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Criminal Justice is an interdisciplinary course that explores the systems, processes, and institutions involved in upholding the law, maintaining social order, and administering justice. Students will examine the key components of the criminal justice system, including law enforcement agencies, courts, and correctional institutions. The course covers fundamental concepts such as crime theories, criminal law, policing practices, the trial process, juvenile justice, and the rights of the accused. Through case studies, discussions, and analysis of contemporary issues, students gain insight into the challenges and ethical considerations facing professionals in this field, as well as the impact of criminal justice policies on society.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Law 4th Edition by Joanne B. Hames
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18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
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Q1) The statute of limitations for damages resulting from an automobile accident is an example of
A) civil substantive law
B) civil procedural law
C) criminal substantive law
D) criminal procedural law
E) none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) In a civil case, if the defendant does not pay a civil judgment, he or she cannot usually be put in jail.
Multiple Choice
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) A right to a court appointed attorney for indigent defendants applies only in criminal cases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The court resolves disputes by:
A) making new laws to meet the situation
B) asking the legislature to make a new law to meet the situation
C) applying existing constitutional, statutory, and case law to the situation
D) applying only existing case law or precedent to the situation
E) none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) The U.S. Supreme Court has the power to declare state laws unconstitutional.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Federalism means that two separate governments, state and federal, regulate citizens in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The federal legislature consists of a bicameral structure.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) Paralegals are bound by rules of confidentiality in dealing with clients of the law firm in which they work.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The U.S. Court of Appeals is primarily a court of original jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) A special relationship of trust and confidence between an attorney and client is known as a fiduciary relationship.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) Individuals must take and pass an examination known as a bar exam before they are licensed to practice law.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) Before comparing your facts and issues with case law, it is important you properly identify:
A) important precedent
B) facts and issues in your client's situation
C) judicial history
D) the question presented
E) explanatory facts
Q2) We look to statutes to provide:
A) concise statements of the law
B) a detailed summary of the law
C) summaries of important cases
D) guidance for the public
E) references to secondary sources
Q3) The official reporter for U.S. Supreme Court cases is
A) Supreme Court Reporter
B) United States Reports
C) Lawyer's Edition
D) The Supreme Court Web Site
E) Westlaw
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Q1) Legal analysis is limited to analyzing case law.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The case brief is often the first step in preparing a formal written analysis, often called:
A) a legal memorandum
B) precedent
C) stare decisis
D) case report
E) none of the above.
Q3) A legal memorandum compares a client's facts with facts of a reported case.
A)True
B)False
Q4) "The actions were quickly regretted by her" is an example of:
A) active voice
B) passive voice
C) use of unnecessary words
D) ambiguous terms
E) none of the above
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Q1) As originally drafted, the U.S. Constitution consisted of A) seven articles
B) seven articles and the bill of rights
C) only a preamble
D) seven articles and twenty-seven amendments
Q2) Freedom of speech protects only political speech; it does not include speech such as advertising.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Free Exercise Clause requires states to allow individual to use peyote during religious ceremonies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The statement, "We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal," is found
A) in the original Constitution
B) in the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment
C) in the Preamble to the Constitution
D) in the Declaration of Independence
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Q1) Strict liability is liability without fault.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The two major defenses to intentional torts are consent and privilege.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vicarious liability is also known as respondeat superior. Multiple Choice
A)True
B)False
Q4) The law will not allow a person to escape liability for dangerous activities by simply: A) leaving the state
B) hiring an independent contractor to perform for them
C) declaring bankruptcy
D) changing his or her procedures after an injury has occurred
E) declaring that the injured person assumed the risk
Q5) Contributory risk is a defense to negligence. A)True B)False
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Q1) A marital partner has no legal interest in quasi-community property.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In all family law matters, the court will be most interested in the welfare of the children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In child custody matters the court will look for solutions that are:
A) easy to enforce
B) in the best interest of the child
C) economically sound
D) designed to keep the parents close to their children
E) designed to move the children around as little as possible
Q4) A premarital agreement may help to protect the assets of persons who plan to marry.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The petition is the pleading used to initiate a family law action.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Technically a trust is a situation where the title to property is divided into two parts: legal title and equitable title.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following may a person not distribute in a will?
