Critical Care Nursing Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Critical Care Nursing focuses on the specialized care of patients with life-threatening illnesses or injuries in intensive care settings. This course examines the assessment, monitoring, and advanced interventions required for critically ill adults, incorporating evidence-based practices and advanced clinical reasoning. Students explore the use of specialized equipment, pharmacological management, and therapeutic procedures while addressing the psychosocial needs of patients and families. Through theoretical instruction and simulated clinical experiences, the course emphasizes rapid decision-making, interdisciplinary teamwork, and ethical issues unique to the critical care environment, preparing nurses to deliver safe and effective care in high-acuity situations.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition by Lilley
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58 Chapters
791 Verified Questions
791 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2416
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47982
Sample Questions
Q1) When giving medications, the nurse will follow the rights of medication administration. The rights include the right documentation, the right reason, the right response, and the patient's right to refuse. Which of these are additional rights?
A) Right drug
B) Right route
C) Right dose
D) Right diagnosis
E) Right time
F) Right patient
Answer: A, B, C, E, F
Q2) The medication order reads, "Give ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg, 30 minutes before beginning chemotherapy to prevent nausea." The nurse notes that the route is missing from the order. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Give the medication intravenously because the patient might vomit.
B) Give the medication orally because the tablets are available in 4-mg doses.
C) Contact the prescriber to clarify the route of the medication ordered.
D) Hold the medication until the prescriber returns to make rounds.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacologic Principles
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is stating that he has a headache and asks the nurse which over-the-counter medication form would work the fastest to help reduce the pain. Which medication form will the nurse suggest?
A) A capsule
B) A tablet
C) An enteric-coated tablet
D) A powder
Answer: D
Q2) A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. Identify how much drug will remain in the body after one half-life. _______ Answer: 400 mg
A drug's half-life is the time required for one half of an administered dose of a drug to be eliminated by the body, or the time it takes for the blood level of a drug to be reduced by 50%. Therefore, one half of 800 mg equals 400 mg.
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Chapter 3: Lifespan Considerations
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to give an injection to a 4-year-old child. Which intervention is age appropriate for this child?
A) Give the injection without any advanced preparation.
B) Give the injection, and then explain the reason for the procedure afterward.
C) Offer a brief, concrete explanation of the procedure at the patient's level and with the parent or caregiver present.
D) Prepare the child in advance with details about the procedure without the parent or caregiver present.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is assessing a newly admitted 83-year-old patient and determines that the patient is experiencing polypharmacy. Which statement most accurately illustrates polypharmacy?
A) The patient is experiencing multiple illnesses.
B) The patient uses one medication for an illness several times per day.
C) The patient uses over-the-counter drugs for an illness.
D) The patient uses multiple medications simultaneously.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing a list of scheduled drugs and notes that Schedule C-I drugs are not on the list. Which is a characteristic of Schedule C-I drugs?
A) No refills are permitted.
B) They may be obtained over-the-counter with a signature.
C) They are available only by written prescription.
D) They are used only with approved protocols.
Q2) Nurses have the ethical responsibility to tell the truth to their patients. What is this principle known as?
A) Justice
B) Veracity
C) Beneficence
D) Autonomy
Q3) For which cultural group must the health care provider respect the value placed on preserving harmony with nature and the belief that disease is a result of ill spirits?
A) Hispanics
B) Asian Americans
C) Native Americans
D) African Americans
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Chapter 5: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing pediatric medication administration, the nurse recognizes that which type of medication error is most common with children?
A) Oral medication administration errors
B) Wrong route errors
C) Incorrect dosage form errors
D) Dosing errors
Q2) During a period of time when the computerized medication order system was down, the prescriber wrote admission orders, and the nurse is transcribing them. The nurse is having difficulty transcribing one order because of the prescriber's handwriting. Which is the best action for the nurse to take at this time?
A) Ask a colleague what the order says.
B) Contact the prescriber to clarify the order.
C) Wait until the prescriber makes rounds again to clarify the order.
D) Ask the patient what medications he takes at home.
Q3) Digoxin is available in 0.125-mg tablet form. Convert this dose to microgram strength. (do not round) _______
Q4) Levothyroxine is available in 75-mcg tablet form. Convert this dose to milligram strength. (do not round) _______
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old patient is on several new medications and expresses worry that she will forget to take her pills. Which action by the nurse would be most helpful in this situation?
A) Teaching effective coping strategies
B) Asking the patient's prescriber to reduce the number of drugs prescribed
C) Assuring the patient that she will not forget once she is accustomed to the routine
D) Assisting the patient with obtaining and learning to use a calendar or pill container
Q2) The nurse is setting up a teaching session with an 85-year-old patient who will be going home on anticoagulant therapy. Which educational strategy would reflect consideration of the age-related changes that may exist with this patient?
A) Show a video about anticoagulation therapy.
B) Present all the information in one session just before discharge.
C) Give the patient pamphlets about the medications to read at home.
D) Develop large-print handouts that reflect the verbal information presented.
Q3) A patient is to receive prednisone 7.5 mg PO daily. The tablets are available in a 2.5-mg strength. Identify how many tablets will the patient receive. _______
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Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47988
Sample Questions
Q1) During an assessment, the patient tells the nurse that he eats large amounts of garlic for its cardiovascular benefits. Which drug or drug class, if taken, would have a potential interaction with the garlic?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Insulin
C) Antilipemic drugs
D) Sedatives
Q2) A patient wants to take the herb gingko to help his memory. The nurse reviews his current medication list and would be concerned about potential interactions if he is taking a medication from which class of drugs?
