history of A) abnormal vaginal discharge.
B) amenorrhea.
C) excessive uterine bleeding.
D) severe menstrual pain.
Q2) A vaginal mass is found in a client experiencing vaginal discharge, painless vaginal bleeding, and pruritus. The client's statement that would alert the nurse to the possible etiology is
A) "I've been sexually active since I was 17-years-old."
B) "I've been unable to conceive."
C) "My mother took DES when she was pregnant with me."
D) "The IUD is my form of birth control."
Q3) The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing pain on her left side during the entire time of menstrual flow. The nurses assesses the possibility of A) endometriosis.
B) pelvic inflammatory disease.
C) uterine myoma.
D) uterine prolapse.
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Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4038
Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing intervention that would best meet a client's mobility needs for the first 24 hours after modified radical mastectomy is
A) encourage the client to touch the fingers to shoulders, extending arm fully.
B) encourage the client to use the operative arm to brush her hair.
C) maintain complete immobility of the operative arm for the first 24 hours.
D) perform passive range-of-motion exercises with the operative arm.
Q2) The statement made by a client with fibrocystic disease that would indicate to the nurse a correct understanding of the disease is
A) "If I give up coffee, it may get better."
B) "It may get worse after menopause."
C) "Pregnancy usually worsens the symptoms."
D) "This can be treated with daily diuretics."
Q3) A client diagnosed with early-stage breast cancer is to undergo radiation therapy along with a lumpectomy rather than mastectomy. In helping the client make her decision, the nurse would explain to the client that
A) distant recurrence is seen more often with lumpectomy.
B) effects are comparable between the two remedies.
C) radiation therapy is not needed with mastectomy.
D) radiation may cause a significant incidence of secondary malignancies.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for clients with STDs knows that which diseases are reportable in all states? (Select all that are correct.)
A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) Herpes simplex virus (genital)
D) Human papilloma virus
E) Syphilis
Q2) An adolescent female states that she cannot use condoms because her "boyfriend won't let her." Which action by the nurse would best fill the role of the advocate for this client?
A) Give the adolescent pamphlets to share with the boyfriend.
B) Help the teen practice negotiation techniques.
C) Reinforce teaching on the consequences of STDs.
D) Teach the client the proper way to apply a condom.
Q3) The nurse conducting health education about gonorrhea would teach a client that A) gonorrhea is difficult to treat effectively.
B) gram-negative organisms multiply rapidly.
C) the organisms can survive for a long period outside the body.
D) there is a large carrier population because it can be asymptomatic in women.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing a physical examination on an elderly client. The nurse notes the abdomen is rounded and sagging. The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to
A) ask the client about exercise routines.
B) discuss the client's bowel habits.
C) inquire about any abdominal pain.
D) record this as a normal finding.
Q2) Explaining a paracentesis to an anxious client, the nurse states that the purpose is to A) collect fluid accumulations from the pleura.
B) evaluate secretions of the gallbladder.
C) extract fluid sequestered in the pancreas.
D) remove excess fluid from the peritoneum.
Q3) A client is having a physical examination and the nurse notes that the client's hands and feet are large compared to the rest of the body. The nurse should suspect A) acromegaly.
B) congenital disorders.
C) diabetes.
D) muscle deformity.
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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should assess a client with a history of hypothyroidism for A) goiter.
B) Graves' disease.
C) Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
D) myxedema.
Q2) In a client admitted to the clinical unit with a sporadic goiter, the nurse might expect to find that the client
A) frequently travels in foreign countries.
B) has a large intake of aspirin.
C) ingests a large amount of cabbage.
D) lives in the Great Lakes region.
Q3) In making emergency equipment available at the bedside of a client who has undergone subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse would include A) a defibrillator.
B) a tracheostomy set.
C) an electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor.
D) an intra-aortic balloon pump.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4042
Sample Questions
Q1) In a client with addisonian crisis, assessment would indicate that the drug Kayexalate is not effective when the nurses assesses the clinical manifestation of A) decreasing blood pressure.
B) low back pain.
C) pedal edema.
D) rapid or erratic pulse.
Q2) In reviewing laboratory data for a client with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse might expect to see the laboratory abnormalities of (Select all that apply) A) hypercalcemia.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) hyperproteinemia.
