

Criminal Justice System
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
The Criminal Justice System course provides an in-depth exploration of the institutions, processes, and actors that constitute the criminal justice system in modern society. Students will examine how laws are created, enforced, interpreted, and applied, with a focus on the major components: law enforcement, courts, and corrections. The course covers foundational concepts such as crime typologies, due process, legal rights, and the balance between public safety and individual liberties. Emphasis is placed on understanding the procedural steps from investigation and arrest to trial, sentencing, and rehabilitation, as well as the roles played by police officers, attorneys, judges, and correctional personnel. Challenging topics such as justice reform, racial disparities, ethical issues, and the evolving nature of criminal justice in response to societal needs are also discussed.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Law 1st Edition by John L. Worrall
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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Basics of Criminal Law
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Q1) ___________________ is a system of justice that pits two parties against each other in pursuit of the truth.
Answer: Adversarial justice system
Q2) The U.S. has a three-tiered court structure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) _____________ is a private wrong or injury, for which a court will provide a remedy in the form of an "action," or a lawsuit, between the two parties.
Answer: A TORT
Q4) An appellant court may develop one of four decisions or any multiples of the four when reviewing a case. Discuss each form of decision and the influence of that decision on the case.
Answer: Should include the four basic decisions, as well as a discussion of the application of any combination of the four, as well as the influence of those decisions on the final disposition of the case.
Q5) A _________ opinion agrees with the majority decision but for different reasons. Answer: concurring
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Chapter 2: Limitations on the Criminal Law
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Q1) Confederation is a system that is known to have a strong central government or authority.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The void for vagueness doctrine is based on the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendment due process clauses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The system of government in the United States is a system of dual federalism. Discuss how this system realistically applies to the U.S. court system. Additionally, compare dual federalism with confederation.
Answer: Should include definition of dual federalism and confederation, a discussion of the dual court system in the United States, and a comparison of the existing system with confederation.
Q4) The U.S. Constitution divides governmental authority into three branches: ___________, __________________, and ______________.
Answer: Executive, legislative, judicial
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Chapter 3: The Elements of Criminal Liability
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Sample Questions
Q1) The five basic elements of culpable mental states are
Answer: Knowingly, willingly, intentionally, through recklessness, or negligence
Q2) What limits criminal liability to conduct that "includes a voluntary act or omission to perform an act of which the criminal is physically capable?"
A)Modern Law
B)Model Penal Code
C)Federal Penal Code
D)State Penal code
Answer: B
Q3) Motive is important to the law for four reasons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) __________________ exists when the defendant claims to misunderstand the law as it applies to the specific circumstances.
Answer: Mistake of law
Q5) A person cannot be guilty of a crime unless he or she commits a
Answer: Voluntary act
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Chapter 4: Justification Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nonexculpatory defense is a defense that is related to the elements of the crime or defendant's alleged fault or guilt.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What conditions must be met in order for a claim to succeed under the Model Penal Code?
A)The actor would be justified under Section 3.04 in using such force to protect himself against the injury he believes to be threatened to the person whom he seeks to protect.
B)Under the circumstances as the actor believes them to be, the person whom he seeks to protect would be justified in using such protective force.
C)The actor believes that his intervention is necessary for the protection of such other person.
D)All the above
Q3) New Hampshire, Vermont, New York, Pennsylvania, Virginia, Iowa, South Dakota, Nebraska, New Mexico, Idaho, and Nevada are states with _________________.
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Chapter 5: Excuse Defenses
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Q1) PMDD is an extreme version of _________, which is a defense afforded to women who experience extreme agony and sometimes become violent.
Q2) Juvenile courts do not normally have mechanisms in place for transferring, or waiving, juveniles to adult court.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Urban psychosis is a condition analogous to PTSD that results from a "traumatic childhood in a violent inner-city home and neighborhood."
A)True
B)False
Q4) In <I>Sherman v. United States</I>, the Supreme Court adhered to what particular type of test that focuses on offender predisposition?
A)Objective test
B)Rejective test
C)Subjective test
D)Reflective test
Q5) ______________ defenses, while controversial, are essential.
Q6) Intoxication is important in criminal law because it affects ______________.
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Chapter 6: Complicity and Vicarious Liability
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Q1) An accomplice is "one who unknowingly, involuntarily, and with lack of common intent unites with the principal offender in the commission of a crime."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the principal of the first degree and the principal of the second degree as found in common law. Evaluate the present day laws that equate these common laws to the terms principal, accomplice, and accessory before and after the fact.
Q3) In the 1983 gang rape of a young woman in Bid Dan's bar in New Bedford, Massachusetts, none of the individuals who witnessed the rapes had a legal duty to act.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Being an __________________ is not quite as serious a being an accomplice.
Q5) It is uncommon for accessories to felonies to be convicted of misdemeanors rather than a felony committed by the principal who committed the felony.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In a few situations, accomplice liability is a legal __________________.
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Page 8

Chapter 7: Inchoate Crimes
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Q1) A person who attempts to kill another person but only causes serious bodily injury to the victim may be charged with ________________.
