Criminal Justice Systems Practice Exam - 997 Verified Questions

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Criminal Justice Systems Practice Exam

Course Introduction

This course offers an in-depth exploration of the structures, processes, and functions of criminal justice systems, focusing primarily on the United States while providing comparative insights from international models. Students will examine the roles of law enforcement, courts, and corrections, analyzing how these components interact to uphold laws, administer justice, and protect public safety. Key topics include the foundations of criminal law, the rights of the accused, case processing from arrest to sentencing, and the societal impacts and challenges facing contemporary justice systems. Through case studies and critical analysis, students will develop an understanding of issues such as due process, ethical dilemmas, policy reform, and the impact of crime and punishment on communities.

Recommended Textbook

Crime and Criminal Justice Concepts and Controversies 1st Edition by Stacy L.

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Mallicoat

Chapter 1: Crime and Criminal Justice

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain the crime control model,and explain the reasoning behind one common critique of this model.

Answer: Key points should include that the crime control model believes that the most important function of the criminal justice system is to suppress and control criminal behavior as a function of public order in society.One major critique of this model is the willingness to violate individual liberties in the interest of protecting and ensuring public safety.

Q2) Select the response that incorrectly represents the wedding cake model of justice.

A) It helps us understand how cases can be treated differently by the criminal justice process.

B) It illustrates that the media can impact cases in the criminal justice system.

C) It illustrates that misdemeanor offenses are more common than felonies.

D) It illustrates that serious felonies are more common than lesser felonies. Answer: D

Q3) If a person committed a simple assault,which layer of the wedding cake model would he or she fall into,and how would his or her case likely progress? Explain.

Answer: Bottom.Plea bargain or less severe punishment; up to one year in jail.

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Chapter 2: Concepts of Law and Justice

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Q1) What is statutory law?

Answer: Laws that are established by governments.

Q2) Discuss two historical influences on modern U.S.criminal law.

Answer: Code of Hammurabi (lex talionis)and Twelve Tables and stood as the foundation of the Roman law and juries.English common law with judges settling disputes led to the notion of precedent.

Q3) Should marijuana be legalized? Support your response.

Answer: Yes,it's widely used,not as harmful as some legal substances,and expensive to arrest and prosecute.There is racially biased enforcement of the laws against marijuana.If legalized,more research could be conducted,as it seems to help with many health-related issues.No,it's a dangerous substance,and with easier access,more people might use it.

Q4) Should the Miranda warnings be abolished? Support your answer.

Answer: Yes,police might get better information from suspects.Fewer confessions may lead to fewer convictions.And why inform suspects of their rights? Most people know the Miranda warning by heart.No,confessions happen anyway.There is no support for fewer confessions leading to fewer convictions,as there aren't fewer confessions with the Miranda warnings.Police may become more coercive.

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Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime

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Sample Questions

Q1) Compare and contrast self-reports and the NCVS.

Answer: NCVS looks at self-reported victimization and gets at the dark figure,asking if the victimization was reported and if not,why not.Self-report data also get at the dark figure but ask questions about a person's involvement in crime.Some self-report studies are national as well,though not all,and some are longitudinal and can speak to crime desistance too.

Q2) These actions,most commonly committed by juveniles,are actions that are only considered illegal for certain groups.

A) Victimless crimes

B) Crimes against the government

C) Status offenses

D) Property crimes

Answer: C

Q3) One of the major weaknesses of the NCVS is its inability to capture the dark figure of crime.This is something the UCR gives us a much better picture of.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Explanations of Criminal Behavior

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Q1) Jason sells drugs in an effort to make money and gain status in life.Which mode of adaptation best describes Jason?

A) Ritualism

B) Rebellion

C) Retreatism

D) Innovation

Q2) __________ theories of crime explore the large-scale social explanations for crime.

A) Macro

B) Micro

C) Classical

D) Positivist

Q3) Developed by Edwin Sutherland,this theory posits that these learned behaviors about crime and delinquency are a result of peer associations.

A) Strain

B) Differential association

C) Social disorganization

D) Social bond

Q4) List and explain the four elements of the bond according to Hirschi.

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Chapter 5: Victims and the Criminal Justice System

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Q1) Benjamin Mendelsohn developed a typology of victimization that distinguished different types of victims based on the relative responsibility of the victim in their own victimization.Explain and give one example of each of his typologies.

Q2) What led to the development of the first victim's services organization? What is this organization and where was it formed?

Q3) Should restorative justice be a greater part of the criminal justice system?

Q4) Why do some victims not report the crime to the police?

Q5) According to the NCVS,domestic violence victimization has ______ over the past year.

A) decreased

B) remained stable

C) increased

D) significantly increased

Q6) How does the just world hypothesis contribute to victim blaming?

Q7) It is estimated that only _____% of victims report property crime.

A) 23

B) 37

C) 49

D) 62

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Chapter 6: Criminal Justice Policy

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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the stages of policy development?

A) Problem identification

B) Agenda formation

C) Policy implementation

D) All of these are stages of policy development

Q2) This program fidelity factor involves determining whether lecture,discussion,or active learning should be used.

A) Dosage

B) Setting

C) Material

D) Delivery

Q3) The war on drugs began when this President declared the abuse of illegal drugs as "public enemy number one."

A) Ronald Reagan

B) Richard Nixon

C) George W. Bush

D) Jimmy Carter

Q4) List and briefly describe the stages of policy development.

Q5) Provide one example of how policies are used to facilitate and regulate action.

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Q6) What is the role of research in criminal justice policy?

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Chapter 7: Policing Organizations and Practices

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Q1) What role makes up the majority of the sworn officers in a department? What are they responsible for?