D) hypoglycemia.
E) hypokalemia.
F) hyponatremia.
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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4043
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client with DKA receiving insulin to correct hyperglycemia, the nurse knows that the most appropriate route of administration would be
A) intradermal.
B) intramuscular.
C) intravenous.
D) subcutaneous.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client admitted for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) assesses Kussmaul's respirations, which are
A) fast and deep.
B) irregular and gasping.
C) rapid and short.
D) slow and shallow.
Q3) The nurse participating in a screening program for persons at risk for diabetes should have a high index of suspicion for a(n)
A) 44-year-old man who is 6 feet tall and weighs 190 pounds.
B) adolescent whose mother has type 2 diabetes.
C) young man complaining of weight loss and joint pain.
D) young woman who has had two babies weighing 7 pounds each.
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Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine
Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4044
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that the client with gallstones who would be the best candidate for treatment with extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ECSL) is a client with
A) common bile duct stones.
B) liver disease.
C) stones that are 6 cm in diameter.
D) two gallstones.
Q2) Activities the nurse could suggest to a client interested in preventing gallstone formation include which of the following?
A) Drink only bottled water.
B) Increase the amount of protein eaten each day.
C) Limit the amount of calcium in the diet.
D) Maintain a low-fat diet.
Q3) The nursing diagnosis that would serve as the primary guide when providing care to a client with cystic fibrosis (CF) is
A) Constipation
B) Fluid Volume Excess
C) Ineffective Airway Clearance
D) Swallowing, Impaired
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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has ascites and the nursing diagnosis Excess Fluid Volume. The nurse has orders to administer albumin and furosemide (Lasix). Which action by the nurse regarding this order is correct?
A) Call the physician to clarify the order.
B) Give the albumin first and then give the furosemide.
C) Give the furosemide first and then give the albumin.
D) Have the pharmacy mix both drugs in the same IV bag.
Q2) A 15-year-old client admitted with severe jaundice is having diagnostic testing. The nursing diagnosis that would have priority is
A) Activity Intolerance related to fatigue
B) Deficient Knowledge related to diet modification
C) Disturbed Body Image related to yellowing of skin and sclera
D) Impaired Skin Integrity related to jaundice
Q3) The factor in a client's history that the nurse would recognize as placing the client at risk for developing hepatitis A is
A) donating blood frequently.
B) eating fish caught in the pond on the client's farm.
C) working as a nursing assistant in a nursing home.
D) having multiple colorful tattoos.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the client taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine), phenytoin (Dilantin), penicillin, and a multivitamin complains of a sunburn-like rash on the face and arms, the nurse would suspect the cause to be the
A) dilantin.
B) multivitamin.
C) penicillin.
D) tetracycline.
Q2) The nurse observes crusty brown lesions covering a client's back. To assist in identifying a possible cause, the most helpful question the nurse would ask the client is
A) "Have you recently changed laundry detergents?"
B) "How much does the rash itch?"
C) "What did the rash look like when you first noticed it?"
D) "What did you eat last night?"
Q3) The nurse would explain to a client that an "allergy" differs from an "irritation" in that an allergy
A) affects the skin and mucous membranes only.
B) is an immune response.
C) is inconsistent.
D) can be totally desensitized.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client had a nodule removed from his face that was diagnosed as basal cell carcinoma. In teaching this client, the nurse should include information on the need for future
A) chemotherapy.
B) frequent examinations.
C) further assessment.
D) radiation therapy.
Q2) Discharge teaching for a client following rhytidectomy would include the instruction to
A) sleep in the prone position only.
B) practice coughing and deep breathing.
C) maintain a liquid diet for 1 week.
D) exercise the facial muscles daily.
Q3) After blepharoplasty the client complains of itching of the eyes. The nurse would
A) administer prescribed analgesia.
B) apply cold wet dressings.
C) irrigate the eyes with normal saline.
D) notify the physician immediately.
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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4048
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaching a class on burn injury prevention would stress that the leading cause of fire deaths is
A) children playing with matches.
B) cigarettes igniting furniture.
C) kitchen fires igniting other combustibles.