A) Digitalis
B) Antiplatelet drugs
C) Sedatives
D) Immunosuppressants
Q3) A patient with a PEG tube is to receive ferrous sulfate, 65 mg per the tube, daily. The medication is available as an elixir, 220 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing gene therapy in a continuing education class. Which is the best definition of eugenics?
A) The use of gene therapy to prevent disease
B) The development of new drugs based on gene therapy
C) Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others
D) The determination of genetic factors that influence a person's response to medications
Q2) The nurse is preparing a class on gene therapy for a group of students. Which statements about gene therapy are true?
A) The FDA must review and approve all human clinical genetic trials.
B) Gene therapy may involve creating new genes within a human.
C) Gene therapy may involve replacing a mutated gene with a healthy copy of the gene.
D) Some trials involve introducing a new gene into the body to help fight disease.
E) Gene therapy may include inactivating a mutated gene that is not functioning properly.
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Chapter 9: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is measuring 4 mL of a liquid cough elixir for a child. Which method is most appropriate?
A) Using a teaspoon to measure and administer
B) Holding the medication cup at eye level and filling it to the desired level
C) Withdrawing the elixir from the container using a syringe without a needle attached
D) Withdrawing the elixir from the container using a calibrated oral syringe
Q2) When adding medications to a bag of intravenous (IV) fluid, the nurse will use which method to mix the solution?
A) Shaking the bag or bottle vigorously
B) Turning the bag or bottle gently from side to side
C) Inverting the bag or bottle one time after injecting the medication
D) Allowing the IV solution to stand for 10 minutes to enhance even distribution of medication
Q3) When administering nasal spray, which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "You will need to blow your nose before I give this medication."
B) "You will need to blow your nose after I give this medication."
C) "When I give this medication, you will need to hold your breath."
D) "You need to sit up for 5 minutes after you receive the nasal spray."
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11
Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient for contraindications to drug therapy with acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which patient should not receive acetaminophen?
A) A patient with a fever of 101° F (38.3° C)
B) A patient who is complaining of a mild headache
C) A patient with a history of liver disease
D) A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease
Q2) A patient was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer last month, and has complained of a dull ache in the abdomen for the past 4 months. This pain has been gradually increasing, and the pain relievers taken at home are no longer effective. What type of pain is the patient experiencing?
A) Acute pain
B) Chronic pain
C) Somatic pain
D) Neuropathic pain
Q3) A patient is to receive methadone (Dolophine) 2.5 mg intramuscularly (IM) now. The medication is available in a concentration of 10 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of methadone will be drawn up for this dose. ______
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Page 12
Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47992
Sample Questions
Q1) During a fishing trip, a patient pierced his finger with a large fishhook. He is now in the emergency department to have it removed. The nurse anticipates that which type of anesthesia will be used for this procedure?
A) No anesthesia
B) Topical benzocaine spray on the area
C) Topical prilocaine/lidocaine (EMLA) cream around the site
D) Infiltration of the puncture wound with lidocaine
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is on a ventilator for respiratory arrest. Which parenteral anesthetic is also used for sedation during mechanical ventilation in ICU settings?
A) Ketamine
B) Midazolam (Versed)
C) Propofol (Diprivan)
D) Sevoflurane (Ultane)
Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose.
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13
Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has experienced insomnia for months, and the physician has prescribed a medication to help with this problem. The nurse expects which drug to be used for long-term treatment of insomnia?
A) Secobarbital (Seconal), a barbiturate
B) Diazepam (Valium), a benzodiazepine
C) Midazolam (Versed), a benzodiazepine
D) Eszopiclone (Lunesta), a nonbenzodiazepine sleep aid
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a barbiturate. Which conditions or disorders would be a contraindication to the use of these drugs?
A) Gout
B) Pregnancy
C) Epilepsy
D) Severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E) Severe liver disease
F) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) A patient is about to receive pentobarbital (Nembutal) 100 mg IV as preoperative sedation. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive for this dose?
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the use of central nervous system stimulants. Which of these are indications for this class of drugs?
A) Narcolepsy
B) Depression
C) Panic attacks
D) Neonatal apnea
E) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
F) Appetite suppression
Q2) A 6-year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be "in his system" when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse's appropriate evaluation of the mother's actions?
A) She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately.
B) The medication should not be taken until he is at school.
C) The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption.
D) The medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who has been taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for 2 months. Which effects would indicate that autoinduction has started to occur?
A) The drug levels for carbamazepine are higher than expected.
B) The drug levels for carbamazepine are lower than expected.
C) The patient is experiencing fewer seizures.
D) The patient is experiencing toxic effects from the drug.
Q2) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has issued a warning for users of antiepileptic drugs. Based on this report, the nurse will monitor for which potential problems with this class of drugs?
A) Increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors
B) Signs of bone marrow depression
C) Indications of drug addiction and dependency
D) Increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as strokes
Q3) A 9-year-old child will be receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) suspension, 200 mg twice daily. The medication is available in a strength of 100 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give to the patient for each dose. _______
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the medication history of a patient with a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease, which conditions are contraindications for the patient who will be taking carbidopa-levodopa?
A) Angle-closure glaucoma
B) History of malignant melanoma
C) Hypertension
D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
E) Concurrent use of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Q2) Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) is prescribed for a patient with Parkinson's disease. The nurse informs the patient that which common adverse effects can occur with this medication?
