

Criminal Psychology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Criminal Psychology explores the psychological factors influencing criminal behavior, examining the minds and motivations of offenders through both theoretical frameworks and real-world case studies. The course covers topics such as the development of criminal behavior, psychological profiling, the role of mental disorders in crime, interrogation techniques, and the assessment and rehabilitation of offenders. Students will gain an understanding of how psychological principles are applied within the criminal justice system, including law enforcement and court proceedings, and will analyze the social, environmental, and cognitive factors that contribute to criminal actions.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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51 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious

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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss why it might be difficult for a psychologist to maintain her impartiality as a scientist and still successfully fulfill her role as an expert testifying in court.
Answer: Main points:
The U.S. legal system is adversarial.
Often, experts are hired by either defense or prosecution, with the expectation of helping one side of the trial.
Lawyers tend to "shop around" for an expert who would testify the way the lawyer needs.
Expert herself may have ideals or convictions she wants to advocate for.
Being effective as an expert in court requires presenting a clear-cut, easy-to-understand picture.
At the same time, science is rarely clear-cut or simple, it requires objectivity and skepticism about your own findings; conflicting explanations for the same facts are not uncommon.
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3
Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brandeis's brief in Muller v Oregon (1908) was a milestone in the development of the psychology and law union because it:
A) relied on expert testimony from professional psychologists.
B) expanded graduate training for psychologists.
C) mandated the use of research training for judges.
D) opened the door for U.S. courts to use social scientific evidence.
Answer: D
Q2) According to the text, the goal of psychology is to ____, whereas the goal of the legal system is to _____.
A) emphasize the characteristics of groups; emphasize individual cases
B) emphasize individual cases; emphasize the characteristics of groups
C) apply abstract principles; understand the general nature of humans
D) develop legal protocol; generalize details of a case
Answer: A
Q3) The primary goal of psychological science is to:
A) provide guidelines for behavior.
B) regulate human behavior.
C) demonstrate how punishment works.
D) provide accurate explanations of human behavior.
Answer: D

Page 4
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientific studies evaluating the D.A.R.E. program found that the program _____ because "just say no" to drugs _____.
A) works well; is a highly effective slogan
B) is only effective in reducing social drug use; changes brain patterns
C) increases the use of alcohol and tobacco; creates an impression that substances other than drugs are not as bad in comparison
D) reduces not only the use of drugs but of alcohol and tobacco as well; easily translates into saying no to other harmful substances as well
Answer: C
Q2) The legal realism movement that has re-energized the dormant field of law and social science in the late 1920s and 1930s has all of the following as its key principles, EXCEPT:
A) laws reflect immutable principles found in nature.
B) laws must be continually re-examined and adjusted.
C) law is one of the tools to make society better.
D) law is only as good as its effects.
Answer: A
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Page 5

Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
Q2) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
Q3) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ultimate goal of questioning suspects is to:
A) elicit a confession.
B) define parameters for search.
C) determine best search techniques.
D) provide a basis for DNA analysis.
Q2) Michelle is in custody and being interrogated. One of the police officers is being nice and tries to empathize with her while the other one glares at her and accuses her of committing the crime because of her greed. The behavior of the police officers is an example of:
A) providing a sense of control.
B) convincing Michelle that there is no proof of her guilt.
C) playing "good cop-bad cop."
D) establishing a sense of social isolation.
Q3) The purpose of exculpatory scenarios is to:
A) provide various possible reasons for the crime to have been committed.
B) increase probability of admission of guilt through offering a justification for actions.
C) reduce confusing circumstances, so an admission of guilt is easier to produce.
D) maximize the importance of the suspect's reason for committing the crime.
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) The ruling by a judge that a confession is inadmissible because it was coerced is:
A) common.
B) illegal.
C) rare.
D) poor.
Q2) What was traditionally called "the third degree" refers to:
A) interrogation tactics that included direct physical violence.
B) interrogation tactics that used purely psychological means of coercion.
C) the good cop-bad cop approach.
D) having three officers present during an interrogation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of an exculpatory scenario?
A) "Did you plan this, or did it just happen on the spur of the moment?"
B) "Was this your own idea or did someone talk you into it?"
C) "I'm sure you took the money to help your family."
D) "Have you done this type of thing before?"
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
Q2) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
Q3) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When police detectives were assessed as to their ability to detect lies, according to the text, they were _____ likely to correctly assess the truthfulness of videotaped statements compared with college students.
A) more
B) less C) equally as
D) significantly more
Q2) There are several problems with polygraph techniques that use the standard procedures like CQT. Which of the following is NOT one of these problems?
A) In some people, lying produces little physiological response.
B) There is lack of standardization and significant subjectivity in polygraph examiners' scoring.
C) People who do not have faith in the validity of the polygraph may not respond in the way examiners expect.
D) Polygraph techniques work especially well if a person believes the polygraph is nearly infallible.
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10

Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are described in the text as promising lie-detection technologies being developed currently EXCEPT:
A) criteria-based content analysis (CBCA).
B) hand micromovement tracing.
C) electroencephalogram (EEG).
D) high-definition infrared thermal imaging.
Q2) The theory behind the polygraph test is based on the assumption that:
A) the act of lying will cause increased brain activity.
B) telling the truth will cause increased gastrointestinal activity.
C) the act of lying will cause physiological arousal.
D) telling the truth will cause a decrease in neural impulse activity.
Q3) Experimental research has demonstrated that when actual interrogation training videos are used, training _____ the ability to detect deception and makes people _____ confident about their judgments.
A) improves; less
B) does not improve; more C) improves; more
D) does not improve; less
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
Q2) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
Q3) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical evidence may include:
A) fingerprints, fabric threads, and tire prints.
B) tire prints, shoe prints, and saliva.
C) marks for a tool, fingerprints, and skin cells.
D) bite marks, semen, and blood.
Q2) Biometrics is the:
A) study of facial features.
B) study of skull shapes.
C) identification of anomalies for the purpose of matching.
D) identification based on measurable anatomical traits.
Q3) Temporal consistency is sometimes referred to as:
A) test-retest reliability.
B) inter-rater reliability.
C) measure of validity.
D) inter-observer agreement.
Q4) Forensic evidence is almost always tested _____.
A) at the crime scene, and the results are available within minutes.
B) at the crime scene, and the suspect is identified in 50% of cases.
C) in labs independently financed by a neutral party.
D) in labs closely affiliated with the prosecution. Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic

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Q1) The process of linking a piece of physical trace evidence to an individual (suspect) is called:
A) anthropometry.
B) biometrics.
C) forensic identification.
D) iris scanning.
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) It is very difficult to calculate the rate of false positive matches for most types of trace evidence.
B) Judges always welcome information about the rate of false positives on the basis that it is useful.
C) Judges often consider professional experience as more important than a solid scientific foundation.
D) Many scholars criticize the word 'match' as a misleading and biased way to describe evidence.
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15

Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
Q2) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
Q3) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychological profiling mostly relies on _____ of a particular profiler.
A) psychological education
B) clinical experience
C) intuition
D) psychic abilities
Q2) According to the text, the attempt to examine the psychological state of an individual prior to his or her death is known as:
A) the NASH system.
B) geographic profiling.
C) psychological autopsy.
D) probative evidence.
Q3) The characteristics of serial killers seem to have _____ though there _____ common to all serial killers.
A) little similarity; are a few traits
B) some recurring patterns; are only two characteristics
C) a lot of similarities; are only two characteristics
D) some recurring patterns; are no characteristics
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Page 17

Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whereas _____ profiling relies on instinct, _____ profiling relies on maps and mathematics.
A) criminal; psychological
B) psychological; mathematical C) musical; actuarial
D) psychological; geographic
Q2) Most serial murder cases _____ solved by diligent police work _____ profiles. A) are not; but rather by B) are not; nor by C) are; with a huge help from D) are; and not by
Q3) Somebody has murdered a dark-haired pre-pubescent girl in the area last year and left her mutilated body near the train tracks. This year, another dark-haired girl of about the same age was murdered and her body left near the train tracks in the same general area. According to the textbook, can it be a serial killer's job?
A) Yes because there are enough similarities between the two cases.
B) Not conclusive because there were less than 3 cases with similarities.
C) Only if there is DNA evidence left on the scene of both crimes.
D) It is either a serial killer or a mass murderer.
Page 18
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
Q2) How effective is scientific jury selection?
Q3) Explain the voir dire process.
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) Automatic exemptions, for such things as being the primary caretaker for a child or having a serious health condition, might be granted, because serving on a jury would cause the potential juror:
A) undue hardship or inconvenience.
B) too much stress.
C) loss of salary.
D) undue hardship as a result of employment.
Q2) Mock jury studies show that specialized questionnaires _____ provide important information about juror characteristics and slightly improve predictions about a juror's voting on a verdict.
A) asking about jurors' views of right and wrong
B) asking about jurors' attitudes towards the criminal justice system
C) assessing jurors' strengths and weaknesses
D) assessing jurors' self-control and confidence about themselves
Q3) According to the text, all of the following shrink the size of the jury pool, EXCEPT: A) no-shows.
B) exemptions.
C) exclusions.
D) summons.

