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This course provides a comprehensive overview of the criminal justice system, exploring its key components, including law enforcement, the courts, and corrections. Students will examine the roles and responsibilities of each sector, the processes and relationships between them, and how they collectively respond to crime in society. Topics include the history and development of the criminal justice system, the rights of the accused, sentencing practices, corrections, and contemporary challenges such as juvenile justice and the impact of policy reforms. Through case studies, legal analysis, and critical discussion, students will gain a foundational understanding of how justice is administered and the ethical, social, and political issues that affect its operation.
Recommended Textbook Criminal Justice A Brief Introduction 12th Edition by Frank Schmalleger
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15 Chapters
647 Verified Questions
647 Flashcards
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36 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37714
Sample Questions
Q1) What does justice mean to you? Discuss the three types of justice and their effect on individual rights to support your answer.
Answer: Civil,Social,and Criminal Justice.Discussion of individual rights and how they conflict with the rights of society when seeking justice is part of this answer.
Q2) The preliminary hearing is used to decide whether:
A) there are reasonable grounds to believe the defendant committed the crime.
B) the crime that occurred is a felony.
C) the defendant is fit to stand trial.
D) the defendant is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt.
Answer: A
Q3) The Conflict Model assumes that the criminal justice system's components function primarily to serve their own interests
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Indictment
Answer: A
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37715
Sample Questions
Q1) Define and discuss hate crimes.What are the Hate Crime Statistics Act of 1990 and the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994 and how do they impact hate crimes?
Answer: A Hate Crime occurs when the defendant's conduct was motivated by hatred,bias,or prejudice,based on the actual or perceived race,color,religion,national origin,ethnicity,gender,or sexual orientation of another individual or group of individuals.The Hate Crime Statistics Act,signed into law by President George H.W.Bush in 1990.The act mandates a statistical tally of hate crimes be kept.The Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994 created a new category of "crimes of violence motivated by gender." Congress defined this crime as "a crime of violence committed because of gender or on the basis of gender,and due,at least in part,to an animus based on the victim's gender." These laws have had an impact on how statistics are compiled and reviewed to be more consistent and clear in their definition of who are victims of hate crimes.
Q2) __________ is an incident based reporting system that collects data on every single crime occurrence.
Answer: NIBRS
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37716
Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is the study of pathological mental conditions - that is,mental illness.
A) Conditioning
B) Profiling
C) Conflict perspective
D) Psychopathology
Answer: D
Q2) The Biological School views deviant behavior as the product of environmental forces.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A perspective on crime causation that holds that physical deterioration in an area leads to higher crime rates is the thesis of _________________.
Answer: Broken Windows
Q4) ______________ is an approach to criminal justice theory that stresses the application of scientific techniques to the study of crime and criminals.
Answer: Positivist School
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence and arguments offered by a defendant and his or her attorney to show why the defendant should not be held liable for a criminal charge.
A)Excuse
B)Justification
C)Alibi
D)Defense
Q2) A legal defense in which the defendant admits to committing the act in question but claims it was necessary in order to avoid some greater evil.
A)Excuse
B)Justification
C)Alibi
D)Defense
Q3) As defenses,justifications claim a kind of moral high ground.Justifications may be offered by people who find themselves forced to choose between "two evils." Generally speaking,conduct that a person believes is necessary to avoid harm to himself or to another is justifiable if the harm he is trying to avoid is greater than the harm the law defining the offense seeks to avoid.Define and discuss three of the six categories that are applicable to this defense.Discuss their good and bad points.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which commission,started in 1931,recognized prohibition as unenforceable as well as a catalyst to police corruption?
A) Wickersham
B) Bean
C)Price
D) McWhorter
Q2) A police management strategy designed to increase the productivity of patrol officers through scientific analysis and evaluation of patrol techniques is called:
A) Routine patrol
B) Directed Patrol
C) Evidence based policing
D) Federal Policing
Q3) A decentralized state police agency operates with two agencies-a highway patrol and a state bureau of investigation
A)True
B)False
Q4) ___________ International is the preeminent international organization for private security professionals.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characterized by close ties between police and public officials.It began in the 1840s and ended around 1930.Throughout the period,American police agencies tended to serve the interests of powerful politicians and their cronies,
A)Community
B)Reform Era
C)Political Era
D)New Era
Q2) According to the 2001 Status of Women in Policing Survey,about what percentage of U.S.law enforcement officers is female?
A) 12..7%
B) 60.3%
C) 52%
D) 3%
Q3) Which of the following is not an element of community policing?
A) community-based crime prevention
B) centralization of command
C) emphasis on nonemergency services
D) increased police accountability to the public
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Q1) An exception to the exclusionary rule.Law enforcement officers who conduct a search or who seize evidence on the basis of good faith (that is,when they believe they are operating according to the dictates of the law)and who later discover that a mistake was made (perhaps in the format of the application for a search warrant)may still provide evidence that can be used in court.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare and contrast the issues relative to electronic gathering evidence.
Q3) This Supreme Court case has become the basis for a brief "stop and frisk" based on a reasonable suspicion.
A) Miranda v. Arizona
B) Terry v. Ohio
C) Argersinger v. Hamlin
D) Brady v. U.S.
Q4) The plain-view doctrine still applies if officers move objects so they can see evidence otherwise hidden from view.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is an arrest and when does it occur?