A) Drowsiness, headache, weight loss
B) Dizziness, insomnia, nausea
C) Peripheral edema, fatigue, syncope
D) Heart palpitations, hypotension, urinary retention
Q3) The prescriber writes this order, "Give amantadine (Symmetrel) 100 mg per PEG tube twice a day." The medication is available in a liquid form with a concentration 50 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give with each dose. _______
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Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) phenelzine (Nardil) for 6 months. The patient wants to go to a party and asks the nurse, "Will just one beer be a problem?" Which advice from the nurse is correct?
A) "You can drink beer as long as you have a designated driver."
B) "Now that you've been on the drug for 6 months, there will be no further dietary restrictions."
C) "If you begin to experience a throbbing headache, rapid pulse, or nausea, you'll need to stop drinking."
D) "You need to avoid all foods that contain tyramine, including beer, while taking this medication."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the food choices of a patient who is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which food choice would indicate the need for additional teaching?
A) Grapefruit juice
B) Fried eggs over-easy
C) Pepperoni pizza
D) Pancakes and maple syrup
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Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 38-year-old male patient stopped smoking 6 months ago. He tells the nurse that he still feels strong cigarette cravings and wonders if he is ever going to feel "normal" again. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It's possible that these cravings will never stop."
B) "These cravings may persist for several months."
C) "The cravings tell us that you are still using nicotine."
D) "The cravings show that you are about to experience nicotine withdrawal."
Q2) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is experiencing severe ethanol withdrawal. Which are signs and symptoms of severe ethanol withdrawal?
A) Agitation
B) Drowsiness
C) Tremors
D) Systolic blood pressure higher than 200 mm Hg
E) Temperature over 100° F (37.7° C)
F) Pulse rate 150 beats/min
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an adrenergic drug stimulates beta<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic receptors, the result is an increased force of contraction, which is known as what type of effect?
A) Positive inotropic
B) Antiadrenergic
C) Negative chronotropic
D) Positive dromotropic
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer dopamine. Which is the correct technique for administering dopamine?
A) Orally
B) Intravenous (IV) push injection
C) Intermittent IV infusions (IV piggyback)
D) Continuous IV infusion with an infusion pump
Q3) A hospitalized patient is experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction to a dose of intravenous penicillin. Which drug will the nurse expect to use to treat this condition?
A) Ephedra
B) Epinephrine
C) Phenylephrine
D) Pseudoephedrine
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20
Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The teaching for a patient who is taking tamsulosin (Flomax) to reduce urinary obstruction due to benign prostatic hyperplasia will include which of these?
A) Fluids need to be restricted while on this medication.
B) Take the medication with breakfast to promote the maximum effects of the drug.
C) Get up slowly from a sitting or lying position.
D) Blood pressure must be monitored because the medication may cause hypertension.
Q2) A patient has a new prescription for tamsulosin (Flomax) as treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia. The nurse is checking his current medication list and will contact the prescriber regarding a potential interaction if the patient is also taking which drug?
A) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism
B) Sildenafil (Viagra), an erectile dysfunction medication
C) Omeprazole (Prilosec), a proton pump inhibitor
D) Low-dose aspirin for stroke prevention
Q3) A patient has an order for carvedilol (Coreg) 9.375 mg twice a day PO. The tablets are 3.125 mg each. Identify how many tablets will the nurse administer per dose.
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Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cholinergic drug is prescribed for a patient with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. What is important to include in the teaching?
A) Give daytime doses close together for maximal therapeutic effect.
B) Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal distress.
C) Take the medication 30 minutes before eating to improve swallowing and chewing.
D) Take the medication only if difficulty swallowing occurs during a meal.
Q2) The nurse notes in a patient's medication history that the patient is taking pilocarpine (Pilocar). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) Anticholinergic poisoning
B) Glaucoma
C) Bladder atony
D) Myasthenia gravis
Q3) A patient is receiving memantine (Namenda) 10 mg PO daily. The patient is unable to swallow pills, so an oral solution that contains 2 mg/mL is ordered. Identify how much will the patient receive per dose. _______
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Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing a patient's medication history and notes that the patient is taking the cholinergic blocker tolterodine (Detrol). Which is an indication for this medication?
A) Irritable bowel disease
B) Induction of mydriasis
C) Urge incontinence
D) Reduction of secretions preoperatively
Q2) A patient is to receive glycopyrrolate (Robinul) 4 mcg/kg IM 30 minutes before a procedure. The patient weighs 110 pounds; the medication is available in a strength of 0.2 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication the nurse will draw up into the syringe. _______
Q3) In preparation for eye surgery, the nurse monitors for which desired drug effect in a patient who is receiving a cholinergic-blocking eyedrop medication?
A) Miosis
B) Mydriasis
C) Increased intraocular fluid production
D) Enhanced tear production
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Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which is a potential human needs statement for the patient taking antihypertensive medications?
A) Altered GI elimination (diarrhea)
B) Altered sexual function
C) Altered urinary elimination (urge incontinence)
D) Need for effective perception
Q2) A patient's blood pressure elevates to 270/150 mm Hg, and a hypertensive emergency is obvious. He is transferred to the intensive care unit and started on a sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) drip to be titrated per his response. With this medication, the nurse knows that the maximum dose of this drug should be infused for how long?