D) space heaters igniting clothing.
Q2) The nurse caring for a burn client would monitor the client's stools for occult blood as assessment for development of
A) bleeding caused by bowel distention.
B) gastric irritation related to smoke.
C) intestinal ileus.
D) stress ulcers.
Q3) The nurse would know that goals for the diagnosis Disabled Family Coping have been met when the family of a burn-injured client
A) asks frequent questions of all the staff.
B) begins to interact with the local burn support group.
C) insists on participating in the client's care.
D) only comes to visit when the client requests.
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Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age-related changes the nurse incorporates into interpreting the physical assessment for vascular disorders include (Select all that apply)
A) blood pressure readings are often inaccurate in older people.
B) dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses may be more difficult to palpate.
C) peripheral vascular disease is common among the elderly.
D) skin changes, such as dependent rubor, are often seen in people over 65.
Q2) A client with venous disease is scheduled for impedance plethysmography. Before the study the nurse would explain that
A) an intravenous dye may be used.
B) the procedure is uncomfortable.
C) venous blood flow quality will be measured.
D) walking on a treadmill is required.
Q3) During a physical exam, the nurse asks the client about medical problems that can impact vascular health, including (Select all that apply)
A) diabetes.
B) heart disease.
C) stroke or TIA.
D) gallbladder disease.
E) prior frostbite.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4050
Sample Questions
Q1) In conducting a health interview with a hypertensive client, the nurse would ask the client about the presence of the typical manifestations of the disorder, which are
A) increasing muscle weakness.
B) nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
C) none unless the hypertension is sustained.
D) peripheral edema and abdominal bloating.
Q2) The nurse providing care to a client being treated for a hypertensive emergency would monitor the blood pressure to ensure that it is slowly reduced during the therapy to prevent
A) myocardial infarction.
B) pulmonary embolism.
C) renal ischemia.
D) vascular collapse.
Q3) For a client who wants to walk for exercise to reduce hypertension, the nurse would offer the guideline to walk
A) at the highest possible speed for 20 minutes, two or three times a week.
B) briskly for 30 to 45 minutes most days of the week.
C) slowly for 1 to 2 hours most days of the week.
D) with variable speeds and on hills at least twice a week.
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reading the admission note for a client who has an arterial leg ulcer would anticipate that the ulcer will be characterized
A) as being surrounded by atrophic tissue.
B) as producing minimal pain.
C) by a deep-red base.
D) by irregular borders.
Q2) The nurse teaches the client with intermittent claudication that the pain results from A) lactic and pyruvic acid buildup.
B) muscle cramps.
C) rapid vasodilation in the legs.
D) venous stasis.
Q3) In teaching the preoperative ambulatory surgery client scheduled for vein ligation and stripping, the nurse would include that immediately after surgery, the client will A) experience pain and swelling in the leg.
B) have legs wrapped with Ace bandages from heel to groin.
C) have the head of the bed put on blocks to elevate it 6 to 9 inches.
D) need to sit in a comfortable chair with legs dependent.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse understands that the basic premise of an ECG is that it shows A) altered electrical activity from pathologic changes.
B) damage to the valves inside the heart.
C) the status of the client's coronary arteries.
D) the approximate time since a myocardial infarction occurred.
Q2) The nurse providing education at a community forum on obesity and heart disease informs the group that "obese" is described as a body mass index greater than A) 15 kg/m<sup>2</sup>.
B) 20 kg/m<sup>2</sup>.
C) 25 kg/m<sup>2</sup>.
D) 30 kg/m<sup>2</sup>.
Q3) In evaluating a client's ECG tracing, the nurse notes three small squares between the upstroke and downstroke of the QRS wave. The nurse would record the QRS interval as
A)0.04 second.
B)0.06 second.
C)0.08 second.
D)0.12 second.
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Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural
Cardiac Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with mitral stenosis tells the nurse that she will not seek treatment for this disorder because she "doesn't really feel that bad." The nurse's best response would be that untreated mitral stenosis can result in
A) creation of small emboli.
B) frequent bouts of pericarditis.
C) potentially fatal myocardial infarcts.
D) pulmonary effusion.
