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This course provides advanced education and clinical training for registered nurses aiming to become critical care nurse practitioners. Emphasizing evidence-based practice, the curriculum covers pathophysiology of critical illnesses, advanced assessment and diagnostic reasoning, therapeutics, and management of acute and complex conditions in critically ill adults. Students develop skills in invasive procedures, critical decision-making, and interprofessional collaboration within intensive care settings. Clinical practicums and simulations foster expertise in patient-centered care, leadership, and crisis management, preparing graduates to deliver high-quality care and improve outcomes for patients in critical and intensive care environments.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Critical Care Nursing 6th Edition by Mary Lou Sole
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
21 Chapters
756 Verified Questions
756 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2011 Page 2
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39999
Sample Questions
Q1) As part of nursing management of a critically ill patient,orders are written to keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees,awaken the patient from sedation each morning to assess readiness to wean from mechanical ventilation,and implement oral care protocols every 4 hours.These interventions are done as a group to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia.This group of evidence-based interventions is often called a:
A) bundle of care.
B) clinical practice guideline.
C) patient safety goal.
D) quality improvement initiative.
Answer: A
Q2) The first critical care units were: (Select all that apply.)
A) burn units.
B) coronary care units
C) recovery rooms.
D) neonatal intensive care units.
Answer: B,C
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40000
Sample Questions
Q1) Family presence is encouraged during resuscitation and invasive procedures.The nurse knows that nurses are often reluctant to allow this to occur,yet families often perceive benefits.Which findings have been reported in the literature? (Select all that apply.)
A) Families benefit by witnessing that everything possible was done.
B) Families report reduced anxiety and fear about what is being done to the patient.
C) Presence encourages family members to seek litigation for improper care.
D) Presence reduces nurses' involvement in explaining things to the family.
Answer: A,B
Q2) Which of the following statements about family assessment is false?
A) Assessment of structure (who comprises the family) is the last step in assessment. B) Interaction among family members is assessed.
C) It is important to assess communication among family members to understand roles.
D) Ongoing assessment is important, because family functioning may change during the course of illness.
Answer: A
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40001
Sample Questions
Q1) A specific request made by a competent person that directs medical care related to life-prolonging procedures if the patient loses capacity to make decisions is called a: A) do not resuscitate order.
B) healthcare proxy.
C) informed consent.
D) living will.
Answer: D
Q2) Which statement regarding ethical concepts is true?
A) A living will is the same as a healthcare proxy.
B) A signed donor card ensures that organ donation will occur in the event of brain death.
C) A surrogate is a competent adult designated by a person to make healthcare decisions in the event the person is incapacitated.
D) A persistent vegetative state is the same as brain death in most states.
Answer: C
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40002
Q1) Which statement made by a staff nurse identifying guidelines for palliative care would need corrected?
A) Basic nursing care is a critical element in palliative care management.
B) Common conditions that require palliative management are nausea, agitation, and sleep disturbance.
C) Palliative care practices are reserved for the dying client.
D) Palliative care practices relieve symptoms that negatively affect the quality of life of a patient.
Q2) The most critical element of effective early end-of-life decision making is:
A) control of distressing symptoms such as nausea, anxiety, and pain.
B) effective communication between the patient, family, and healthcare team throughout the course of the illness.
C) organizational support of palliative care principles.
D) relocation the dying patient from the critical care unit to a lower level of care.
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6

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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40003
Sample Questions
Q1) Anxiety differs from pain in that: (Select all that apply.)
A) it is confined to neurological processes in the brain.
B) it is linked to reward and punishment centers in the limbic system.
C) it is subjective.
D) there is no actual tissue injury.
Q2) The assessment of pain and anxiety is a continuous process.When critically ill patients exhibit signs of anxiety,the nurse's first priority is to:
A) administer antianxiety medications as ordered.
B) administer pain medication as ordered.
C) identify and treat the underlying cause.
D) reassess the patient hourly to determine whether symptoms resolve on their own.
Q3) In the healthy individual,pain and anxiety: (Select all that apply.)
A) activate the sympathetic nervous system.
B) decrease stress levels.
C) help remove one from harm.
D) increase performance levels.
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40004
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about normal function of the gastrointestinal (GI)tract?
