Critical Care Assessment Question Bank
Course Introduction
Critical Care Assessment provides students with in-depth knowledge and practical skills required to evaluate and monitor critically ill patients. The course emphasizes systematic approaches to patient assessment, including advanced techniques for evaluating respiratory, cardiovascular, neurological, and renal function. Students learn to interpret clinical data, perform comprehensive physical examinations, and recognize early signs of patient deterioration. Integral to the course are evidence-based assessment tools and clinical decision-making frameworks that support prompt and effective interventions in high-acuity settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations Assessment of Respiratory Disease 6th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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580 Verified Questions
580 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) The open-ended question format is generally used to:
1) gather information when a patient introduces a new topic.
2) introduce a new subject area.
3) begin the interview process.
4) gather specific information.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: C
Q2) The interviewing technique called silence is used:
A) to prompt the patient to ask a question.
B)after a direct question.
C)after an open-ended question.
D)to allow the patient to review his/her history.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachypnea may be the result of:
1) hypoxemia.
2) hypothermia.
3) fever.
4) sedation.
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
Q2) A dull percussion note would be heard in all of the following situations EXCEPT: A) atelectasis.
B)pleural thickening.
C)chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
D)consolidation.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following forced vital capacity test times should be interpreted as normal?
A) Less than 4 seconds
B)4 to 6 seconds
C)6 to 8 seconds
D)8 to 10 seconds
Answer: B
Q2) Your patient has obstructive lung disease. In response to this, which of the following are typically found?
1) Decreased lung compliance
2) Increased ventilatory rate
3) Increased tidal volume
4) Decreased ventilator rate
A)3, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2
D)1, 3, 4
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common causes of metabolic acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diabetic ketoacidosis.
B)shallow breathing from a sedative overdose.
C)lactic acidosis.
D)renal (kidney) failure.
Q2) Which of the following would be a normal person's arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 25 to 35 mm Hg
B)35 to 45 mm Hg
C)45 to 60 mm Hg
D)60 to 80 mm Hg
Q3) Your patient has had chronic ventilatory failure for several years. What is the primary factor that determines her breathing pattern?
A) Muscle efficiency
B)Ventilatory efficiency
C)Heart function
D)Work efficiency
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6
Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increased cardiac output causes the:
1) C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> to decrease.
2) SvO<sub>2</sub> to increase.
3) Total O<sub>2</sub> delivery to decrease.
4) O<sub>2</sub>ER to increase.
A)1
B)2, 3
C)3, 4
D)1, 2
Q2) Your patient has been exposed to carbon monoxide during a house fire. How should the patient's PaO<sub>2</sub> value be interpreted?
A) Accurate oxygenation reading
B)Higher than actual oxygenation reading
C)False normal oxygenation reading
D)It should match the CO<sub>2</sub> value.
Q3) A condition that will cause hypoxic hypoxia is:
A) cyanosis.
B)decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C)hypoventilation from an overdose of a sedative medication.
D)carbon monoxide poisoning.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Q1) In which of the following is the atrial rate faster than the ventricular rate?
1) Atrial fibrillation
2) Sinus bradycardia
3) Atrial flutter
4) Ventricular flutter
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q2) When reviewing a cardiac rhythm strip, you notice that there are three large boxes between two QRS complexes. Approximately what is this patient's heart rate?
A) 60
B)75
C)100
D)150
Q3) A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter is used to:
A) measure left atrial pressure.
B)measure right ventricular work.
C)monitor right ventricular function.
D)monitor left ventricular function.
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be normal findings of the heart and surrounding area?
1) The left hilum is about 2 cm higher than the right hilum.
2) Most of the heart shadow is to the right of the sternum.
3) Calcified lymph nodes indicate an adult patient.
4) The cardiothoracic ratio is less than 1:2.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following are steps used in the evaluation of a chest radiograph?
