Criminal Justice Systems Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth overview of criminal justice systems, focusing on their structures, functions, and processes across various countries and jurisdictions. Students will examine the roles and interactions of key components such as law enforcement, the courts, and correctional agencies. The course explores how crime is defined, investigated, adjudicated, and sanctioned, as well as the challenges facing contemporary criminal justice, including issues of fairness, policy reform, and the impact of social and cultural factors. Through comparative analysis and real-world examples, learners will develop a comprehensive understanding of how criminal justice systems aim to maintain social order and promote justice.
Recommended Textbook
CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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17 Chapters
849 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) The smallest and top tier of the "wedding-cake" model of criminal justice focuses on high profile cases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the purposes of the criminal justice System?
A) to control crime
B) to prevent crime
C) to provide and maintain justice
D) to create laws regarding punishments for crime
Answer: D
Q3) __________ is the act of taking property from another person without the use of force with the intent of keeping that property.
Answer: Larceny
Q4) The crime control model is a criminal justice model that places primary emphasis on the right of the individual to be protected from the power of the government.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter that has been linked to crime?
A) testosterone
B) norepinephrine
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
Answer: A
Q2) _________ drugs have chemicals that affect the brain, causing changes in emotions, perceptions, and behavior.
Answer: Psychoactive
Q3) The study of crime as it is related to social structure is NOT tied to which of the following theory?
A) labeling theory
B) cultural deviance theory
C) social disorganization theory
D) strain theory
Answer: A
Q4) __________ psychology is a branch of psychology that studies how people's thoughts and behaviors are influenced by the presence of others.
Answer: Social
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Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Q1) When the crime is __________ it means that it was planned and decided on after a process of decision making.
Answer: deliberate
Q2) Identify the publication in which the FBI reports crime data and list the three ways in which the data is reported.
Answer: -The FBI Uniform Crime Report is an annual report compiled by the FBI to give an indication of criminal activity in the United States.
-The three ways in which the data is reported are:1) as a rate per 100,000 people, 2) as a percentage change from the previous year or other time periods, 3) as an aggregate, or a total number of crimes
Q3) A serious crime, usually punishable by death or imprisonment for a year or longer, is a(n):
A) misdemeanor
B) felony
C) deviance
D) infraction
Answer: B
Q4) The __________ party in a court case proceeding is called the plaintiff.
Answer: injured
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Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) Explain the development of the due process clause to the Constitution.
Q2) What would the defense be for a woman, thinking that her divorce in another state has been finalized when it has not, marries for a second time, thereby committing bigamy?
A) infancy
B) insanity
C) mistake
D) entrapment
Q3) The act of taking substantial steps toward committing a crime while having the ability and the intent to commit the crime, even if the crime never takes place is called
Q4) The Eight Amendment to the Constitution protects against which of the following?
A) unreasonable searches and seizures
B) self-incrimination
C) cruel and unusual punishment
D) double jeopardy
Q5) __________ is when unlawful pressure is brought to bear on a person, causing the person to perform an act that he or she would not otherwise perform.
Q6) __________ _________ is a person's mental state, or intent.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) Which of the following is not an agency that is housed in the Department of Homeland Security?
A) U.S. Customs and Border Protection
B) Federal Bureau of Investigation
C) U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
D) U.S. Secret Service
Q2) Who investigates cases of tax evasion and fraud?
A) Department of Homeland Security
B) Department of Justice
C) Department of the Treasury
D) Federal Bureau of Investigation
Q3) The Secret Service is responsible for the Treasury Police Force.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The demand for private security in the United States has been:
A) growing
B) decreasing
C) staying the same
D) exhausted
Q5) List and explain the four basic responsibilities of the police.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) Deadly force is the degree of force that is appropriate to protect the police officer or other citizens and is not excessive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is DNA fingerprinting so useful in criminal investigations?