A) 10 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 24 hours
Q3) A patient is to receive enalapril (Vasotec) 5 mg IV every 6 hours. Each dose is given over 5 minutes. The medication is available in an injectable form, 1.25 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______
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Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department with severe chest pain. The patient reports that the pain has been occurring off and on for a week now. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for cautious use of nitrates and nitrites?
A) Blood pressure of 88/62 mm Hg
B) Apical pulse rate of 110 beats/min
C) History of renal disease
D) History of a myocardial infarction 2 years ago
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with angina and will be given a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. When teaching the patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse will include which instruction?
A) Take up to 5 doses at 15-minute intervals for an angina attack.
B) If the tablet does not dissolve quickly, chew the tablet for maximal effect.
C) If the chest pain is not relieved after one tablet, call 911 immediately.
D) Wait 1 minute between doses of sublingual tablets, up to 3 doses.
Q3) A patient will be receiving metoprolol (Lopressor) 5 mg IV push. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how much medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______
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Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the intensive care unit and receiving an infusion of milrinone (Primacor) for severe heart failure. The prescriber has written an order for an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix). How will the nurse give this drug?
A) Infuse the drug into the same intravenous line as the milrinone.
B) Stop the milrinone, flush the line, and then administer the furosemide.
C) Administer the furosemide in a separate intravenous line.
D) Notify the prescriber that the furosemide cannot be given at this time.
Q2) The medication order for a 5-year-old child reads, "Give digoxin elixir, 15 mcg/kg, PO now." Convert the 15 micrograms to milligrams. _______
Q3) The nurse administering the phosphodiesterase inhibitor milrinone (Primacor) recognizes that this drug will have a positive inotropic effect. Which result reflects this effect?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Increased blood vessel dilation
C) Increased force of cardiac contractions
D) Increased conduction of electrical impulses across the heart
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Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When starting a patient on antidysrhythmic therapy, the nurse will remember that which problem is a potential adverse effect of any antidysrhythmic drug?
A) Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Heart failure
D) Dysrhythmias
Q2) The nurse will monitor the patient who has been taking dronedarone (Multaq) for which adverse effect?
A) Decreased white blood cell count
B) Liver toxicity
C) Dehydration
D) Peripheral edema
Q3) A patient has been started on therapy of a continuous infusion of lidocaine after receiving a loading dose of the drug. The nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effect?
A) Drowsiness
B) Nystagmus
C) Dry mouth
D) Convulsions
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Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving heparin therapy as part of the treatment for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug's effectiveness?
A) Bleeding times
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C) Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR)
D) Vitamin K levels
Q2) A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A) Vitamin E
B) Vitamin K
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Potassium chloride
Q3) When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse will follow which procedure?
A) Aspirating the syringe before injecting the medication
B) Massaging the site after injection
C) Use the same area for each injection.
D) Using a 1/2- to 5/8-inch 25- to 27-gauge needle
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Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48008
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is conducting a class about antilipemic drugs. The antilipemic drug ezetimibe (Zetia) works by which mechanism?
A) Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase
B) Preventing resorption of bile acids from the small intestines
C) Activating lipase, which breaks down cholesterol
D) Inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine
Q2) A patient is concerned about the adverse effects of the fibric acid derivative she is taking to lower her cholesterol level. Which is an adverse effect of this class of medication?
A) Constipation
B) Diarrhea
C) Joint pain
D) Dry mouth
Q3) While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem?
A) Neutropenia
B) Pulmonary problems
C) Vitamin C deficiency
D) Liver dysfunction
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48009
Sample Questions
Q1) The order for a child reads, "Give furosemide (Lasix) 2 mg/kg IV STAT." The child weighs 33 pounds. Identify how many milligrams the child will receive for this dose.
Q2) When assessing a patient who is receiving a loop diuretic, the nurse looks for the manifestations of potassium deficiency, which would include what symptoms?
A) Dyspnea
B) Constipation
C) Tinnitus
D) Muscle weakness
E) Anorexia
F) Lethargy
Q3) When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, which of these assessment measures would best reflect the patient's fluid volume status?
A) Blood pressure and pulse
B) Serum potassium and sodium levels
C) Intake, output, and daily weight
D) Measurements of abdominal girth and calf circumference
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Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48010
Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing the health history of a patient, the nurse will note that a potential contraindication to potassium supplements exists if the patient has which problem?
A) Burns
B) Diarrhea
C) Renal disease
D) Cardiac tachydysrhythmias
Q2) A patient is receiving an infusion of fresh frozen plasma. Based on this order, the nurse interprets that this patient has which condition?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Anemia
C) Coagulation disorder
D) Previous transfusion reaction
Q3) When monitoring a patient for signs of hypokalemia, the nurse looks for what early sign?
A) Seizures
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Diarrhea
D) Muscle weakness
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48011
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive vasopressin (Pitressin) 5 units subQ twice a day. The medication is available in a vial that contains 20 units/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. (record answer using two decimal places) _______
Q2) When a patient is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin), the nurse will monitor for which therapeutic response?
A) Improved appetite
B) Increased serum albumin levels
C) Increased serum potassium levels
D) Decreased urinary output
Q3) A patient's medication order indicates that he is to receive a dose of cosyntropin (Cortrosyn). The nurse is aware that this drug is used to diagnose which condition?
A) Adrenocortical insufficiency
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Pituitary dwarfism
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48012
Sample Questions
Q1) A 19-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid). After 6 months, she calls the nurse to say that she feels better and wants to stop the medication. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "You can stop the medication if your symptoms have improved."