1) Evaluation of the bony structures
2) Evaluation of exposure quality
3) Evaluation of the heart shadow
4) Evaluation of the tracheobronchial tree
A)4
B)1, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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9
Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Therapeutic bronchoscopy is used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) to remove a foreign body.
B)in selective lavage.
C)in bronchiectasis evaluation.
D)to manage life-threatening hemoptysis.
Q2) Culture and sensitivity tests:
A) stain a microorganism as Gram-positive or Gram-negative.
B)determine the shape of the organisms present.
C)identify the DNA of organisms present in the sputum.
D)determine the antibiotic(s) best suited for combating an infection.
Q3) In a normal differential white blood cell (WBC) count, which of the following would have the highest number?
A) Neutrophils
B)Basophils
C)Eosinophils
D)Lymphocytes
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Care Practitioner
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Sample Questions
Q1) A TDP can be started after:
A) the nurse finishes his/her assessment.
B)the treatment is selected.
C)a physician's order for the TDP is received.
D)the patient's insurance carrier is contacted.
Q2) Which of the following is/are associated with the bronchospasm clinical scenario?
1) Increased airway resistance
2) Decreased FRC
3) Bronchial breath sounds
4) Hyperresonant percussion note
A)3
B)1, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q3) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration are part of what TDP?
A) Hyperinflation therapy
B)Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy
C)Mechanical ventilation
D)Oxygen therapy
11
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following blocks of information will be found in a patient's source-oriented record EXCEPT:
A) laboratory reports.
B)history.
C)police record.
D)admission information.
Q2) Which of the following is a Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) rule?
A) A bank can check for a preexisting condition.
B)The patient controls access to his/her medical records.
C)Psychotherapy and medical records are treated equally.
D)An employer can check for a preexisting condition.
Q3) A patient who had pneumonia, and her family, are suing the hospital, physician, and respiratory therapist. How can the patient's medical care and treatment be proved?
A) Care is documented in the chart.
B)The patient's testimony
C)The physician's testimony
D)The respiratory therapist's testimony
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Chapter 11: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd:
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are associated with chronic bronchitis?
1) Cyanosis
2) Purulent sputum
3) Right heart failure
4) Elevated CO<sub>2</sub> level
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Emphysema is probably caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) inhaling asbestos fibers.
B)(\(\alpha\)<sub>1</sub>)-antitrypsin deficiency.
C)second-hand cigarette smoke.
D)air pollution.
Q3) The genetic reference to a person with a normal level of \(\alpha\)<sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin is:
A) Z phenotype.
B)MZ.
C)MM.
D)ZZ.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a severe asthma attack has many mucus plugs. What structural changes can be expected because of this?
A) Atelectasis
B)Fibrosis
C)Alveolar hyperinflation
D)Pulmonary edema
Q2) If an asthmatic patient is not properly treated and has long-term airway inflammation, what can occur?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B)Pulmonary fibrosis
C)Irreversible loss of airway caliber
D)Emphysema
Q3) What medical term is used to describe when an asthmatic patient has an early response followed by a late response to an allergen?
A) Intrinsic asthma
B)Antigen-antibody response
C)Biphasic response
D)Bilateral response
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14
Chapter 13: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of bronchiectasis causes the greatest amount of damage to the tracheobronchial tree?
A) Triphasic
B)Varicose
C)Cystic
D)Fusiform
Q2) Congenital causes of bronchiectasis include:
1) Influenza
2) Cystic fibrosis
3) COPD
4) Kartagener's syndrome
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q3) Severe bronchiectasis is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) vesicular breath sounds.
B)cor pulmonale.
C)distended neck veins.
D)polycythemia.
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Chapter 14: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a cystic fibrosis patient is in generally good condition, what might be done to permanently fix the lung problem?
A) Cryosurgery
B)Total DNA replacement
C)Diaphragmatic pacemaker
D)Lung transplant
Q2) total airway obstruction leading to atelectasis.
A) 1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Men with cystic fibrosis have difficulty reproducing because:
A) the fallopian tubes are blocked.