A) because no two people, other than identical twins, have the same DNA B) because detectives can find useable DNA at every crime scene C) because DNA can always be obtained without a warrant D) because DNA evidence is always conclusive
Q3) A cold hit is the establishment of a connection between a suspect and a crime in the absence of an ongoing criminal investigation
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how ethical breaches committed by police officers undermine public confidence in law enforcement?
Q5) Explain the differences between the police academy and field training and why it is important for officers to have both types of training.
Q6) The primary police investigator of crimes is called a __________.
8
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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) The U.S. Supreme Court case that set the precedent for the definition of "reasonable" suspicion was:
A) Davis v. United States
B) Maryland v. Wilson
C) Miranda v. Arizona
D) Terry v. Ohio
Q2) Explain the exclusionary rule and the "fruit of the poisoned tree" doctrine. Describe how these rules/concepts affect police officers.
Q3) Explain the four different categories of items that may be seized under a search warrant.
Q4) What is the intent of an officer in an arrest?
A) to investigate suspicious activity
B) to make a formal charge against a suspect
C) to conduct a full search for weapons or evidence
D) to frisk or pat down for weapons
Q5) Taking a person into custody who is suspected of criminal activity is called a/an
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Q6) Explain at least four of the circumstances where a Miranda warning does not have to be given to a person being questioned.
Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) The __________ is a rule of the United States Supreme Court that the Court will not issue a writ of certiorari unless at least four justices approve of the decision to hear the case.
Q2) The legitimacy of the courts in the United States is based on two factors, impartiality and __________.
A) independence
B) jurisdiction
C) politics
D) statutes
Q3) The __________ is responsible for maintaining security and order in the judge's chambers and the courtroom.
Q4) Explain how the Missouri Plan of judicial selection occurs.
Q5) Explain the difference in jurisdiction between trial courts and appellate courts?
Q6) When an appellate court sends a back to the court of original jurisdiction for a new trial it means that case has been __________.
Q7) The social organization consisting of the judge, prosecutor, defense attorney, and other court workers is called the __________.
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) The prosecutor in federal criminal cases is called the:
A) defense attorney
B) public prosecutor
C) U.S. Attorney
D) district attorney
Q2) In court the interests of the state or federal government are represented by the:
A) defendant
B) defense attorney
C) public prosecutor
D) victim
Q3) Which of the following holds that the government must provide a public defender For those defendants too poor to hire one for themselves?
A) The Strickland Standard
B) The Gideon Protection
C) attorney-client privilege
D) adversarial standard
Q4) Explain at least three of the screening factors that prosecutors consider in deciding to prosecute.
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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) An instruction by a judge to a deadlocked jury that asks the jurors in the minority to reconsider the majority opinion is called a(n):
A) Adamson charge
B) Allen charge
C) Miranda charge
D) Batson charge
Q2) In general, prosecutions for murder and other offenses that carry the death penalty do not have a statute of limitations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The bar against double jeopardy does not stop a victim from bringing a(n) __________ against the same person?
A) criminal charge
B) civil suit
C) adjudication
D) appeal
Q4) Explain what "taking the Fifth" really means and why this is critical right in the U.S. justice system.
Q5) To be tried twice for the same criminal offense is called __________.
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) Explain the difference between sentencing disparity and sentencing discrimination.
Q2) Juries must be involved in both stages of the bifurcated process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Capital punishment is a sentencing option in fifty states and in the federal government.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A statement to the sentencing body (judge, jury, or parole board) in which a person is given the opportunity to describe how the crime has affected her or him is called a(n):
A) victim impact statement
B) victim report
C) contested sentence
D) appeal
Q5) __________ is the philosophy that those who commit criminal acts should be punished based on the severity of the crime.
Q6) Capital offenses are another name for crimes whose punishment results in
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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) According to research, in which of the following circumstances would an offender likely be granted probation instead of incarceration?
A) If the individual was on probation or parole at the time of the arrest.