Q2) There are 176 agencies whose primary focus of enforcement is related to transportation.The largest of these is the Port of Authority of New York and New Jersey.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which agency handles investigations related to crimes such as illegal immigration,human trafficking,child exploitation,fraud,and financial crimes?

A) U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement

B) Homeland Security

C) Federal Bureau of Investigations

D) U.S. Secret Service

Q4) The passage of the Support Our Law Enforcement and Safe Neighborhoods Act in 2010 (otherwise known as Arizona Senate Bill 1017)is perhaps one of the most significant acts of cross-deputization in recent history.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is Problem-Oriented Policing?

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Chapter 8: Issues in Policing

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Q1) What are the major implications occupational stress has on the lives of police officers?

Q2) Which type of force involves the use of restraining substances,such as pepper spray or mace?

A) Physical force

B) Impact force

C) Electronic force

D) None of these

Q3) Explain the two types of corruption identified by the Knapp Commission.Provide one example of each.

Q4) Which of the following cases challenged the 1966 U.S.Supreme Court decision in Miranda v.Arizona?

A) Berghuis v. Thompkins

B) California v. Acevedo

C) Terry v. Ohio

D) All of these

Q5) What is the difference between chemical force and electronic force? Provide one example of each.

Q6) What are the five different types of force? Give an example of each.

Q7) Should officers be required to wear body cameras?

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Chapter 9: Courts and Crime

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Q1) What is a plea bargain and why is it important?

Q2) During an initial appearance,the defendant is officially notified by the court of the charges that are pending against them.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Courts of limited jurisdiction handle misdemeanor cases.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is geographical jurisdiction?

Q5) This term refers to those cases in which a court may exercise lawful authority.

A) District

B) Circuit

C) Venue

D) Jurisdiction

Q6) Should physical evidence be required to convict? Defend your answer.

Q7) For the majority of states,the appellate level is divided into intermediate courts of appeals as well as a court of last resort,also known as the state supreme court.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Punishment and Sentencing

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Q1) Most criminologists argue that the death penalty is not a deterrent.Explain why this is the case.

Q2) _____________ practices generally set a minimum sentence length.

A) Determinate sentencing

B) Indeterminate sentencing

C) Retributive sentencing

D) Mandatory sentencing

Q3) If the individual decides that the threat of punishment (such as a prison sentence)is undesirable,then __________ suggests that that particular individual will make the decision not to engage in the criminal behavior.

A) general deterrence

B) specific deterrence

C) individual deterrence

D) retributive deterrence

Q4) Explain and provide one example of indeterminate sentencing.

Q5) Argue for or against capital punishment.Select an opposing argument and counter that.

Q6) What is the major significance of the Gregg v.Georgia decision?

Q7) Explain and provide one example of mandatory sentencing.

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Q8) Describe the trend in executions since 1976.

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Chapter 11: Prisons and Jails

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Q1) What are the characteristics of a minimum security prison?

Q2) Inmates in these facilities are generally locked up in individual cells for 23 hours a day and are kept in solitary confinement with limited interaction with others.

A) minimum

B) medium

C) maximum

D) supermax

Q3) Many minimum-level facilities have limited or no fencing around the perimeter of the institution.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The Pennsylvania System was a silent system where inmates engaged in congregate labor.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are some key features of the different security levels?

Q6) Which amendment would you hold most dear if you were incarcerated? Explain.

Q7) What are some of the major duties and challenges that correctional officers face on the job?

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Chapter 12: Community Corrections

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Q1) Mandatory revocation of probation occurs in cases where an offender refuses to comply with drug testing or tests positive for a controlled substance three times within a year.

A)True

B)False

Q2) __________ is a term that is generally used to reference the category of intervention between probation and incarceration.

A) Community correction

B) Intermediate sanction

C) Diversionary sentence

D) Shock probation

Q3) Alexander Maconochie and Sir Walter Crofon are credited with the establishment of _______.

A) probation

B) parole

C) diversion

D) electronic monitoring

Q4) Should drug courts be expanded? Defend your answer.

Q5) What four elements does the PSI report include?

Q6) How does crime-specific probation differ from other forms of probation?

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Chapter 13: Juvenile Justice

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Sample Questions

Q1) Define and provide one example of a dependency case.

Q2) The juvenile justice process essentially involves three stages: intake,adjudication,and disposition.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is a dispositional hearing?

Q4) Compare and contrast the juvenile justice system and the adult criminal justice system.

Q5) Select two of the following cases,and explain their significance to the juvenile justice system:

Kent v.U.S.(1966)

In re Gault (1967)

In re Winship (1970)

Breed v.Jones (1975)

Q6) In the case of Kent v.U.S.,the Supreme court ruled that juveniles are entitled to due process rights including notification of charges,protection against self incrimination,and the right to attorney.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Emerging Issues for the 21st Century

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Q1) How did things change with the creation of the Department of Homeland Security?

Q2) A ____ is an unmanned,remotely piloted aircraft that is used in a variety of ways.

A) border

B) drone

C) minicraft

D) none of these are correct

Q3) _______ involves the illegal transport of guns and ammunition.

A) Weapons trafficking

B) Arms trafficking

C) Arms distribution

D) Weapons distribution

Q4) The ISIS attacks are an example of __________.

A) state-sponsored terrorism

B) dissident terrorism

C) religious terrorism

D) cyberterrorism

Q5) What major challenges do drones present to privacy and security?

Q6) What were the reasons for the creation of the Department of Homeland Security?

Q7) Define organized crime.Discuss two organized-crime groups and their activities.

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