B)the vas deferens is missing or underdeveloped.
C)the men are impotent.
D)the women do not ovulate.
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Chapter 15: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has a bacterial pneumonia. What kills the invading bacteria?
A) Macrophages
B)Red blood cells
C)Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D)Serum fluid
Q2) The following pulmonary infection is most commonly seen in patients with AIDS:
A) anaerobic.
B)Pneumocystis carinii.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae (Diplococcus pneumoniae).
D)Legionella pneumophila.
Q3) A 28-year-old patient who has dogs, parakeets, and cats as pets has been admitted with pneumonia. It is suspected that she acquired the infection from one of her pets. What organism is likely to be found in her sputum?
A) Bacteroides melaninogenicus
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Chlamydia psittaci
D)Haemophilus influenzae
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Chapter 16: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) What antibiotic agent would be appropriate for treating an anaerobic lung abscess infection?
A) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B)Pentamidine (NebuPent)
C)Fluoroquinolones (Levofloxacin)
D)Monobactam (Aztreonam)
Q2) In severe cases of tissue necrosis related to an abscess, what can occur?
1) Fluid ruptures into a bronchus.
2) Broncholithiasis occurs.
3) Bronchospasm will close off the affected bronchi.
4) Fluid ruptures into the intrapleural space.
A)1, 2
B)1, 4
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q3) Your patient has aspirated. This can result in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) fungal pneumonia.
B)anaerobic bacterial pneumonia.
C)chemical pneumonitis.
D)Both B and C
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Chapter 17: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preferred stain that is used to identify the TB organism is called:
A) Gram stain.
B)Fluorescent acid-fast stain.
C)Ziehl-Neelsen.
D)Gentian violet.
Q2) The most effective medication used to treat a TB infection is:
A) rifampin.
B)penicillin.
C)streptomycin.
D)isoniazid.
Q3) A negative tuberculin test would be demonstrated by an induration (wheal) of what size?
A) 4 mm or less
B)6 mm or less
C)8 mm or greater
D)10 mm or greater
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Chapter 18: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Q1) Which type of fungal lung infection frequently results in productive cough with purulent sputum?
A) Staphylococcal infection
B)Blastomycosis
C)Klebsiella infection
D)Histoplasmosis
Q2) Your patient lives in Chicago and has HIV and a weakened immune system. What fungal infection is the patient at risk of developing?
A) Mycoplasma infection
B)Blastomycosis
C)Streptococcal infection
D)Disseminated histoplasmosis
Q3) A skin test is available to confirm which of the following fungal infections?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B)Blastomycosis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Pseudomonal infection
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are positive risk factors for coronary heart disease (CHD) EXCEPT:
A) elevated homocysteine level.
B)elevated vitamin E level.
C)hypertension.
D)diabetes mellitus.
Q2) Which of the following is/are considered noncardiogenic cause(s) of increased capillary permeability?
1) Therapeutic lung radiation
2) Cigarette smoke
3) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
4) Inhaled phosgene
A)1
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Embolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The death of lung tissue that may result from an obstruction of the pulmonary artery is called a:
A) pulmonary embolism.
B)pleural effusion.
C)pulmonary infarction.
D)pulmonary empyema.
Q2) The sudden onset of which of the following signs and symptoms indicate a pulmonary embolism:
1) wheezing.
2) coughing out blood-streaked sputum.
3) cyanosis.
4) sudden shortness of breath.
A)3, 4
B)1, 2
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 21: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Causes of a flail chest include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) blast injury.
B)motor vehicle accident.
C)split sternum for open heart surgery.
D)fall from high altitude.
Q2) What chest radiograph findings would be expected on a patient with a flail chest?
1) Decreased opacity
2) Rib fractures
3) Increased opacity
4) Tracheal narrowing or deviation
A)2
B)1, 4
C)2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q3) When a patient has a flail chest, what happens during the ventilatory cycle?