B) "You need to stay on the medication for at least 1 year before a decision about stopping it can be made."
C) "You need to stay on this medication until you become pregnant."
D) "Medication therapy for hypothyroidism is usually lifelong, and you should not stop taking the medication."
Q2) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) has been prescribed for a patient with hypothyroidism. The nurse reviews the patient's current medications for potential interactions. Which of these drugs or drug classes interact with levothyroxine?
A) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
B) Estrogens
C) Beta blockers
D) Warfarin (Coumadin)
E) Penicillins
F) Iron supplements
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48013
Sample Questions
Q1) When monitoring a patient's response to oral antidiabetic drugs, the nurse knows that which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic response?
A) Random blood glucose level 180 mg/dL
B) Blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL after meals
C) Fasting blood glucose level of 92 mg/dL
D) Evening blood glucose level below 80 mg/dL
Q2) A patient will be taking U-500 insulin. The nurse is reviewing the use of this drug. Which of these statements are true?
A) U-500 insulin is 5 times stronger than U-100 insulin.
B) U-500 insulin syringes must be used when giving U-500 insulin.
C) U-500 syringes can deliver 500 units of insulin.
D) Each line on a U-500 syringe measures 5 units of U-500 insulin.
E) U-500 insulin delivers a smaller dose of insulin in a single injection.
Q3) The nurse is teaching a review class to nurses about diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Patients with type 2 diabetes will never need insulin."
B) "Oral antidiabetic drugs are safe for use during pregnancy."
C) "Pediatric patients cannot take insulin."
D) "Insulin therapy is possible during pregnancy if managed carefully."
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48014
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and will be receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 30 mg intravenously every 6 hours. The medication is available in 40 mg/mL vials. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose. _______
Q2) A patient will be starting therapy with a corticosteroid. The nurse reviews the prescriber's orders and notes that an interaction may occur if the corticosteroid is taken with which of these drug classes?
A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B) Antibiotics
C) Opioid analgesics
D) Antidepressants
Q3) A patient is taking fludrocortisone (Florinef) for Addison's disease, and his wife is concerned about all of the problems that may occur with this therapy. When teaching them about therapy with this drug, the nurse will include which information?
A) It may cause severe postural hypotension.
B) It needs to be taken with food or milk to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
C) The medication needs to be stopped immediately if nausea or vomiting occurs.
D) Weight gain of 5 pounds or more in 1 week is an expected adverse effect.
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35
Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48015
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being treated for secondary amenorrhea. The nurse expects which drug to be used to treat this problem?
A) Methylergonovine (Methergine)
B) Estradiol transdermal (Estraderm)
C) Raloxifene (Evista)
D) Medroxyprogesterone (Provera)
Q2) The nurse is administering oxytocin (Pitocin). Which situation is an indication for the use of oxytocin?
A) Decreased fetal heart rate and movements
B) Stimulation of contractions during labor
C) Cervical ripening near term in pregnant patients
D) To reverse premature onset of labor
Q3) An older adult female patient is receiving the progestin drug megestrol (Megace). Which is the most likely reason megestrol is ordered for this patient?
A) Migraine headaches
B) Osteoporosis
C) Appetite stimulant
D) Reduction of hot flashes
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Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48016
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the medication list of a patient who will be starting androgen therapy. Which drug classes, if taken with androgens, may have an interaction with them?
A) Oral anticoagulants
B) Nitrates
C) Beta blockers
D) Proton pump inhibitors
Q2) The nurse notes in a patient's medication history that the patient is taking the synthetic androgen danazol (Danocrine). Indications for danazol include which conditions?
A) Endometriosis
B) Decreased sexual libido
C) Postpartum breast engorgement
D) Fibrocystic breast disease in women
E) Hereditary angioedema
F) Metastatic breast cancer
Q3) A patient will be receiving testosterone cypionate (Depo-Testosterone) 400 mg intramuscularly every 4 weeks. The medication is available in a 200-mg/mL strength. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for each injection. _______
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Page 37
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48017
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that she wants to start taking the herbal product goldenseal to improve her health. The nurse will assess for which potential cautions or contraindications to goldenseal?
A) Taking a proton-pump inhibitor
B) Nasal congestion
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Taking an antihypertensive drug
E) Sinus infections
F) Pregnancy
Q2) A patient with a tracheostomy has difficulty removing excessive, thick mucus from the respiratory tract. The nurse expects that which drug will be ordered to aid in the removal of mucus?
A) Guaifenesin (Mucinex)
B) Benzonatate (Tessalon Perles)
C) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D) Dextromethorphan (Robitussin DM)
Q3) A child will be receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 5 mg/kg/day, in divided doses, every 6 hours. The child weighs 80 pounds. Identify how many milligrams of medication will the child receive with each dose. (record answer using one decimal place)
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48018
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in an urgent care center with an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects that which medication will be used for initial treatment?
A) An anticholinergic such as ipratropium
B) A short-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonist such as albuterol
C) A long-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonist such as salmeterol
D) A corticosteroid such as fluticasone
Q2) The prescriber has changed the patient's medication regimen to include the leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) montelukast (Singulair) to treat asthma. The nurse will emphasize which point about this medication?
A) The proper technique for inhalation must be followed.
B) The patient needs to keep it close by at all times to treat acute asthma attacks.
C) It needs to be taken every day on a continuous schedule, even if symptoms improve.
D) When the asthma symptoms improve, the dosage schedule can be tapered and eventually discontinued.