A) real property
B) personal property
C) money
D) property owned by another
E) car
Q3) A living trust becomes effective
A) during the life of the settlor
B) upon death of the settlor
C) upon death of the beneficiary
D) when an express trust is created
E) during the probate process
Q4) A trust is a document in which a person makes provisions for the disposition of all real property.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Statute of Frauds
A) requires that all contracts be in writing
B) limits the types of evidence that can be used to prove the terms of the contract
C) provides a remedy for fraudulent acts
D) requires that certain types of contracts be evidenced by a writing
E) requires that written contracts be notarized
Q2) The Uniform Commercial Code controls:
A) contracts for the sale of goods
B) contracts involving interstate commerce
C) contracts involving banks
D) contracts for the sale of real property
E) none of the above
Q3) Contracts by emancipated minors are usually valid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In most contracts the consideration consists of promises to do something.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Each partner in a partnership is the agent of the other partners and is responsible for the torts of the other partners if committed in the course and scope of the partnership.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The owners of a corporation are known as:
A) officers
B) shareholders
C) directors
D) members
E) none of the above
Q3) Exempt assets must be turned over to the Bankruptcy trustee and are used to satisfy the debts of the person filing bankruptcy.
Multiple Choice
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bankruptcy is governed primarily by federal law.
A)True
B)False

Page 13
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Q1) Discovery involves the use of:
A) interrogatories
B) depositions
C) requests for medical examinations
D) requests to produce or inspect
E) all of the above
Q2) The authority of the federal courts to hear trials is known as original jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Personal jurisdiction is in part controlled by the due process clause of the Constitution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not found in a complaint?
A) caption
B) allegations
C) denials
D) prayer
E) signature of attorney
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Q1) A special master is a person usually appointed by a court to resolve disputed pretrial matters in civil actions.
A)True B)False
Q2) To stay a proceeding means to delay or stop the proceeding. A)True
B)False
Q3) A mini-trial is a form of ADR. A)True B)False
Q4) Arbitrators and mediators must be attorneys. Multiple Choice
A)True B)False
Q5) A mediator should always be a neutral person. A)True B)False
Q6) If parties use any form of ADR they give up their right to trial. A)True B)False
Page 15
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Q1) Which of the following is not a defense to a criminal charge?
A) duress
B) self-defense
C) diminished capacity
D) mistake
E) all of the above
Q2) Crimes can be committed against:
A) people
B) society
C) property
D) none of the above
E) all of the above
Q3) Most crimes have two basic elements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In simplistic terms, juveniles are delinquent when they commit a violation of the law.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following is not a pretrial motion in a criminal trial?
A) motion to dismiss
B) motion to suppress evidence
C) motion for a change of venue
D) motion for a grand jury
E) none of the above
Q2) The Fourth Amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The exclusionary rule is a rule of criminal procedure stating that evidence obtained illegally
A) cannot be used at the arraignment
B) cannot be used at trial
C) never really existed
D) cannot be seized
E) must be returned to the person from whom it was seized
Q4) The warrant requirement is designed to protect law enforcement officers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following are types of exhibits?
A) documentary evidence
B) actual evidence
C) demonstrative evidence
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) To impeach a witness means
A) to strike all his testimony
B) to remove him from the witness box
C) to hold him in contempt
D) to call into question his credibility
E) nonel of the above
Q3) A person is competent to testify when
A) the court says the person is competent
B) the parties agree
C) the attorneys agree
D) a and c
E) none of the above
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Q1) Voir dire is the process of questioning the jury to determine their suitability to serve on a jury panel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The deliberation of the jury takes place in private.
Multiple Choice
A)True
B)False
Q3) As part of the jury instructions, the judge explains the jury process and the role of the jurors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The judge will decide which jury instructions to give based on:
A) the legal and factual arguments
B) the overall appropriateness of the instruction
C) whether sufficient evidence was presented during the trial
D) recommended or pattern jury instructions for the jurisdiction
E) all of the above
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Q1) What did the judge rule regarding Gideon's motion for change of venue?
Q2) What was the name of the chief witness against Gideon at the trial?
Q3) Did Gideon have an attorney in his second trial? If so, what was his name, and who paid for him?
SEPARATE BUT EQUAL (Video is available commercially)
To the extent possible from watching the film, answer the following questions.
Q4) Give a brief factual description of what led to this lawsuit.
Q5) What was the name of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court when this case was first brought to the court?
Q6) What is the name of the attorney who represented Briggs?
Q7) Who represented Gideon at the first trial?
Q8) What was the jury verdict in the retrial of Gideon?
Q9) What rule of law (or holding) do we get from the Supreme Court's ruling in this case?
Q10) Which Constitutional Amendment or Amendments were involved in this case?
Q11) Why did the Court rule the way that it did?
Q13) What was the legal issue in the case? Page 20
Q12) Did Abe Fortas think traffic offenders should be entitled to court-appointed counsel?
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