A) Failure of the tight junctions allows bacteria to invade the GI tract.
B) The gut lacks protective mechanisms; thus, infection is always a concern.
C) Water is reabsorbed at the beginning of the colon.
D) Without nutritional stimulation, mucosal villi atrophy.
Q2) Which statement(s)about total parenteral nutrition is (are)true? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assessing fluid volume status and preventing infection are important nursing considerations.
B) Fingerstick glucose levels are assessed every 6 hours and prn.
C) Total parenteral nutrition is administered through a feeding tube and pump.
D) Total parenteral nutrition, with added lipids, provides adequate levels of protein, carbohydrates, and fats.
Q3) In addition to residual stomach volume,what other evidence suggests feeding intolerance?
A) Abdominal distention
B) Absence of tympany on percussion
C) Active bowel sounds
D) Elevated blood glucose by fingerstick
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40005
Sample Questions
Q1) The QT interval is the total time taken for ventricular depolarization and repolarization.Prolongation of the QT interval:
A) decreases the risk of lethal dysrhythmias.
B) usually occurs when heart rate increases.
C) increases the risk of lethal dysrhythmias.
D) can only be measured with irregular rhythms.
Q2) The normal width of the QRS complex is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) 0.06 to 0.10 seconds.
B) 0.12 to 0.20 seconds.
C) 1.5 to 2.5 small boxes.
D) 3.0 to 5.0 small boxes.
E) 0.04 seconds or greater.
Q3) Which of the following are common causes of sinus tachycardia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypovolemia
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Heart Failure
E) Sleep
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40006
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician writes an order to discontinue a patient's left radial arterial line.When discontinuing the patient's invasive line,what is the priority nursing action?
A) Apply an air occlusion dressing to insertion site.
B) Apply pressure to the insertion site for 5 minutes.
C) Elevate the affected limb on pillows for 24 hours.
D) Keep the patient's wrist in a neutral position.
Q2) The nurse is preparing for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter ( PAC ).During insertion of the catheter,what are the priority nursing actions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allay the patient's anxiety by providing information about the procedure.
B) Ensure that a sterile field is maintained during the insertion procedure.
C) Inflate the balloon during the procedure when indicated by the physician.
D) Monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm throughout the entire procedure.
E) Obtain informed consent by informing the patient of procedural risks.
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40007
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's endotracheal tube is not secured tightly.The respiratory care practitioner assists the nurse in taping the tube.After the tube is retaped,the nurse auscultates the patient's lungs and notes that the breath sounds over the left lung fields are absent.The nurse suspects that:
A) the endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus.
B) the patient has a left pneumothorax.
C) the patient has aspirated secretions during the procedure.
D) the stethoscope earpiece is clogged with wax.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient and is charting outside the patient's room when the ventilator alarm sounds. What is the priority order for the nurse to complete these actions:
_? (Put a comma and space between each solve choice.)
A)Check quickly for possible causes of the alarm that can be fixed.
B)After troubleshooting,connect back to mechanical ventilator and reassess patient.
C)Go to patient's bedside.
D)Manually ventilate the patient while getting respiratory therapist.
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40008
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse knows that in advanced cardiac life support,the secondary survey includes steps A-B-C-D where "D" refers to:
A) defibrillate.
B) differential diagnosis.
C) diltiazem intravenous push.
D) do not resuscitate.
Q2) Ventricular fibrillation should initially be treated by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administration of amiodarone, followed by defibrillation at 360 J
B) Atropine 1 mg, followed by defibrillation at 200 J
C) Defibrillation at 200 J with biphasic defibrillation
D) Defibrillation at 360 J with monophasic defibrillation
Q3) When doing manual ventilations during a code,the nurse would administer ventilations following which guideline?
A) Approximately 8 to 10 breaths per minute
B) During the fifth chest compression
C) Every 3 seconds or 20 times per minute
D) While compressions are stopped
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40009
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has just completed administration of a 1000-L bolus of 0.9% normal saline.The nurse assesses the patient to be slightly confused,with a mean arterial blood pressure (MAP)of 50 mm Hg,a heart rate of 110 beats/min,urine output of 10 mL for the past hour,and a central venous pressure (CVP/RAP)of 3 mm Hg.What is the best interpretation of these results by the nurse?