Q2) What is a crime that is partial; unfinished; begun, but not completed?
A)Incorporated crime
B)Partial crime
C)Inchoate crime
D)Incomprehensible crime
Q3) If Fred and Susan plan to kill John, purchase an illegal gun to use in the murder, and eventually actually murder John, they are considered accomplices and will be charged with murder because of what factor?
A)Conspiracy factor
B)Absolute factor
C)Complicity factor
D)None of the above.
Q4) Sometimes prosecutors are faced with a chain conspiracy which is a small-scale conspiracy including individuals who are aware of each other throughout the conspiracy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Homicide
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the limitations placed on felony murder?
A)The felony must be independent of the homicide.
B)The rule is limited to inherently dangerous felonies.
C)The felony and the homicide must accompany each other in close temporal proximity.
D)All the above
Q2) What is the term in some states relating to the causing the death of an unborn fetus?
A)Feticide
B)Fetus murder
C)Fetus homicide
D)None of the above
Q3) A death caused by an arson fire before it is extinguished occurs in furtherance of the arson and renders the arsonist liable for _________________.
Q4) The three distinct elements of sudden heat of passion, adequate provocation, and causation are the elements required for ___________________.
Q5) Circumstances that would lend toward a lighter or reduced criminal penalty during sentencing are known as ______________.
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Chapter 9: Assaultive Offenses
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Q1) Compare battery and assault and explain the differences. Address the misuse of the term "assault" throughout the criminal justice system. How should the misuse be correct to ensure each state properly addresses battery and assault in a common manner?
Q2) What is the taking of sexual intimacy with an unwilling person by force or without consent?
A)Rape
B)Assault
C)Intercourse
D)Sex
Q3) Domestic violence and child abuse are both considered domestic offenses because they both typically occur in the home.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the State of California the <i>mens rea</i> of robbery is met by what element?
A)Minor theft
B)Miscellaneous theft
C)Felonious taking
D)Robbery taking
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Chapter 10: Property Damage and Invasion
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Q1) Cyberterrorism is generally understood to refer to unlawful attacks only against computers, networks, and the information stored therein when done to intimidate or coerce a government or its people in furtherance of political or social objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although a felony offense, burglary is not considered that serious of a crime because most burglaries do not endanger human life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In Maine, if a person that is not licensed or privileged to enter a cemetery or burial ground at anytime after ½ hour after sunset and ½ hour before sunrise on the following day that person may be charged with what crime?
A)Criminal trespass
B)Desecration of a grave
C)Illegal access to a cemetery
D)None of the above
Q4) The <i>mens rea</i> of arson varies by statute, but typically requires an element of _______ or knowledge.
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Chapter 11: Theft and Analogous Offenses
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Q1) If a clothing store customer takes a pair of pants from the rack, removes all of the external sales tags, and then approaches the sales clerk or a refund, what crime may be charged?
A)Theft
B)Fraud
C)Criminal mischief
D)None of the above
Q2) In <i>Foreman v. United States</i>, the District of Columbia Court of Appeals reversed and remanded the case based on the fact that the prosecution failed to provide proof to the jury that the act included a value of $250 or more.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Steve and Jim work together at a local machine shop. Both have the same brand torch kits. Steve picks up Jim's torch kits mistakenly thinking it is his and takes it home with him. Steve has exercised a __________________.
Q4) Compare the elements of larceny and burglary. What element separates larceny from burglary?
Q5) The trespass element of larceny stems from the Latin term _________________.
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Chapter 12: Public Order, Morality, and Vice Crimes
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Q1) Why did a federal judge strike down the Child Online Protection Act (COPA)?
A)The verbiage was offensive
B)It was unconstitutionally vague
C)It contributed to child abuse
D)None of the above
Q2) Steve feels a strong urge to relieve himself while enjoying a drink at a local pub. He discovers the men's room is locked. He waits a few minutes and decides he can wait no longer. He steps out the front door and relieves himself in plain view of the public. What charges may be filed against Steve for urinating in the public?
A)Illegal urinating
B)Disorderly conduct
C)Non-Public conduct
D)None of the above
Q3) A riot is the culmination of both unlawful assembly and rout.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A drug or other substance that has a high potential for abuse and has no current accepted medical use in treatment in the United States is consider a _______________ controlled substance.
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Chapter 13: Terrorism and Offenses Against the State
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Q1) Proceedings for deportation of aliens must conform to constitutional requirements, especially due process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the term that refers to any activity which is unlawful under the laws of the place where it is committed and which involves highjacking or sabotage, seizing or detaining, and threatening to kill, injure, or continue to detain anyone, a violent attack upon any internationally protected person or group, assassination, the use of WMD, and a threat, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of these acts?
A)Terrorist activity
B)Criminal activity
C)Gang activity
D)None of the above
Q3) Espionage is one offense against the government that does not include the death penalty under any condition.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ is the only crime defined in the U.S. Constitution, Article III, Section 3.
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