Q2) For a client who has undergone a tissue valve replacement, the most appropriate anticipatory guidance provided by the nurse would be
A) activity should be restricted to reduce stress on the valve.
B) follow-up is important, since most tissue valves eventually need replacement.
C) long periods of standing decreases venous return to the heart.
D) modification of lifestyle can prevent associated dysrhythmias.
Q3) To help relieve the discomfort of a client with pericarditis who is experiencing pain, the nurse would position the client
A) flat in bed.
B) in semi-Fowler's position.
C) prone.
D) sitting upright.
Page 57
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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional
Cardiac Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would clarify to a client considering a MIDCABG that this procedure is less invasive and does not utilize
A) anticoagulants.
B) cardiopulmonary bypass.
C) long-term anesthesia.
D) mammary arteries.
Q2) The nurse explains that in addition to having a PTCA to clear the artery, the client will also have plaque vaporized by the use of
A) anticoagulant therapy.
B) intracoronary stent.
C) laser ablation.
D) transmyocardial revascularization.
Q3) When the a client with left ventricular heart failure complains that she has to get up several times during the night to urinate, the nurse would explain that this bothersome event is
A) a late clinical manifestation of heart failure.
B) an indication that the right ventricle is being affected.
C) caused by an increase in blood flow to the kidneys when lying down.
D) the result of increased secretion of aldosterone at night.
Page 58
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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before the insertion of a temporary pacemaker, the nurse should assess the client's (Select all that apply)
A) anxiety level.
B) coping mechanisms.
C) knowledge level.
D) past experience with temporary pacers.
Q2) When a client in the CCU develops ventricular tachycardia and loses consciousness, the priority action by the nurse would be to immediately administer A) defibrillation.
B) lidocaine.
C) quinidine.
D) verapamil.
Q3) When a client in the cardiac care unit (CCU) suddenly develops paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT) of 200 beats/min and clinical manifestations of severe dizziness, the nurse would help decrease the heart rate by A) administering digitalis intravenously.
B) asking the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
C) increasing the client's oxygen.
D) lowering the head of the bed.
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a client immediately after an MI, the nurse's first priority would be
A) monitoring for dysrhythmias.
B) preventing an embolism.
C) relieving pain.
D) relieving the client's apprehension.
Q2) The nurse would remind a client that the cause of sudden death after myocardial infarction is usually
A) congestive heart failure.
B) dysrhythmias.
C) myocardial ischemia.
D) stroke.
Q3) A client with recurrent angina is being treated with aspirin, 81 mg/day. When the client asks why the aspirin is needed, the best response by the nurse is to say "Aspirin
A) keeps platelets from sticking together and forming a clot."
B) prevents the fever that goes along with angina."
C) treats the pain of angina without dropping your blood pressure."
D) will reduce the inflammation in your heart."
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reviews the results of the arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO<sub>2</sub>) of a client with asthma to obtain information relative to the A) contribution of gas exchange.
B) effectiveness of alveolar ventilation.
C) evidence of atelectasis.
D) presence of respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) The nurse would explain to a client with complaints of wheezing and chest tightness that wheezing occurs when A) air is passing through a narrowed airway.
B) air is trapped in the alveoli.
C) an allergic reaction is taking place.
D) sputum production is increased.
Q3) A client says to the nurse, "It's hard for me to breathe; I feel winded all the time." The nurse would record this subjective feeling on the chart as A) apnea.
B) dyspnea.
C) respiratory fatigue
D) tachypnea.
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Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working with a client who has acute sinusitis plans to teach the client about the routinely-used treatments for this condition, which include (Select all that apply)
A) antibiotics.
B) antihistamines.
C) mucolytic agents.
D) oral alpha-adrenergic vasoconstrictors.
Q2) The nurse would explain to a client that laser surgery to remove laryngeal tumors has the major benefit of A) a usable voice.
B) complete cure.
C) minimal blood loss.
D) reduced edema.
Q3) Which intervention would probably help most when teaching a client to speak again after a laryngectomy?
A) Give the client contact information so speech therapy can continue at home.
B) Help the client and family understand that this is a frustrating experience.
C) Make sure the client has a supply of paper and pens.
D) Obtain several different speaking aids for the client to try at home.