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Q1) A Less-lethal weapon is described as a weapon that is designed to disable,capture,or immobilize-but not kill-a suspect.Give two examples of less-lethal weapons and the benefits and drawbacks of each.
Q2) Officers who have adopted the police working personality are all of the following except:
A) loyal.
B) cynical.
C) authoritarian.
D) cheerful.
Q3) The widespread potential for police corruption created by illicit drugs has led to focused efforts to combat drug use by officers.Drug-testing programs in local police departments are an example of such efforts.The IACP has developed a model drug testing policy for police managers.The policy was designed to meet the needs of local departments.List and define three points found in that policy and the rationale used to determine the need for those points.
Q4) __________ is the branch of a police organization tasked with investigating charges of wrongdoing involving members of the department.
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Q1) Who is responsible for swearing in witnesses?
A) bailiff
B) clerk of court
C) judge
D) court recorder
Q2) A subpoena:
A) orders the sheriff to make an arrest.
B) is issued by a bailiff.
C) results in a trial de novo.
D) may require an individual to appear in court.
Q3) Who creates a record of all that occurs during the trial?
A) media reporter
B) court administrator
C) court reporter
D) bailiff
Q4) The role of a defense attorney includes all of the following except:
A) quasi-legal advisor to the police.
B) testing the strength of the prosecution's case.
C) appealing a conviction.
D) representing the accused.
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Sample Questions
Q1) McNabb v.U.S.formally established that a defendant being held in custody has a right to appear in court before a magistrate:
A) within 30 days.
B) within 24 hours.
C) within 48 hours.
D) immediately.
Q2) The practice where Defendants charged with very serious crimes,or those who are thought likely to escape or to injure others,are usually held in jail until trial is called______________.
Q3) Release on recognizance is defined as:
A) Cash Bail in lieu of incarceration.
B) Release on Surety Bond
C) results in the pretrial detention of a suspect.
D) The pretrial release of a criminal defendant on his or her written promise to appear in court as required..
Q4) The Presentation of evidence is an important part of a trial.List and define the three major types of evidence used in a courtroom trial.Discuss the importance and drawbacks of each type of evidence.
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36 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37724
Sample Questions
Q1) Proportionality
A)A model of criminal punishment that includes determinate and commission created presumptive sentencing schemes.
B)A sentencing principle that holds that an offender's criminal history should objectively be taken into account in sentencing decisions.
C)A model of criminal punishment in which an offender is given a fixed term of imprisonment that may be reduced by good time.
D)A sentencing principle that holds that the severity of the sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime.
Q2) _______________ is the referral of an alleged offender,before the entering of a judgment by a court,to a treatment or care program.
Q3) ____________ is the use of imprisonment or other means to reduce the likelihood that an offender will commit future offenses.
Q4) Victim Impact statements generally have a profound impact on the sentence that a defendant receives.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Individuals ordered confined to their homes are sometimes monitored electronically to ensure they do not leave during the hours of confinement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ____________________ is a sentence explicitly requiring the convicted offender to serve a period of confinement in a local,state,or federal facility,followed by a period of probation.
Q3) Which intermediate sanction resembles a military-style boot camp?
A) shock incarceration
B) shock probation
C) shock parole
D) intensive supervision
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of probation and parole?
A) Relative lack of punishment.
B) Reduces social costs
C) It's dishonest because it does not require completion of the defendant's sentence behind bars.
D) It's Discriminatory
Q5) Define and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of probation and parole.
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Q1) The overcrowding of jails continues to be a major problem for the correctional system throughout the United States.There are many explanations for this overcrowding,for example in 2009 there were over 86,000 state and federal inmates being held in jails.List and describe at least three other causes for overcrowding.What is your opinion on reducing the inmate population in the country's jails,other than opening the door and letting them out.
Q2) A private prison:
A) is a prison for terrorists that does not reveal the prisoners' identities.
B) is operated by a private firm on behalf of government.
C) house no more than 50 prisoners.
D) houses military prisoners
Q3) Physical barriers in direct-supervision jails are far more common than in traditional jails.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Selective incapacitation is a strategy used by some states to reduce prison populations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ is the movement toward the wider use of private prisons.
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Q1) Judges are the only officials authorized to conduct detention hearings
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which state at the start of 2010 had the largest number of female prisoners?
A) New York
B) Florida
C) California
D) Texas
Q3) Neglected children
A)those who violate the criminal law.If they were adults, the word criminal would be applied to them.
B)typically have no parents or guardians to care for them.Their parents are deceased, they were placed for adoption, or they were abandoned in violation of the law.
C)those who suffer physical abuse at the hands of their custodians.This category was later expanded to include emotional and sexual abuse."
D)those who do not receive proper care from their parents or guardians.They may suffer from malnutrition or may not be provided with adequate shelter.
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Q1) The unauthorized duplication of software or the illegal transfer of data from one storage medium to another is known as:
A) Spam
B) Phishing
C) Malware
D) Software piracy
Q2) The more familiar name of the International Criminal Police Organization is:
A) FBI
B) Globalization team.
C) Europol
D) Interpol
Q3) The Daily Officer is an example law enforcement use of social media to get their message across through a twitter account.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Psychological dependence is a biologically based craving for a specific drug that results from frequent use of the substance.
A)True
B)False
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