Q3) A patient will be receiving oral theophylline (Theo-Dur), 600 mg/day, in three divided doses. Identify how many milligrams the patient will receive per dose. _______
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Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48019
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing teaching to a patient taking an oral tetracycline antibiotic. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Avoid direct sunlight and tanning beds while on this medication."
B) "Milk and cheese products result in increased levels of tetracycline."
C) "Antacids taken with the medication help to reduce gastrointestinal distress."
D) "Take the medication until you are feeling better."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient who will be taking a sulfonamide antibiotic. During sulfonamide therapy, a significant drug interaction may occur with which of these drugs or drug classes?
A) Opioids
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Sulfonylureas
D) Antihistamines
E) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
F) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q3) A patient will be receiving penicillin G potassium, 12 million units daily in divided doses every 4 hours IVPB. Identify how many units the patient will receive for each dose each day. _______
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Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48020
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving aminoglycoside therapy and will be receiving a beta-lactam antibiotic as well. The patient asks why two antibiotics have been ordered. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "The combined effect of both antibiotics is greater than each of them alone."
B) "One antibiotic is not strong enough to fight the infection."
C) "We have not yet isolated the bacteria, so the two antibiotics are given to cover a wide range of microorganisms."
D) "We can give a reduced amount of each one if we give them together."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a patient who will be receiving aminoglycoside therapy. Which other medication or medication class, if ordered, would be a potential interaction concern?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Phenytoin
C) Proton pump inhibitors
D) Loop diuretics
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Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48021
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir. The nurse will provide which teaching for this patient?
A) "Be sure to wash your hands thoroughly before and after applying this medicine."
B) "Apply this ointment until the lesion stops hurting."
C) "Use a clean glove when applying this ointment."
D) "If your partner develops these lesions, then your partner can also use the medication."
E) "You will need to avoid touching the area around your eyes."
F) "You will have to practice abstinence when these lesions are active."
Q2) The nurse is administering intravenous acyclovir (Zovirax) to a patient with a viral infection. Which administration technique is correct?
A) Infuse intravenous acyclovir slowly, over at least 1 hour.
B) Infuse intravenous acyclovir by rapid bolus.
C) Refrigerate intravenous acyclovir.
D) Restrict oral fluids during intravenous acyclovir therapy.
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42
Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48022
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is counseling a woman who will be starting rifampin (Rifadin) as part of antitubercular therapy. The patient is currently taking oral contraceptives. Which statement is true regarding rifampin therapy for this patient?
A) Women have a high risk for thrombophlebitis while on this drug.
B) A higher dose of rifampin will be necessary because of the contraceptive.
C) Oral contraceptives are less effective while the patient is taking rifampin.
D) The incidence of adverse effects is greater if the two drugs are taken together.
Q2) The nurse is discussing adverse effects of antitubercular drugs with a patient who has active tuberculosis. Which potential adverse effect of antitubercular drug therapy should the patient report to the prescriber?
A) Gastrointestinal upset
B) Headache and nervousness
C) Reddish-orange urine and stool
D) Numbness and tingling of extremities
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Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48023
Sample Questions
Q1) During therapy with amphotericin B, the nurse will monitor the patient for known adverse effects that would be reflected by which laboratory result?
A) Serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L
B) Serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L
C) White blood cell count of 7000 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) Platelet count of 300,000/microliter
Q2) A patient is infected by invasive aspergillosis, and the medical history reveals that the patient has not been able to tolerate several antifungal drugs. The nurse anticipates an order for which medication to treat this infection?
A) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
B) Micafungin (Mycamine)
C) Caspofungin (Cancidas)
D) Nystatin (Mycostatin)
Q3) A patient will be taking fluconazole (Diflucan) 100 mg/day PO for 2 weeks. The patient is unable to swallow tablets, so an oral suspension that contains 10 mg/mL is available. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose.
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Page 44
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48024
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an infestation with flukes (trematodes). The nurse anticipates the use of which drug to treat this infestation?
A) Praziquantel (Biltricide)
B) Pyrantel (Pin-X)
C) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
D) Ivermectin (Stromectol)
Q2) A woman is traveling to a country where she will be at high risk for malarial infection. What will the nurse teach her regarding prophylactic therapy with hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)?
A) Hydroxychloroquine is better absorbed and has fewer adverse effects if taken on an empty stomach.
B) The drug is started 3 weeks before exposure but can be discontinued once she leaves the area.
C) The medication is taken only when she observes mosquito bites because it can have toxic effects if taken unnecessarily.
D) The drug is usually started 1 to 2 weeks before traveling to endemic areas and is continued for 4 weeks after leaving the area.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Anti-Inflammatory and Antigout Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48025
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug indomethacin (Indocin) as treatment for pericarditis. The nurse will teach the patient to watch for which adverse effect?
A) Tachycardia
B) Nervousness
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Dizziness
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking colchicine for the treatment of gout. Which instruction will the nurse include during the teaching session?
A) "Fluids should be restricted while on colchicine therapy."
B) "Take colchicine with meals."
C) "The drug will be discontinued when symptoms are reduced."
D) "Call your doctor if you have increased joint pain or blood in the urine."
Q3) There is a new order for Naproxen (Naprosyn) 250 mg PO twice daily. The drug is available as an oral suspension that contains 125 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for 1 dose of this medication. _______
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and
Cell Cycle-Specific Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48026
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching about infection-prevention measures with a patient who is receiving antineoplastic drug therapy. During a Teach-Back session, which statement by the patient indicates the need for further education?