Page 62
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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In reviewing this client's laboratory values, the nurse would not be surprised to see a/an
A) decreased sedimentation rate.
B) elevated RBC count.
C) normochromic anemia.
D) therapeutic INR.
Q2) The nurse working with a depressed client who has COPD realizes that many factors negatively affect the client's quality of life, including (Select all that apply)
A) familial support systems.
B) loss of control over their bodies.
C) reduced activity tolerance.
D) social isolation.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client with asthma would place the client in the A) Fowler position.
B) lithotomy position.
C) side-lying position.
D) supine position.
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Page 63
Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is noncompliant with the continuation phase of treatment for TB. The nurse assigns the diagnosis Ineffective Coping and plans interventions that will
A) allow the client to continue to work from home.
B) increase the client's sense of control.
C) isolate the client from the family until the disease is under control.
D) require the client to report medication use.
Q2) A client is hospitalized for an exacerbation of sarcoidosis. The nurse anticipates an order to administer
A) antipyretics.
B) corticosteroids.
C) high-dose antibiotics.
D) rifampin.
Q3) A client is admitted with flu-like symptoms that developed after hunting rabbits. The nurse anticipates which of the following initial orders for this client?
A) Intubation and mechanical ventilation
B) Mantoux TB testing
C) Rapid infusion of IV fluids
D) Respiratory isolation room
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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with pulmonary edema is receiving intravenous nitroglycerin. The spouse becomes upset and says "Nobody told me my spouse had a heart attack!" The best response by the nurse is to say "The nitroglycerin
A) can prevent a heart attack brought on by the stress to the heart."
B) helps get rid of extra fluid in the body."
C) helps the heart to not work so hard."
D) treats the chest pain that goes along with pulmonary edema."
Q2) As part of the care of a mechanically ventilated client, the nursing action that would be inappropriate is
A) providing oral care every 2 hours.
B) keeping the head of the bed flat while intubated.
C) using aseptic technique for suctioning.
D) washing the hands before and after care.
Q3) The nurse would explain that the use of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) assists the client on mechanical ventilation by
A) gradually increasing the amount of oxygen delivered.
B) increasing the amount of expired carbon dioxide.
C) keeping the alveoli open.
D) using a pressure of 30 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.
Page 65
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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4062
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse performing an assessment of a client with a neuromuscular disorder finds that the left upper eyelid sags and covers a portion of the pupil. The nurse would note this finding on the client record as A) amblyopia.
B) lid eversion.
C) presbyopia.
D) ptosis.
Q2) Before insertion of the otoscope speculum in the ear of an adult, the nurse would pull the pinna
A) down and back.
B) down and forward, and out.
C) up and back, and out.
D) up and forward.
Q3) The nurse would interpret a myopic client's (20/30) vision as the client's ability to
A) read at 30 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
B) read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet.
C) read correctly 30 figures or characters at 20 feet.
D) read 20% of the figures or characters at 30 feet.
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66
Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse evaluating a client's retinal arterioles during a funduscopic examination would record a grade indicating severe hypertensive retinopathy as
A) grade D.
B) grade 1.
C) grade 4.
D) grade 10.
Q2) A client has had vision loss because of glaucoma. The nurse identifies the diagnosis: Anticipatory Grieving related to loss of vision. Which interventions does the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allow the client to verbalize feelings.
B) Assess causative and contributing factors.
C) Examine the need for vocational rehabilitation.
D) Help the client explore avenues of support.
E) Instruct the client on home safety precautions.
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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders
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23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4064
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse preparing written discharge instructions for the day-surgery unit where ear surgery is performed would plan to include which instruction?
A) Avoid heavy lifting and do not engage in sports for 3 weeks after surgery.
B) Leave the cotton ball dressing in the ear until your follow-up appointment.
C) Do not sneeze, blow your nose, or cough for 1 week after surgery.
D) Report any decreased hearing in the operative ear.
Q2) A client with severe hearing loss has the nursing diagnosis: Ineffective Coping related to recent hearing loss. The nurse would assess that goals for this diagnosis have been met when the client (Select all that apply)
A) engages in more activities within the community.
B) is willing to role-play informing others about the hearing loss.
C) self-refers to a university hospital audiology clinic.