A) The I:E ratio becomes inverse.
B)Air leaks out through the flail area.
C)Air leaks in through the flail area.
D)Air is shunted from one lung to the other.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of a 30% pneumothorax may include:
1) endotracheal intubation.
2) giving the patient supplemental oxygen.
3) placing a chest tube into the pleural space.
4) placing a chest tube into the pericardial space.
A)1, 3
B)2, 3
C)2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) According to the way gas enters the pleural space, a pneumothorax will be classified as:
1) one-sided.
2) bilateral.
3) open.
4) closed.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 23: Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has a pleural effusion from an unknown cause. A fluid sample has been taken for analysis. To help identify the cause of the effusion, all of the following tests should be performed EXCEPT:
A) specific gravity.
B)biochemical makeup.
C)cytologic examination.
D)check for bacteria.
Q2) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is: A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B)separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C)adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D)pulmonary edema.
Q3) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with a significant pleural effusion include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diaphragm elevation.
B)atelectasis.
C)compression of the great vessels.
D)lung compression.
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Chapter 24: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) Braces are most effective with which group of kyphoscoliosis patients?
A) Adolescents with idiopathic scoliosis
B)Patients with congenital scoliosis
C)Patients with neuromuscular scoliosis
D)Infants with idiopathic scoliosis
Q2) Positive risk factor(s) for the development of kyphoscoliosis include:
1) male gender.
2) female gender.
3) taller person.
4) shorter person.
A)1
B)2
C)2, 3
D)1, 4
Q3) Your patient has scoliosis. On her chest radiograph, this would be seen as:
A) elevated diaphragms.
B)an S or C shape to the spine.
C)pectus carinatum.
D)pectus excavatum.
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Chapter 25: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) Generally, a patient with ILD will have a lung compliance that is:
A) higher than normal.
B)normal.
C)less than normal.
D)variable based on the etiology.
Q2) Chest radiograph findings in a patient with ILD can include: 1) pleural effusion. 2) honeycombing.
3) cavity formation.
4) granulomas.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) What medication group is commonly administered to patients with interstitial lung disease?
A) Antibiotics
B)Mucolytics
C)Corticosteroids
D)Diuretics
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Chapter 26: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) Signs and symptoms that a patient has metastatic lung cancer include:
1) weakness.
2) bone pain.
3) seizures.
4) weight loss.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Chest radiograph findings indicating lung cancer include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) a large irregular mass.
B)an enlarged heart.
C)a coin lesion.
D)a pleural effusion.
Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) smoking tobacco.
B)smoking marijuana.
C)inhaling asbestos.
D)inhaling radon gas.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Your patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). All of the following materials will be found in her alveoli, EXCEPT:
A) leukocytes.
B)cellular debris.
C)fibrin.
D)hyaline membrane.
Q2) All of the following would be low tidal volume ventilation goals in a patient with ARDS, EXCEPT:
A) decrease barotraumas.
B)plateau pressure > 30 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.
C)decrease high transpulmonary pressures.
D)reduce overdistension of the lungs.
Q3) A chest radiograph finding indicative of ARDS is:
A) "ground-glass" appearance.
B)pleural effusion.
C)lung hyperinflation.
D)tracheal deviation.
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29
Chapter 28: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Q1) Your patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is developing atelectasis. His chest radiograph findings would show:
A) "ground-glass" appearance. B)crackles.
C)increased opacity.
D)blunted costophrenic angles.
Q2) Typical chest assessment findings in a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome include: 1) diminished breath sounds. 2) crackles and rhonchi.
3) tracheal deviation.
4) depressed diaphragms.
A)4
B)1, 2
C)3, 4
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 29: Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient with myasthenia gravis is given the drug edrophonium (Tensilon), what will happen?
A) Heart rate will increase.
B)Strength will improve for a short time.
C)There will be a long-term improvement in strength.
D)The patient will weaken for a short time.