A) "I will avoid those who have recently had a vaccination."
B) "I will eat only fresh fruits and raw vegetables."
C) "I will report a sore throat, cough, or low-grade temperature."
D) "It is important for both my family and me to practice good handwashing."
Q2) During treatment of a patient who has brain cancer, the nurse hears the oncologist mention that the patient has reached the "nadir." The nurse knows that this term means which of these?
A) The lowest level of neutrophils reached during therapy.
B) The highest level of neutrophils reached during therapy.
C) The point at which the adverse effects of chemotherapy will stop.
D) The point at which the cytotoxic action against cancer cells is the highest.
Q3) A patient is to receive a daily dose of fludarabine (Fludara), 25 mg/m²/day for 5 consecutive days. Each dose is diluted in a 125-mL bag of normal saline and is to infuse over 30 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate in milliliters per hour?
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Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell
Cyclenonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 12 Verified Questions 12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48027
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is receiving cisplatin (Platinol-AQ) chemotherapy, the nurse will monitor for which adverse effects?
A) Tinnitus
B) Heart failure
C) Hearing loss
D) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
E) Numbness or tingling in the extremities
F) Elevated glucose and ketone levels
Q2) A patient is receiving a third session of chemotherapy with daunorubicin (Cerubidine). The nurse will assess the patient for which signs of a potential severe toxic effect of this drug?
A) Tinnitus and hearing loss
B) Numbness and tingling in the fingers
C) A weight gain of 2 pounds or more in 24 hours
D) Decreased blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
Q3) A patient will be receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone), 12 mg/m²/day every 3 weeks, as part of treatment for prostate cancer. Each dose is mixed into a 50-mL bag of D W and needs to infuse over 15 minutes. The infusion pump delivers the dose at milliliters per hour. Identify the nurse will set the pump to infuse at what rate. _______
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Biologic Responsemodifying and Antirheumatic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48028
Sample Questions
Q1) When monitoring a patient's response to interferon therapy, the nurse notes that the major dose-limiting factor for interferon therapy is which condition?
A) Diarrhea
B) Fatigue
C) Anxiety
D) Nausea and vomiting
Q2) A patient will be receiving aldesleukin [IL-2] (Proleukin), 600,000 IU/kg every 8 hours for 14 doses. The patient weighs 220 pounds. Identify how many IU of medication this patient will receive per dose. _______
Q3) During therapy with hematopoietic drugs, the nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effects?
A) Hypotension
B) Edema
C) Diarrhea
D) Black, tarry stools
E) Nausea and vomiting
F) Headache
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48029
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is about to undergo a kidney transplant. She will be given an immunosuppressant drug before, during, and after surgery to minimize organ rejection. During the preoperative teaching session, which information will the nurse include about the medication therapy?
A) Several days before the surgery, the medication will be administered orally.
B) The oral doses need to be taken 1 hour before meals to maximize absorption.
C) Mix the oral liquid with juice in a disposable Styrofoam cup just before administration.
D) Intramuscular injections of the medication will be needed for several days preceding surgery.
Q2) A patient has an order for cyclosporine (Sandimmune). The nurse finds that cyclosporine-modified product (Neoral) is available in the automated medication cabinet. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Hold the dose until the prescriber makes rounds.
B) Give the cyclosporine-modified drug.
C) Double-check the order, and then give the cyclosporine-modified drug.
D) Notify the pharmacy to obtain the Sandimmune form of the drug.
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Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48030
Sample Questions
Q1) A sanitation worker has experienced a needle stick by a contaminated needle that was placed in a trash can. The employee health nurse expects that which drug will be used to provide passive immunity to hepatitis B infection?
A) Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
B) Varicella virus vaccine (Varivax)
C) Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (BayHep B)
D) Hepatitis B virus vaccine (inactivated) (Recombivax HB)
Q2) A nurse is working in an immunization clinic. A new colleague asks, "When is the first dose of the diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DtaP, Daptacel) given?" The nurse knows that this series is started at what age?
A) At birth
B) 6 weeks
C) 3 months
D) 1 year
Q3) A health care worker will be receiving hepatitis B immunoglobulin (BayHep B), 0.06 mL/kg IM now and repeated in 30 days as part of hepatitis B prophylaxis after a needle stick accident. The patient weighs 264 pounds. Identify how many milliliters the patient will receive for each dose. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48031
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is asking advice about which over-the-counter antacid is considered the most safe to use for heartburn. The nurse explains that the reason that calcium antacids are not used as frequently as other antacids is for which of these reasons?
A) Their use may result in kidney stones.
B) They cause decreased gastric acid production.
C) They cause severe diarrhea.
D) Their use may result in fluid retention and edema.
Q2) A patient will be receiving pantoprazole (Protonix), 20 mg IV daily every morning. The medication, once reconstituted, has a strength of 40 mg/10 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. _______
Q3) When reviewing the health history of a patient who will be receiving antacids, the nurse recalls that antacids containing magnesium need to be used cautiously in patients with which condition?
A) Peptic ulcer disease
B) Renal failure
C) Hypertension
D) Heart failure
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48032
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the uses of oral laxatives. Which conditions are general contraindications to or cautions about the use of oral laxatives?
A) Irritable bowel syndrome
B) Undiagnosed abdominal pain
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Fecal impaction
E) Ingestion of toxic substances
F) Acute surgical abdomen
Q2) A laxative has been ordered for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history and would be concerned if which condition is present?