A) Patient response to therapy is appropriate.
B) Additional interventions are indicated.
C) More time is needed to assess response.
D) Values are normal for the patient condition.
Q2) Ten minutes following administration of an antibiotic,the nurse assesses a patient to have edematous lips,hoarseness,and expiratory stridor.Vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure 70/40 mm Hg,heart rate 130 beats/min,and respirations 36 breaths/min.What is the priority intervention?
A) Diphenhydramine ( Benadryl ) 50 mg intravenously
B) Epinephrine 3 to 5 mL of a 1:10,000 solution intravenously
C) Methylprednisolone ( Solu-Medrol ) 125 mg intravenously
D) Ranitidine ( Zantac ) 50 mg intravenously
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40010
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's husband tells the nurse,"We didn't think she was having a heart attack because the pain was in her neck and back." The nurse explains: (Select all that apply.)
A) "Pain can occur anywhere in the chest, neck, arms, or back. Don't hesitate to call the emergency medical services if you think it's a heart attack."
B) "For many people chest pain from a heart attack occurs in the center of the chest, behind the breastbone."
C) "The sooner the patient can get medical help, the less damage is likely to occur in case of a heart attack."
D) "You need to make sure it's a heart attack before you call the emergency response personnel."
Q2) The physician orders a pharmacological stress test for a patient with activity intolerance.The nurse would anticipate that the drug of choice would be
A) Dopamine
B) Dobutamine
C) Adenosine
D) Atropine
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40011
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse admits a patient to the emergency department ( ED )with a suspected cervical spine injury.What is the priority nursing action?
A) Keep the neck in the hyperextended position.
B) Maintain proper head and neck alignment.
C) Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation.
D) Remove cervical collar upon arrival to the ED.
Q2) The nurse admits a patient to the critical care unit following a motorcycle crash.Assessment findings by the nurse include blood pressure 100/50 mm Hg,heart rate 58 beats/min,respiratory rate 30 breaths/min,and temperature of 100.5°.The patient is lethargic,responds to voice but falls asleep readily when not stimulated.Which nursing action is most important to include in this patient's plan of care?
A) Frequent neurological assessments
B) Side to side position changes
C) Range of motion to extremities
D) Frequent oropharyngeal suctioning
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40012
Sample Questions
Q1) In assessing a patient,the nurse understands that an early sign of hypoxemia is:
A) clubbing of nail beds
B) cyanosis
C) hypotension
D) restlessness
Q2) The etiology of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)is related to damage to the:
A) alveolar-capillary membrane.
B) left ventricle.
C) mainstem bronchus.
D) trachea.
Q3) The nurse calculates the PaO<sub>2</sub>/FiO<sub>2</sub> ratio for the following values: PaO<sub>2</sub> is 78 mm Hg; FiO<sub>2</sub> is 0.6 (60%).
A) 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS
B) 130; meets criteria for ARDS
C) 468; normal lung function
D) Not enough data to compute the ratio
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40013
Sample Questions
Q1) Continuous venovenous hemodialysis is used to:
A) remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.
B) remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.
C) remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.
D) combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis
Q2) Identify which substances would indicate a problem with renal function.(Select all that apply).
A) protein.
B) sodium.
C) creatinine.
D) red blood cells.
E) uric acid.
Q3) The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency.The nurse realizes that with advance age often comes declining renal function.An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be:
A) an increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
B) a normal serum creatinine level.
C) increased ability to excrete drugs.
D) hypokalemia.
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40014
Sample Questions
Q1) When examining the patient's laboratory values,the nurse notices an elevation in the eosinophil count.The nurse realizes that eosinophils become elevated:
A) with acute bacterial infections.
B) in response to allergens and parasites.
C) when the spleen is removed.
D) in situations that do not require phagocytosis.
Q2) The patient is being seen for complaints of general malaise,fatigue,and shortness of breath.The patient states that he has felt this way since he had a cold 6 weeks earlier.The nurse should expect the provider to order:
A) lymph node biopsy.
B) differential blood count only.
C) complete blood count ( CBC ) with differential.
D) Bone marrow biopsy.
