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Criminology is the scientific study of crime, criminal behavior, and the criminal justice system. This course explores theories about the causes of crime, patterns of criminal activity, and societal responses to crime, including law enforcement, judicial processes, and corrections. Students will examine the social, psychological, economic, and environmental factors that influence criminal behavior, as well as current issues and debates in criminal justice policy. The course aims to develop critical thinking and analytical skills through the evaluation of research, case studies, and real-world examples, preparing students to understand and critically assess the complex nature of crime in society.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Criminal Justice 4th Edition by Robert M. Bohm
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Q1) Explain the<b> doctrine of legal guilt</b>.
Answer: According to the doctrine of legal guilt,people are not to be held guilty of crimes merely on a showing,based on reliable evidence,that in all probability they did in fact do what they are accused of doing.It is not enough that people are factually guilty; they must also be legally guilty.This means that the integrity of due-process rights must be maintained.
Q2) Plea bargaining is the perfect mechanism for achieving the primary focus of the due process model-efficiency.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A(n)____ is a charging document specifying that an offense has been committed by a person or persons named or described.
A) information
B) grand jury indictment
C) complaint
D) all of the choices are correct
Answer: C
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Q1) One problem with finding an appropriate definition of crime is that:
A) too many behaviors exist that could be defined as crimes.
B) crime should be defined only by the presence of physical injury to another person.
C) many dangerous and harmful behaviors are not defined as crimes, while many less dangerous and less harmful behaviors are.
D) most behaviors that are defined as criminal are actually "victimless crimes."
Answer: C
Q2) Northeastern people and households
A)More likely to be a victim of violent crime
B)Less likely to be a victim of violent crime
Answer: B
Q3) Any record of crimes-such as offenses known to the police,arrests,convictions,or commitments to prison-can be considered a ____,or an estimate of crimes committed. A) crime index
B) dark figure of crime
C) true amount of crime
D) crime rate
Answer: A
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Q1) Your text names four types of heredity studies.Three are listed below.Which one does NOT belong?
A) somatotype studies
B) family trees
C) twin studies
D) statistical comparisons
Answer: A
Q2) Men's control over women's labor and sexuality is ______.
A) praxis
B) patriarchy
C) class struggle
D) ecology
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following theories is based on the belief that criminals are physiologically different from noncriminals?
A) classical theory
B) biological positivism
C) psychological positivism
D) sociological positivism
Answer: B
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Q1) Substantive law,sometimes called adjective or remedial law,governs the ways in which the procedural laws are to be administered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following cases was the exclusionary rule extended to state courts?
A) Mapp v. Ohio
B) Terry v. Ohio
C) Hurtado v. California
D) Benton v. Maryland
Q3) _____ is a formal means of social control that involves the use of rules that are interpreted,and are enforceable,by the courts of a political community.The function of the rules is to set limits to the conduct of the citizens,to guide the officials (police and other administrators),and to define conditions of deviance or unacceptable behavior.
A) substantive law
B) procedural law
C) civil law
D) criminal law
Q4) Name the five ideal features of good criminal laws.
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Q1) The basic concepts of American law enforcement and criminal justice originated in:
A) New England.
B) Texas.
C) New York.
D) England.
Q2) Because of relatively low wages,private security officers frequently work part-time or have another primary job and use their security job wages to supplement their incomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Breaking up a fight,holding back a crowd at a sporting event,or intervening in a domestic dispute before it gets violent are examples of which of the following local police duties?
A) law enforcement
B) order maintenance or peacekeeping
C) service
D) information gathering
Q4) Your textbook lists Peel's Principles of Policing.Name 5 of these 12 principles.
Q5) Briefly explain what the acronym PEPPAS stands for.
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Q1) Patrols that are "systematically unsystematic" and observant in an attempt to both deter and ferret out crime on their beats are known as random or ____ patrol.
A) foot
B) directed
C) preventive
D) aggressive
Q2) Your textbook lists nine critical functions of investigators.Name five of these.
Q3) Emphasis is on helping in the community
A)Legalistic
B)Watchman
C)Service
Q4) The most widely used crime-mapping application is probably ______.
A) crime scene investigations
B) the determination of gunshot origins
C) resource allocation
D) CompStat
Q5) Name the three essential and complementary components or operational strategies.
Q6) Name and define the four special characteristics that successful police work requires,as described in your textbook.
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Q1) In cases involving lesser felonies,misdemeanors,and petty offenses,police officers are more likely to:
A) formally report the crime.
B) informally handle the crime.
C) do nothing.
D) make a physical arrest.