Page 20
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) In civil cases, the standard of proof for being held liable is _____, while in criminal cases, it is _____.
A) beyond a reasonable doubt; clear and convincing evidence
B) clear and convincing evidence; preponderance of the evidence
C) preponderance of the evidence; beyond a reasonable doubt
D) reasonable person standard; clear and convincing evidence
Q2) The last opportunity for questioning a witness occurs during _______ examination.
A) cross
B) direct
C) redirect
D) recross
Q3) An attorney may use a peremptory challenge to:
A) dismiss a potential juror because of bias or prejudice.
B) dismiss a potential juror without giving a reason.
C) request a change of venue or a retrial.
D) find evidence inadmissible at trial.
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21

Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
Q2) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
Q3) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eyewitness testimony is very important in the court trials. It has been a subject of multiple research studies. Psychological studies find that eyewitness testimony is:
A) more reliable than most people think.
B) more fallible that one would suppose.
C) only reliable if preceded by expert testimony.
D) more reliable in court than in police settings.
Q2) When presented with a lineup, Alexis was able to identify the perpetrator of a robbery she had witnessed. She was not sure of her identification at first, but when the investigator mentioned that another witness had also chosen the same suspect, her confidence that she remembered the perpetrator well grew close to 100%. This is an illustration of:
A) scripts.
B) unconscious transference.
C) post-identification feedback effect.
D) bias-reducing instructions.
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Cutler, Penrod, and Dexter (1990) conducted several experiments exposing mock jurors to expert testimony about the accuracy of eyewitnesses. The authors of this study found that participants who were NOT exposed to the expert testimony:
A) underestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
B) tended to side with the prosecution.
C) overestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
D) tended to side with the defense.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a system variable in eyewitness identification?
A) How a witness is questioned.
B) How lineups are administered.
C) The order of questions asked by the police.
D) The race of the victim.
Q3) When eyewitnesses view a simultaneous lineup, they tend to compare people in the lineup with one another and then identify the person who most looks like their mental image of the criminal. To remedy this situation, lineups should be:
A) administered simultaneously.
B) administered sequentially.
C) video recorded.
D) preceded by expert testimony.

Page 24
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q2) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
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25

Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Prior to Jackson v. Indiana (1972), all of the following were true about defendants that were deemed to be incompetent, EXCEPT:
A) they could be held in mental institutions indefinitely.
B) about half of them spent the rest of their lives in mental institutions.
C) they stayed in mental asylums no longer than their prison sentence was served.
D) hospital stays often exceeded the sentences that could have been given for their crimes.
Q2) To commit someone to a mental institution for an indefinite period of time, an individual must be deemed either _____ or _____.
A) gravely disabled; imminently dangerous to self or others
B) in need of mental health treatment; suicidal
C) unable to provide for their basic needs; dangerous to their family pets
D) physically unfit; in need of mental health treatment
Q3) If the accused is deemed nonrestorable, then criminal charges are:
A) refiled within the next 3 years.
B) continued in conjunction with therapy.
C) dismissed or suspended.
D) reevaluated by the jury.
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) In the case of _____, the Supreme Court held that separate psychological evaluations of competency to waive one's rights to counsel or plead guilty are not required once a defendant has been found competent to stand trial.
A) Miranda v. Arizona (1966)
B) United States v. Charters (1988)
C) Dusky v. United States (1960)
D) Godinez v. Moran (1993)
Q2) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court limit the period of confinement to the time necessary to determine if the defendant could be returned to competence in the foreseeable future?
A) Jackson v. Indiana (1972).
B) Washington v. Harper (1990).
C) Sell v. United States (2003).
D) Ford v. Wainwright (1986).
Q3) Competency to stand trial refers to the psychological state of the defendant:
A) at the time of the crime.
B) during pre-trial proceedings.
C) at the time of sentencing.
D) at the time of trial.
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Page 27

Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q3) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) A highly publicized 1978 trial in California brought up the influence of heavy ingestion of junk food on mental state. The defense of the accused, Dan White, was referred to as the:
A) Little Debbie defense.
B) Cinnabon defense.
C) Big Mac defense.
D) Twinkie defense.
Q2) Mens rea refers to _____, whereas actus reus refers to _____.
A) committing a crime; a guilty mind
B) vicarious learning; a criminal act
C) specific deterrence; general deterrence
D) a guilty mind; a criminal act
Q3) Volitional capacity refers to the defendant's:
A) being unable to understand court proceedings.
B) showing a substantial cognitive deficit when tested.
C) being unable to control his or her behavior.
D) wishing he or she has not done what they did.
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29

Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Successful insanity pleas are associated with all of these psychiatric illnesses EXCEPT:
A) psychosis.
B) mental retardation.
C) personality disorders.
D) mood disorders.
Q2) Malingering refers to:
A) an inability to distinguish right from wrong.
B) exaggerating or faking a mental disorder.
C) having a mental illness and using it as a basis for an insanity defense.
D) having a mental illness and not raising this fact at trial.
Q3) Andrea Yates was diagnosed with:
A) schizophrenia.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) postpartum mental illness.
D) bipolar disorder.
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
Q3) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Several factors need to be considered in legal settings to understand how the dynamics of violence works and why battered women stay with their abusers. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A) How charming and charismatic was the abuser?
B) How much support did the victim receive from family and friends?
C) Did the victim make previous efforts to leave and what happened then?
D) Is the victim economically dependent on her abuser?
Q2) Judicial nullification instruction can best be described as an instruction that lets jurors know that they can _____ a strict interpretation of the law if that legal interpretation would result in an unjust verdict.
A) only follow
B) disregard
C) pursue
D) summarize
Q3) The term rape trauma syndrome (RTS) can best be described as a:
A) legal term.
B) medical term.
C) cluster of symptoms identified in a sample of rape victims.
D) psychological term applicable to all victims of abuse.
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Page 32

Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) According to the text, serious violence is much more likely to occur when:
A) males assault their female partners.
B) females assault their male partners.
C) females assault their female rivals.
D) males assault their male intimate partners.
Q2) All of the following are descriptions of what syndrome is EXCEPT:
A) a pattern of behaviors describing a group of similar people.
B) a cluster of related symptoms that lead to a significant dysfunction.
C) a set of psychological and emotional reactions to a specific event.
D) a group of symptoms that women experience but men don't.
Q3) Lenore Walker has identified several characteristics that she thought most battered women shared. Which one is NOT among these characteristics?
A) Belief that women should be submissive to their husbands.
B) Tendency to accept responsibility for the abuse.
C) Poor self-image.
D) Poor family upbringing.
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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Sample Questions
Q1) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
Q2) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
Q3) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Suggestive questions can best be described as _____ leading questions _____.
A) excluding; not volunteered by the child.
B) including; not volunteered by the child.
C) excluding; that were unsolicited.
D) including; that were solicited.
Q2) Research has demonstrated that some techniques used in interviewing children in abuse cases have proven to be helpful. These techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) simplified instructions.
B) taking an oath to tell the truth.
C) explicit statement stipulating that the interviewer does not know what happened.
D) asking the same question more than once.
Q3) Hearsay testimony is sometimes admissible in trials where a child is an alleged victim because:
A) children may have a hard time dealing with the individual who may have abused them.
B) children may have difficulty telling the truth in court.
C) prosecutors need to see the victim.
D) defendants want to see the accuser.
Page 35
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) All of the following are the reasons for underreporting of child sexual abuse EXCEPT:
A) very young children may not be able to talk and explain what happened.
B) young children may not interpret what's happening as sexual abuse.
C) children's allegations of sexual abuse are not taken seriously.
D) children may fear retaliation of the abuser.
Q2) What was the outcome in the Wee Care Nursery School case?
A) Kelly Michaels was convicted and sentenced to life in prison and still remains in prison.
B) Kelly Michaels was sentenced to 47 years but was released from prison after 5 years.
C) Kelly Michaels pled guilty to lesser charges and was released on probation.
D) The jury was deadlocked and the case had to be retried before the charges were dropped.
Q3) Loftus (1997) was able to "implant" memories of being "lost in the mall" in what percentage of participants?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) 15%
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Chapter
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Q1) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
Q2) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
Q3) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
Makers
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Q1) A projective test measures an individual's response to:
A) well-defined stimuli.
B) objective material.
C) ambiguous stimuli.
D) an interview.
Q2) Considering the child first and foremost in a custody decision has been reinforced by the establishment of the:
A) best interest of the child standard (BICS).
B) tender years doctrine.
C) primary caretaker rule.
D) Uniform Marriage and Divorce Act (UMDA).
Q3) Research has demonstrated that sexism or gender bias is more likely to influence decision making in custody cases when the guidelines for custody are:
A) vague.
B) short.
C) disparate.
D) strict.
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Page 38

Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) Under the tender years doctrine, unless there were extenuating circumstances, _____ were placed in the custody of the mother.
A) all children
B) only young children
C) young children and female children
D) only female children
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about mediation?
A) It leads to custody agreements more quickly.
B) It is conducted in a non-adversarial setting.
C) It is more costly than litigation.
D) It is faster than litigation.
Q3) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that "custody decisions cannot turn on racial considerations?"
A) Painter v. Bannister
B) Palmore v. Sidoti
C) Myers v. Otto
D) Boswell v. Boswell
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
Q2) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q3) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) The lack of clear evidence often results in jurors considering other factors such as pretrial publicity and prior beliefs. This phenomenon is known as the _____ hypothesis.
A) guilty through association
B) public court accusation
C) liberation
D) presumption
Q2) Interestingly, if a defendant is injured in the course of committing a crime:
A) jurors are more likely to hand down a harsh sentence.
B) jurors are more likely to hand down a lenient sentence.
C) judges and jurors are more likely to disagree about a sentence.
D) judges and jurors are more likely to agree about a sentence.
Q3) A "hung" jury:
A) can reach a unanimous verdict.
B) is forced to reconsider the verdict.
C) cannot reach a unanimous verdict.
D) reaches a majority.
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Which of the following is most strongly correlated with jury verdicts?
A) The severity of filed charges.
B) Pretrial publicity against the defendant.
C) The strength of evidence.
D) The complexity of instructions to the jury.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a stage in the deliberation process?
A) Closed conflict.
B) Orientation.
C) Reconciliation.
D) Open conflict.
Q3) Which of the following states requires judges to pre-instruct juries?
A) Arizona.
B) California.
C) New Mexico.
D) New York.
Q4) Which of the following represents the leniency bias in jury decision making?
A) All-female juries are more lenient.
B) All-minority juries are more lenient.
C) More diverse juries are likely to acquit.
D) Evenly split juries are more likely to acquit.
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Chapter 14: Section 1: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
Q2) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q3) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Kansas v. Hendricks (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that sexually violent predator civil commitment laws did NOT violate double jeopardy. Double jeopardy means that:
A) an individual was punished for two separate crimes in one sentence.
B) an individual was punished two times for the same crime.
C) a defendant was tried twice.
D) the convicted was subjected to two forms of punishment.
Q2) According to a report completed by Gookin (2007), nearly _____ sex offenders have been incarcerated as a result of the SVP laws since 1990. Of that number, _____ have been released as of 2007.
A) 1,000; 555
B) 4,500; 2,000
C) 4,500; 494
D) 10,000; 22
Q3) Placing someone in a psychiatric facility against his or her will is known as:
A) voluntary civil commitment.
B) involuntary civil commitment.
C) involuntary criminal commitment.
D) deinstitutionalization.
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amicus curiae brief submitted by the American Psychiatric Association in Barefoot v. Estelle summarized five studies that indicated expert predictions of future dangerousness were:
A) incorrect 2 out of 3 times.
B) correct about 80% of the time.
C) incorrect 1 out of 3 times.
D) correct about 70% of the time.
Q2) What three states have been responsible for over half the total executions in the United States since 1976?
A) Florida, Georgia, and Alabama
B) California, Mississippi, and Nevada
C) South Carolina, Arkansas, and Florida
D) Texas, Oklahoma, and Virginia
Q3) Actuarial instruments _____ clinical judgement in predicting violence, though scientists raised some concerns about _____.
A) clearly outperform; their impersonal nature
B) clearly outperform; their generalizability
C) do not outperform; the usefulness of either method
D) do not outperform; the questionable scientific techniques involved
Page 45
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
Q2) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
Q3) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two basic forms of sexual harassment at work were identified by:
A) Howard Smith.
B) Peter Glick.
C) Susan Fiske.
D) Catherine MacKinnon.
Q2) In terms of sexual harassment, an explicit exchange, where a threat against a job or promotion is made unless the victim complies sexually, is called:
A) hostile environment.
B) discrimination based on gender.
C) quid pro quo harassment.
D) consensual relationship.
Q3) When an employer treats some workers less favorably as a result of a personal characteristic, such as race or ethnicity, such behavior constitutes:
A) adverse impact.
B) disparate treatment.
C) failure to provide "reasonable" accommodation.
D) cold workplace environment.
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Page 47

Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies show some clear signs that modern forms of racism do exist. For example, one study finds that:
A) subjects report liking Black people slightly less than liking White people, and their facial muscles confirm this reality.
B) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.
C) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that they like Black people significantly more than they report.
D) subjects report liking Black people much less than liking White people, but their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.
Q2) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964:
A) outlawed discrimination based on race.
B) outlawed discrimination based on gender.
C) specifically addressed the issue of sexual harassment in the workplace.
D) outlawed discrimination based on race and gender.
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Chapter 16: Section 1: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
Q2) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
Q3) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sentencing guidelines are put in place to assist judges in making consistent sentencing decisions. Examples of factors that affect sentencing according to the guidelines noted in the text include _____ and _____.
A) prior criminal record; type of crime
B) type of crime; socioeconomic situation
C) circumstances of the current offense; gender
D) socioeconomic situation; prior criminal record
Q2) One of the main problems with the new prisons in the United States was that in addition to being expensive and impractical, the extreme isolation often caused prisoners to become:
A) insane.
B) talkative.
C) violent.
D) workaholics.
Q3) Whether a prisoner receives treatment for a mental disorder is at the discretion of: A) prison doctors.
B) the sentencing judge.
C) the jury.
D) prison wardens.
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of HIV/AIDS among state and federal prisoners is about _____ times higher than the rate for the general population.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12
Q2) After being released from prison, approximately _____ of inmates will be rearrested and sent back to prison within 3 years.
A) 20%
B) 33%
C) 51%
D) 67%
Q3) When an inmate is released from prison before his or her entire sentence has been served, to remain under the supervision of an officer in the community, this is called:
A) probation.
B) parole.
C) suspended sentence.
D) general deterrence.
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
Q2) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
Q3) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following Gregg v. Georgia and its companion cases, all death sentences are:
A) upheld.
B) considered unconstitutional.
C) deemed appropriate.
D) reviewed by state supreme courts.
Q2) Regarding sentencing, Ellsworth and Mauro (1998, p. 720) stated that: "a person denied housing or employment has _____ protection from racial discrimination than a person whose life is at stake."
A) less
B) no less
C) more
D) no more
Q3) In Roper v. Simmons (2005), the Court ruled against juveniles being executed because they are inherently:
A) more impulsive than adults.
B) less impulsive than adults.
C) more culpable than adults.
D) less culpable than adults.
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Baldus, Woodworth, and Pulaski (1990) analyzed 594 homicides in Georgia and found that blacks convicted of killing whites were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases, while whites convicted of killing blacks were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases.
A) 100%; 25%
B) 22%; 3%
C) 31%; 52%
D) 50%; 63%
Q2) Generally, Americans _____ the death penalty. However, when asked to compare it with life without parole, _____ prefer punishment other than the death penalty.
A) favor; a clear majority of respondents
B) dislike; very few
C) favor; very few
D) dislike; only affluent respondents
Q3) The two parts of a bifurcated trial are:
A) defense arguments and prosecution arguments.
B) aggravating factor presentation and mitigating factor presentation.
C) trial presentation and jury deliberation.
D) guilt phase and penalty phase.
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Page 54