Q2) Which of the following is/are signs and symptoms associated with myasthenia gravis?
1) Double vision
2) Weakness of neck muscles
3) Drooping of eyelids
4) Difficulty speaking
A)2
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 30: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sleep apnea is associated with:
1) systemic hypertension.
2) systemic hypotension.
3) pulmonary hypertension.
4) aspiration pneumonia.
A)1, 3
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A CPAP titration polysomnogram is performed to:
A) find the maximum CPAP level for the functional residual capacity.
B)determine the lowest possible CPAP level.
C)find the CPAP level to maintain an open airway.
D)determine the pressure needed for negative-pressure ventilation.
Q3) All of the following are evaluated during a polysomnographic sleep study, EXCEPT:
A) breath sounds.
B)chest and/or abdominal movement.
C)electro-oculogram (EOG).
D)nasal and oral air flow.
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Chapter 31: Newborn and Early Childhood Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) A neonate in respiratory distress will often dilate his/her nostrils to:
A) facilitate inspiration.
B)nurse more easily.
C)sneeze out amniotic fluid.
D)raise its intrapleural pressure.
Q2) Apnea of prematurity could be defined as:
1) respiratory pause causing bradycardia.
2) cycles of short breathing pauses followed by faster breathing.
3) no breathing for >20 seconds.
4) sudden apnea and death (crib death).
A)4
B)2
C)1, 3
D)3, 4
Q3) Apneic episodes in a premature neonate can be caused by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) epiglottitis.
B)immature central nervous system.
C)immature airway receptors.
D)immature chemoreceptors.
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Chapter 32: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) A neonate with MAS has hypoxemia. Which of the following can be a pulmonary effect of this?
A) Status asthmaticus
B)Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
C)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
D)Pulmonary fibrosis
Q2) Infants who are older than 42 weeks' gestation are at greater risk for MAS because they have:
1) a full bowel.
2) strong peristalsis.
3) amniotic fluid in their stomach.
4) sphincter tone.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 4
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34
Chapter 33: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) The breathing pattern seen in a patient with TTN includes:
1) normal rate.
2) rapid rate.
3) higher than normal tidal volume.
4) shallow tidal volume.
A)1, 3
B)2, 3
C)2, 4
D)1, 4
Q2) Risk factors for the development of TTN include:
1) maternal diabetes.
2) male gender.
3) maternal bleeding.
4) breech delivery.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
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Chapter 34: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Which of the following are usually seen in the lungs of a neonate with RDS?
A) Alveolar collapse (atelectasis)
B)Segmental atelectasis
C)Lobar atelectasis
D)Pulmonary fibrosis
Q2) The hyaline membrane seen in the alveoli of a neonate with RDS is similar to the anatomic alteration found in what other pulmonary disease?
A) Bacterial pneumonia
B)Pulmonary fibrosis
C)Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
D)Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
Q3) It is likely that a neonate with RDS will have the following chest radiograph finding:
A) airway dilation and distortion.
B)fluffy infiltrates in the bases of the lungs.
C)ground-glass appearance.
D)cardiomegaly.
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Chapter 35: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) Your patient with pulmonary interstitial emphysema has developed a pneumothorax. It will manifest itself clinically as:
A) equally restrictive and obstructive disorder.
B)an obstructive pulmonary disorder.
C)a restrictive pulmonary disorder.
D)a restrictive cardiac disorder.
Q2) Your patient is suspected of having a pneumothorax and the physician is performing transillumination to assess the situation. What finding would confirm that there is a pneumothorax?
A) The trachea will be illuminated.
B)Light will shine through the hole in the lung.
C)Increased illumination on the unaffected side
D)Increased illumination on the affected side
Q3) During the physical exam of a patient with PIE and a pneumoperitoneum, what respiratory rate is usually found?
A) 80 to 120/min
B)>60/min
C)30 to 60/min
D)Less than 30/min
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Chapter 36: Respiratory Syncytial Virus Infection
Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics would make an adult at increased risk for a severe case of RSV?