Q3) The patient has a platelet count of 9,000/microliter.The nurse realizes that:
A) this is a normal platelet level.
B) spontaneous bleeding may occur.
C) the patient is at great risk for fatal hemorrhage.
D) this level is considered slightly low.
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40015
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with the diagnosis of sepsis.The patient is on a ventilator in the critical care unit,and is receiving a proton pump inhibitors (PPI)to reduce the risk for a stress ulcer.In this scenario,a stress ulcer is likely secondary to:
A) infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria.
B) decreased acetylcholine production.
C) a decreased number of parietal cells.
D) ischemia associated with sepsis.
Q2) When assessing bowel sounds,the nurse:
A) uses the "bell" part of the stethoscope.
B) listens at least 15 minutes.
C) expects bowel sounds to be regular in rhythm.
D) listens for 5 minutes before noting "absent bowel sounds."
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with liver disease.When assessing the patient's laboratory values,the nurse should:
A) disregard the level of conjugated bilirubin.
B) assess the indirect serum bilirubin.
C) call the provider immediately if the direct bilirubin is elevated.
D) be aware that unconjugated bilirubin is harmless.
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40016
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions for the patient in myxedema coma? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administer levothyroxine ( Synthroid ) as ordered.
B) Encourage the intake of foods high in sodium.
C) Initiate passive rewarming interventions.
D) Monitor airway and respiratory effort.
E) Monitor urine osmolality.
Q2) An individual with type 2 diabetes who takes glipizide (Glucotrol)to control her blood glucose has begun a formal exercise program at a local gym.While exercising on the treadmill,she becomes pale,diaphoretic,and shaky.She has a headache and feels as though she is going to pass out.What is the individual's priority action?
A) Drink additional water to prevent dehydration.
B) Eat something with 15 g of simple carbohydrates.
C) Go to the first aid station to have glucose checked.
D) Take another dose of the oral agent.
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40017
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following findings require immediate nursing interventions related to the assessment of a patient with a traumatic brain injury? (Select all that apply.)
A) Mean arterial pressure 48 mm Hg
B) Elevated serum blood alcohol level
C) Non-reactive pupils
D) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
Q2) Which of the following interventions would not be appropriate for a patient who is admitted with a suspected basilar skull fracture?
A) Insertion of a nasogastric tube
B) Insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter
C) Endotracheal intubation
D) Placement of an oral airway
Q3) Which interventions can the nurse implement to assist the patient's family in coping with the traumatic event? (Select all that apply.)
A) Establish a family spokesperson and communication system.
B) Ask the family about their normal coping mechanisms.
C) Limit visitation to set times throughout the day.
D) Coordinate a family conference.
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40018
Sample Questions
Q1) A(An)____________________ often produces a superficial cutaneous injury but may cause cardiopulmonary arrest and transient but severe central nervous system deficits.
A) chemical burn
B) electrical burn
C) heat burn
D) infection
Q2) When paramedics notice singed hairs in the nose of a burn patient,it is recommended that the patient be intubated.What is the reasoning for the immediate intubation?
A) Carbon monoxide poisoning always occurs when soot is visible.
B) Inhalation injury above the glottis may cause significant edema that obstructs the airway.
C) The patient will have a copious amount of mucus that will need to be suctioned.
D) The singed hairs and soot in the nostrils will cause dysfunction of cilia in the airways.
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40019
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a postoperative renal transplant recipient in the critical care unit.After seeing minimal urine output in the catheter for most of the day,the patient expresses concern to the nurse.What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "Your kidney has unfortunately failed and will be removed."
B) "It can take a few days for your kidney to start working"
C) "You are experiencing an acute rejection episode."
D) "You will have to undergo daily hemodialysis treatments."
Q2) The charge nurse is reviewing the status of patients in the critical care unit.Which patient should the nurse notify the organ procurement organization to evaluate for possible organ donation?
A) A 36-year-old patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 with no activity on electroencephalogram
B) A 68-year-old male admitted with unstable atrial fibrillation who has suffered a stroke
C) A 40-year-old brain-injured female with a history of ovarian cancer and a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 7
D) A 53-year-old diabetic male with a history of unstable angina status post resuscitation
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