D) stores the new hearing aid properly when not in use.
Q3) When a client who underwent vestibular surgery complains of thirst, the nurse would avoid offering this client
A) cola.
B) ginger ale.
C) lemonade.
D) mineral water.
Page 68
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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a lumbar puncture on a client in the lateral recumbent position, the physician remarks that the opening pressure is normal. The nurse would interpret this to mean that the pressure is
A) below 5 mm Hg.
B) between 6 and 13 mm Hg.
C) between 14 and 25 mm Hg.
D) above 25 mm Hg.
Q2) The nurse is having a client sign the informed consent form before having an electromyography (EMG). What is the most appropriate response by the nurse when the client says "The doctor will use little needles to take samples to send to the lab."
A) Agree and have the client sign the form.
B) Ask if the client has any questions before signing.
C) Request the physician re-educate the client.
D) Tear up the consent form because now it is invalid.
Q3) In assessing a client for Babinski's reflex, the nurse would
A) press thumbs under the ball of the client's foot.
B) scrape the sole with a blunt object from heel toward great toe.
C) tap the sole with a percussion hammer at mid-arch.
D) tickle the sole of the client's foot with a fingernail.
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Page 69
Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused
Clients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse closely monitors the intake and output of a comatose client receiving hypertonic tube feedings because such feedings can cause
A) concentration of urine.
B) hypovolemia.
C) renal failure.
D) retention of fluid.
Q2) A nurse could appropriately assess for the doll's eye reflex in a client who is a/an
A) conscious man who has been diagnosed with acute cerebrovascular accident.
B) conscious young woman after an auto accident.
C) unconscious elderly man who has sustained a cervical spine injury.
D) unconscious teenager who has overdosed on drugs.
Q3) The nurse cautions that the OVR test should not be used when assessing a client who exhibits
A) hypotension.
B) irregular respirations.
C) otorrhea.
D) vomiting.
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Page 70
Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse observes for manifestations of typical migraine headaches, which include A) aura, visual disturbances, and nausea.
B) bilateral pain, abrupt onset, and tinnitus.
C) diarrhea, nasal congestion, and eye redness.
D) scalp tenderness, sensation of pressure, and nighttime onset.
Q2) A nurse is reviewing leisure time activities with a client who has epilepsy. An important self-care measure the nurse teaches the client is to avoid A) alcoholic beverages.
B) driving a motor vehicle.
C) hiking and camping.
D) light sports.
Q3) The nurse gives diazepam to a client in status epilepticus to stop the seizure because prolonged seizure activity can cause A) brain injury.
B) cardiac dysrhythmias.
C) muscle and tendon damage.
D) respiratory arrest.
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Page 71
Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse encourages a stroke victim by telling them that following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) caused by thrombosis, the client's condition may improve after several days as a result of
A) decrease of edema in the area.
B) formation of collateral blood circulation.
C) formation of new nervous pathways.
D) reabsorption of the thrombus.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke several years ago. The client has indicators of being malnourished. The nurse would assess the client for which of the following?
A) Ability to throw the head back to propel the food
B) Embarrassment and frustration over trouble eating
C) Inability of the bowel to absorb nutrients
D) Positioning the head with a sideways' tilt
Q3) The assessment the nurse documents that supports the finding of apraxia would be the client's inability to
A) get dressed independently.
B) recognize a pencil.
C) see far objects.
D) understand the spoken word.
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Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous System Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the client who had a cervical spinal fusion this morning complains of a sudden radicular pain, the nurse is
A) alerted because this indicates possible infection.
B) concerned because this indicates possible meningitis.
C) distressed because of the possible need to repeat the surgery.
D) relieved because this indicates a reduction in edema.
Q2) On the second postoperative day following herniated disk surgery, the client says, "My legs are numb. I thought surgery was going to fix my problems." The nurse's best response to explain the continued pain is
A) "Because of the surgery, there is some swelling, which should subside."
B) "This pain is from the anesthesia and will subside by this afternoon."
C) "This pain is positional and will subside if you roll over on your side."
D) "You are probably moving around too much. I will raise the knee gatch."
Q3) The nurse explains that the assessment of the salivary nicotine levels before a spinal fusion surgery is done to reduce the risk of A) cardiac dysrhythmias.