A) High ammonia levels due to liver failure
B) Diverticulosis
C) Abdominal pain of unknown origin
D) Chronic constipation
Q3) A 10-year-old child will be receiving docusate sodium (Colace), 120 mg/day PO, divided into 3 doses. Identify how many milligrams will the child receive per dose.
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53
Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48033
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing severe morning sickness. She asks, "I've heard that ginger tablets may be a natural way to ease the nausea and vomiting. Is it okay to try them?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "They are a safe and natural remedy for nausea when you are pregnant."
B) "Go ahead and try them, but stop taking them once the nausea is relieved."
C) "Some health care providers do not recommend ginger during pregnancy. Let's check with your provider."
D) "You will need to wait until after the first trimester to try them."
Q2) A patient is receiving a tube feeding through a gastrostomy. The nurse expects that which type of drug will be used to promote gastric emptying for this patient?
A) Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide (Reglan)
B) Serotonin blockers, such as ondansetron (Zofran)
C) Anticholinergic drugs, such as scopolamine (Transderm-Scop)
D) Neuroleptic drugs, such as chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
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54
Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48034
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is on vitamin D supplemental therapy. The nurse will monitor for which signs of toxicity during this therapy?
A) Tinnitus
B) Anorexia
C) Diarrhea
D) Hypotension
Q2) The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a patient undergoing therapy with vitamin
A. Which of these are possible effects of vitamin A deficiency?
A) Impaired wound healing
B) Night blindness
C) Muscle twitching
D) Confusion
Q3) A patient with a history of alcohol abuse has been admitted for severe weakness and malnutrition. The nurse will prepare to administer which vitamin preparation to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy?
A) Vitamin B<sub>3</sub> (niacin)
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub> (thiamine)
C) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub> (pyridoxine)
D) Folic acid
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48035
Sample Questions
Q1) During therapy with the hematopoietic drug epoetin alfa (Epogen), the nurse instructs the patient about adverse effects that may occur, such as:
A) anxiety.
B) drowsiness.
C) hypertension.
D) constipation.
Q2) An oral iron supplement is prescribed for a patient. The nurse would question this order if the patient's medical history includes which condition?
A) Decreased hemoglobin
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Weakness
D) Concurrent therapy with erythropoietics
Q3) The nurse is administering folic acid to a patient with a new diagnosis of anemia. Which statement about treatment with folic acid is true?
A) Folic acid is used to treat any type of anemia.
B) Folic acid is used to treat iron-deficiency anemia.
C) Folic acid is used to treat pernicious anemia.
D) The specific cause of the anemia needs to be determined before treatment.
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Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes will be receiving a nasogastric tube feeding for a few days. The nurse expects which type of formula to be used?
A) Jevity
B) Ensure Plus
C) Glucerna
D) Polycose
Q2) A patient has been receiving total parenteral nutrition. Upon assessment, the nurse notes these assessment findings: blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg (elevated from previous readings); pulse rate 110 beats/min and weak; pitting edema on both ankles; and new-onset confusion. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which condition?
A) Infection
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Fluid overload
Q3) The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) order reads, "Infuse TPN #2 over 24 hours." Bag #2 of TPN contains 1800 mL. At what rate will the nurse set the infusion pump? _______
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Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48037
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a patient and notes that the patient has positive results for nasal colonization by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse anticipates an order for which medication?
A) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B) Mupirocin (Bactroban)
C) Clindamycin (Cleocin T)
D) Clotrimazole (Lotrimin)
Q2) The preoperative nurse is ready to perform a skin prep with povidone-iodine (Betadine) on a patient who is about to have abdominal surgery. Which allergies, if present, would be a contraindication to the Betadine prep?
A) Peanuts
B) Shellfish
C) Adhesives
D) Latex
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Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving ocular cyclosporine (Restasis) and also has an order for an artificial tears product. The nurse includes which instructions in the teaching plan for these medications?
A) "These two eye drugs cannot be given together. Let's check with your prescriber."
B) "You may take these two drugs together at the same time."
C) "First take the artificial tears, and then take the Restasis after 5 minutes."
D) "Take the Restasis first, and then wait 15 minutes before taking the artificial tears."
Q2) When teaching a patient about the proper application of eyedrops, the nurse will include which instruction?
A) "Apply the drops into the conjunctival sac instead of directly onto the eye."
B) "Apply the drops directly to the eyeball (cornea) for the best effect."
C) "Blot your eye with a tissue immediately after applying the drops."
D) "Tilt your head forward before applying the eyedrops."
Q3) A patient will be receiving mannitol (Osmitrol), 1.5 g/kg IV 1 hour before ocular surgery. The patient weighs 110 pounds. How many grams of mannitol will this patient receive for this dose? _______
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Chapter 58: Otic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about proper administration of eardrops. Which statements are correct?
A) Remove cerumen with a cotton-tipped swab before instilling the drops.
B) Instill the drops while still cool from refrigeration.
C) Warm the eardrops to room temperature before instillation.
D) The adult patient should pull the pinna of the ear up and back.
E) Insert a dry cotton ball gently into the ear canal after instillation.
F) Massage the earlobe after instillation.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient's wife about administering eardrops to her husband. The nurse will use which technique when demonstrating the skill?
A) Pull the pinna of the ear down and back.
B) Pull the pinna of the ear up and back.
C) Pull the pinna of the ear down and forward.
D) Pull the pinna of the ear up and forward.
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