Q2) The practice of relying on the judgment of the police leadership and rank-and-file officers to decide which laws to enforce is referred to as:
A) limited discretion.
B) selective enforcement.
C) high discretion.
D) full enforcement.
Q3) Your textbook lists seven advantages to hiring college-educated police officers.Name four of these advantages.
Q4) Affirmative action has been relatively successful in increasing the percentage of women in policing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Name the five major rationales or justifications that have been given for punishments imposed by the criminal courts.
Q2) A 2005 poll found that more than ____ of Americans nationwide believed that an innocent person had been executed in the last 5 years.
A) 10 percent
B) 70 percent
C) 25 percent
D) 50 percent
Q3) How many states have laws that protect the basic rights of crime victims in the criminal justice system?
A) 0
B) 4
C) 26
D) 50
Q4) Nearly ____ of state trial court decisions are affirmed on appeal.
A) 80 percent
B) 60 percent
C) 40 percent
D) 20 percent
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Q1) With this sentencing,the second type of determinate sentencing,a specified number of years of imprisonment,usually within a range,is provided for particular crimes.
A)Indeterminate sentence
B)Determinate sentence
C)Flat-time sentencing
D)Mandatory sentencing
E)Presumptive sentencing
Q2) From which of the following sources does the federal government's Crime Victims Fund receive its funding?
A) annual congressional appropriations
B) fees for federal gun registration
C) fines and penalties paid by federal criminal offenders
D) all of the choices are correct
Q3) Which of the following countries typically executes the most people?
A) U.S.
B) Iran
C) China
D) Pakistan
Q4) Name the five methods of execution currently in use in the United States.
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Q1) Internal security at this level consists of such features as cell-block living,restrictions on inmate movement,and the capability of closing off areas of the institution to contain riots and disruptions.
A)Supermaximum-security
B)Maximum-security
C)High/close-security
D)Medium-security
E)Minimum-security
Q2) Group counseling is more popular than individual counseling in institutional settings,primarily because:
A) inmates frequently prefer talking about their problems and fears in front of groups of their peers.
B) it is more economical and there are large numbers of inmates who share similar backgrounds and problems.
C) although it is less economical, the prison system wants to do what is best for the inmates.
D) inmates demand it.
Q3) What are the three types of institutions that dominated 20th-century corrections,according to John Irwin?
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT commonly cited as a reason for high rates of prison violence?
A) improper management and classification practices by staff
B) high levels of crowding and competition over resources
C) the young age of most inmates in many prisons
D) all of the choices are cited
Q2) Staff brutality
A)First Amendment
B)Eighth Amendment
C)Fourteenth Amendment
Q3) According to a recent national study of recidivism among state prisoners,what percent of nearly 300,000 former inmates released from prisons in 1994 were rearrested for a new offense within 3 years of their release?
A) 14.5
B) 46.5
C) 67.5
D) 81.5
Q4) Explain the four typical ways in which inmates may be released from prison.
Q5) Your textbook names four types of victimization that occur in prisons.Name all four of them.
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Q1) Which of the following states had the largest probation population at year-end 2004?
A) Ohio
B) Florida
C) Texas
D) California
Q2) Which of the following is used with people leaving prison?
A) Probation
B) Probation revocation
C) Bail
D) Parole
Q3) In all states,probation administration is a local function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Who is considered the "father" of probation?
A) John Augustus
B) Alexander Machonochie
C) Walter Crofton
D) Zebulon Brockway
Q5) Name the four fundamental objectives of parole.
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Q1) Requires offenders to compensate victims for damages to property or for physical injuries
A)Probation
B)Intensive-supervision probation
C)Restitution
D)Wilderness probation (outdoor adventure) programs
E)Day treatment programs
F)Foster homes
G)Group homes
H)Aftercare programs
Q2) Your textbook names four typical police responses to juvenile cases.Which of the following is NOT one of those typical responses?
A) Refer to school
B) Refer to parents
C) Refer to court
D) Refer to a diversionary program
Q3) The formality of the juvenile court may explain why most youths contest the charges against them.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Why has transnational organized crime been so difficult for law enforcement agencies to address in Russia as late as the 1990s?
A) no laws against organized crime existed
B) there were no criminal penalties for phony businesses or fictitious bankruptcies
C) there was little financial or social support for law enforcement itself
D) all of the choices are correct
Q2) Due process model advocates generally agree that prosecutors and judges can predict accurately which defendants actually pose a significant threat and which do not.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common technique used in identity theft?
A) dumpster diving
B) shoulder surfing
C) sneaky peaky
D) spamming
Q4) Your textbook names several types of criminal justice technology that are currently on the drawing board.Name five of them.
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