B) nonunion.
C) sudden hypertension.
D) vasospasm.
Page 73
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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with MS is being taught self-care measures to prevent constipation. The nurse would realize goals for teaching had been met when the client states he/she will avoid
A) a high-fiber diet.
B) citrus fruits.
C) laxatives.
D) stool softeners.
Q2) Nursing activities for a client with ALS and family include helping them
A) decide on an acceptable level of care early in the course of the disease.
B) determine if they want to share the diagnosis to allow genetic testing.
C) incorporate nonpharmacologic pain control techniques in the plan of care.
D) plan for extensive rehabilitation after exacerbations.
Q3) To prevent complications caused by a common problem of Huntington's disease, the nurse should
A) institute seizure precautions.
B) pad wheelchairs and beds.
C) start an exercise regimen.
D) teach different communication signals.
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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic
Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emergency department nurse should position the client with cranial injuries
A) in high-Fowler position and knees elevated.
B) side-lying with head of bed elevated 20 degrees.
C) supine with head of bed elevated 30 degrees.
D) supine with the bed completely flat.
Q2) The nurse explains to a family that immediate medical-surgical stabilization after a severe cervical injury would include
A) cervical brace.
B) halo jacket.
C) skeletal traction.
D) spinal fusion.
Q3) Vital signs on a brain-injured client 1 hour ago were T 98.8° F, P 76, BP 124/72 . When the nurse takes a current set of vital signs that are T 98.4° F, P 56, BP 160/54, the nurse should
A) administer prn pain medications.
B) check the client's blood glucose level.
C) lower the head of the bed.
D) prepare to administer mannitol.
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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System
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Q1) A nurse is explaining the purpose of a bone marrow biopsy (BMB) to a client. The information the nurse provides is that a bone marrow biopsy is done to evaluate
A) blood dyscrasias such as aplastic anemia or leukemia.
B) hemoglobin and hematocrit production.
C) specific parts of the white cell differentiation.
D) total numbers and types of different lymphocytes.
Q2) The nurse is monitoring the laboratory test results for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. The nurse is aware that the International Normalized Ratio (INR) for most clinical conditions requiring anticoagulation is
A) less than 1.
B) 1 to 2.
C) 2 to 3.5.
D) 3 to 5.5.
Q3) The nurse should anticipate an elevated hemoglobin level in a
A) 40-year-old woman with congestive heart failure.
B) client who lives in Colorado.
C) client with iron deficiency anemia.
D) dehydrated elderly client being given IV fluids.
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Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase the safety of a blood transfusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take? The nurse should prepare to administer the blood with (Select all that apply)
A) a second nurse to take the vital signs.
B) a tubing set designed for blood products.
C) an IV of D5W.
D) an IV of normal saline.
Q2) The nursing diagnosis that would have priority in the care of a client with agranulocytosis is
A) alteration in bowel elimination: Constipation due to iron overload.
B) Impaired Gas Exchange due to low RBC count.
C) potential for Impaired Skin Integrity due to poor nutritional status.
D) Risk for Infection due to decreased leukocyte count.
Q3) The nurse counsels a client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) that if medication therapy is not effective, the surgical procedure most likely to be used in the treatment is
A) bone marrow transplant.
B) exploratory laparotomy.
C) hepatic shunt.
D) splenectomy.
Page 77
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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction results in A) antibody formation.
B) cell destruction.
C) mast cell production.
D) T-cell stimulation.
Q2) The nurse explains that in step 1 (sensitization) of becoming allergic, the body,
A) develops immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies.
B) forms mast cells.
C) produces basophils.
D) reacts with rhinitis, urticaria, asthma, or gastrointestinal (GI) manifestations.
Q3) The nurse instructs a client diagnosed with urticaria on common self care measures, which include
A) antihistamines.
B) corticosteroids.
C) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
D) warm oatmeal baths.
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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse performing an assessment on a client with fibromyalgia syndrome asks about the most common clinical manifestation, which is A) deformities of the fingers and toes.
B) fatigue, unrelieved by sleep.
C) migratory areas of numbness.
D) varying degrees of paresthesias.