1) Compromised immune system
2) History of asthma
3) Under 30 years of age
4) More than 65 years of age
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 4
Q2) Which of the following patients is least likely to experience a severe RSV infection?
A) A 6-month old recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis
B)A 3-month old born who was born prematurely
C)A 2-year old undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia
D)A 3-year old with no siblings
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Chapter 37: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) Which of the following are commonly found during the physical examination of a neonate with BPD?
1) Expiratory grunting
2) Wheezes
3) Flaring nostrils
4) Crackles
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A very preterm infant has just been born. What would contribute to its development of the "new" bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)?
A) Interruption of the canalicular stage of lung development
B)Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)
C)Low Apgar scores
D)Laryngotracheobronchitis
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Chapter 38: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) If a newborn is born with a CDH, when does respiratory distress develop?
A) During labor
B)Soon after birth
C)Within the first 4 to 6 hours of birth
D)Within the first 48 hours of birth
Q2) An infant with a CDH has lungs that are immature and hypoplastic. What can be done to help correct this situation?
A) Suction out excessive lung fluid.
B)Administer intermittent positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
C)Nebulized sympathomimetic agent
D)Give pulmonary surfactant.
Q3) In addition to utilizing a mechanical ventilator, what other medical support will a patient with a CDH usually need?
A) Hemodialysis
B)Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
C)Cardiac pacemaker
D)Bronchoscopy
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Chapter 39: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) What is the main clinical risk facing a patient with epiglottitis?
A) Secretions blocking the trachea
B)The epiglottis will bleed.
C)Laryngeal inlet covered by the epiglottis
D)The vocal cords will spasm and close.
Q2) You are the respiratory therapist working in the pediatric unit of the hospital. The physician who is caring for a 3-year-old boy with LTB asks what respiratory therapy treatments should be given. You would suggest which of the following?
1) Racemic epinephrine
2) Cool mist tent
3) Antibiotics
4) Endotracheal or tracheostomy tube
A)1, 2
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 40: Near Drowning
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Q1) Warming techniques for a cold-water near drowning victim include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) cooling the extremities and warming the body.
B)warming the inspired oxygen.
C)heated intravenous solutions.
D)heated lavage of the pericardial space.
Q2) The pulmonary effects of a near-drowning victim inhaling water include:
1) alveolar consolidation.
2) bronchospasm.
3) production of frothy, white secretions.
4) pleural effusion.
A)2, 3
B)1, 2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Many adult drowning victims have been shown to have:
A) used alcohol.
B)had a stroke.
C)eaten just before swimming.
D)had a heart attack.
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Chapter 41: Smoke Inhalation and Thermal Injuries
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Q1) The long term effects of a smoke inhalation injury are:
A) obstructive lung disease.
B)restrictive lung disease.
C)obstructive and restrictive lung disease.
D)neither, there is normally complete healing.
Q2) A 65-year-old patient has third-degree skin burns over 30% of his body and a smoke inhalation injury. How does the combination of skin burns and smoke inhalation affect his prognosis?
A) It quadruples the mortality rate.
B)It more than triples the mortality rate.
C)It almost doubles the mortality rate.
D)There is no mortality change between having one or two problems.
Q3) A throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, and impaired judgment are common clinical manifestations when the blood COHb is at what level?
A) 0% to 10%
B)10% 20%
C)20% to 30%
D)30% to 50%
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Chapter 42: Postoperative Atelectasis
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Q1) What definition of atelectasis would best fit that of a premature newborn with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
A) Partial or total collapse of previously expanded lung regions
B)Free pleural air compressed the lungs
C)Enlarged heart causes compression of the lungs
D)The lungs remain unexpanded since birth
Q2) Which of the following are precipitating factors for retained secretions that commonly lead to atelectasis?
1) Asthma
2) General anesthesia
3) Gastric aspiration
4) Smoking history
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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