B) If the individual injured the victim of the crime.
C) If the individual only had minor prior convictions.
D) If the individual used a non-lethal weapon during the commission of the crime.
Q2) The process by which the government seizes private property attached to criminal activity is called __________.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a form of electronic monitoring?
A) GPS for location monitoring
B) phone calls by an officer of the court
C) ankle bracelets for testing consumption
D) continuous signaling devices
Q4) A boot camp is a community-based corrections center to which offenders report on a daily basis for purposes of treatment, education, and rehabilitation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how probation can be revoked.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) Explain what the jail population in the United States looks like in terms of the sex, ethnic makeup, and race of inmates.
Q2) The __________ model is based on the assumption that prisoners are incarcerated for reasons of incapacitation, deterrence, and retribution.
Q3) A correctional institution designed and organized to control and discipline for the most dangerous felons in the U.S. is called a(n) __________.
Q4) There are more __________(race/ethnicity) men behind bars than enrolled in the nation's colleges and universities.
Q5) Prisons reserved for the "worst of the worst" are known as _________ prisons.
Q6) The __________ design has been utilized since the early nineteenth century. The wagon wheel form of the structure was created with the dual goals of separation and control.
Q7) Order in prison is defined as the absence of misconduct such as murder, assault, and rape.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Explain what the concept of the "burden of jail administration" means.
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) A __________ is an agreement between the state and the offender that establishes the conditions under which the latter will be granted parole.
Q2) According to Irwin, which of the following is NOT one of the patterns of inmate behavior that driven by the inmate's personality and values?
A) professional criminals adapt to prison by "doing time"
B) some convicts are more comfortable inside prison than outside C) other inmates take advantage of prison resources to improve themselves
D) "organized" criminals exist on the fringes of prison society
Q3) __________ guards spend their entire shifts in isolated, silent posts high above the grounds of the facility.
Q4) Which of the following terms is the release from prison that occurs when an offender has served the full length of his or her sentence, minus any adjustments for good time?
A) Mandatory release
B) Parole
C) Pardon
D) Discretionary release
Q5) Explain the process of parole revocation.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) The process during which an official of the court decides whether to file a petition, release the juvenile, or place the juvenile under some other form of supervision is known as the referral.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding school violence?
A) students are safer in schools than they are on the streets
B) students are more likely to be killed in schools than in their neighborhoods
C) the media under reports the violence in schools
D) school violence has increased since 1995
Q3) A __________ is a juvenile who has been found to have engaged in behavior deemed unacceptable for those under a certain statutorily determined age.
Q4) Wolfgang and his colleagues determined that chronic offenders are responsible for half of all crimes and two-thirds of all violent crimes within any given cohort. They termed these individuals the:
A) reoffenders
B) chronic 6 percent
C) outsiders
D) delinquent
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Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) The Patriot Act was passed as a result of which of the following?
A) the bombing of the U.S.S. Cole
B) the bombing of the Murrow Building in Oklahoma City
C) the events of Pearl Harbor
D) the events of September 11 , 2001
Q2) An entity that plays a role in international affairs but does not represent any established state or nation is called a(n) __________.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of WMDs?
A) biological weapons
B) chemical weapons
C) nuclear weapons
D) ecoweapons
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an agency found under the Department of Homeland Security?
A) FEMA
B) TSA
C) NSA
D) ICE
Q5) Identify and explain three important trends in international terrorism.
Q6) Explain the different types of weapons of mass destruction.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) Businesses sometimes fail to report cybercrimes for fear of losing customer confidence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the three roles a computer can take on in a criminal act?
A) object
B) subject
C) instrument
D) model
Q3) Many experts believe that Internet-enabled crime is going to increase dramatically in the near future.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The illegal production and sales of material depicting sexually explicit conduct involving a child is called:
A) statutory rape
B) child sex trade
C) sex trafficking
D) child pornography
Page 19
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