Q2) The nurse clarifies that a client can be diagnosed with RA when, out of the seven criteria, the client exhibits A) two.
B) three.
C) four.
D) five.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) should warn the client that the factor most likely to cause an exacerbation of this disorder is A) a diet high in saturated fats. B) changes in temperature.
C) exposure to the sun.
D) ingestion of aspirin.
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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a client who is HIV positive, the nurse should explain that the virus can be transmitted
A) as soon as manifestations of illness appear.
B) once the diagnosis has been made.
C) only to another susceptible host.
D) to anyone having contact with blood or semen.
Q2) A client with AIDS is experiencing fever with night sweats. A suggestion the nurse could make is to
A) drink all liquids in the morning.
B) keep liquids at the bedside to drink.
C) limit fluid intake after supper.
D) take aspirin if awakened in the night.
Q3) When a client with AIDS experiences pain while swallowing, the nurse could suggest
A) avoiding the use of straws while drinking.
B) drinking acidic juices such as orange juice.
C) eating very cold foods.
D) increasing the intake of well-cooked eggs and noodle dishes.
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Page 80
Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with Hodgkin's disease is staged at III. The nurse plans care knowing this means there
A) are nodes on both sides of the diaphragm with para-aorta involvement.
B) are nodes on both sides of the diaphragm with portal involvement.
C) is involvement of a single lymphoid structure.
D) might be a single node on one side of the diaphragm.
Q2) The nurse reviewing a hematology report of a client with chronic leukemia brings to the attention of the physician a change that may indicate a blast crisis may be occurring, which is
A) a drastic decrease in monocytes.
B) a hemoglobin drop to 9 g/dl.
C) myeloid cell precursors >20%.
D) thrombocytic proliferation.
Q3) When the nurse records a platelet count of 20,000/mm³, the most appropriate nursing action is to
A) encourage iron-rich foods.
B) increase fluid intake.
C) institute bleeding precautions.
D) place the client in protective isolation.
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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring
Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse counseling a potential organ transplant candidate and his family explains that the evaluation process generally takes about
A) 1 to 2 days.
B) 3 to 5 days.
C) 7 to 10 days.
D) 1 to 2 weeks.
Q2) The nurse explains that the law prohibiting the buying and selling of organs is the
A) National Transplant Act.
B) Organ Procurement and Transplant Network.
C) Uniform Anatomical Gift Act.
D) United Network of Organ Sharing.
Q3) Important health promotion measures for the client who has received an organ transplant include regularly-scheduled (select all that apply)
A) dental examinations.
B) mammograms.
C) Papanicolaou (Pap smears).
D) substance abuse screening.
E) vaccinations.
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Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that an advantage of the use of hemoglobin-based oxygen carriers (HBOCs), such as PolyHeme and Hemopure, is that these products
A) decrease the pH of the blood.
B) do not require type and crossmatch.
C) function as packed cells at less cost.
D) increase hemoglobin.
Q2) The nurse assessing acutely ill clients who are at risk for multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) would assess for the usual precipitating manifestation of A) bradycardia.
B) cerebral anoxia.
C) high creatinine level.
D) hypotension.
Q3) During the progressive stage of shock, lactic acidosis occurs, resulting in A) arterial pooling in the periphery.
B) constriction of the microcirculation.
C) increased capillary permeability.
D) movement of fluid into the capillaries.
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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4080
Sample Questions
Q1) A client admitted to the ED exhibits raccoon eyes and Battle's sign. The nurse interprets that these manifestations are compatible with A) basilar skull fracture.
B) extreme fatigue and sensory deprivation.
C) opiate overdose or poisoning.
D) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Q2) A young man is admitted to the ED after sustaining a gunshot wound and dies within a short time. To prepare the body before the family's viewing, the nurse should
A) remove all clothing in order to give it to the family.
B) remove all tubes and instruments used in treatment.
C) wash the body thoroughly.
D) wrap all clothing already removed and place it in a paper bag.
Q3) A client is brought to the ED with a suspected neck injury. The nurse should
A) adjust the table to sit the client upright.
B) apply a hard cervical collar to the nuchal area.
C) check for full range of motion of the head.
D) place a rolled towel under the client's neck.
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