Course Introduction
Criminal Justice Review Questions
Criminal Justice is an interdisciplinary course that explores the systems, processes, and institutions designed to manage crime, maintain social order, and uphold the rule of law in society. Students examine the roles and responsibilities of law enforcement agencies, the judiciary, and corrections, as well as the policies and procedures that govern them. Through the study of criminal behavior, legal frameworks, ethical issues, and contemporary challenges, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of how justice is administered and the impact of the criminal justice system on individuals and communities.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Evidence 8th Edition by Judy Hails
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a prosecutor learns of new, credible and material evidence clearly indicating that a convicted defendant did not commit an offense for which he/she was convicted, the prosecutor should promptly notify an appropriate court.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) If the case is filed as a federal crime, what rules of evidence will apply
A)Rules of evidence in effect when U.S.Constitution was enacted
B)Federal Rules of Evidence
C)Title 18 of the United States Code
D)Rules of evidence enacted by New York's state legislature
Answer: B
Q3) The prosecutor in the federal courts is the:
A)District Attorney.
B)Solicitor General.
C)U.S.Attorney.
D)Victim of the crime.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Role of the Courts
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Q1) If a defendant waits for 1 year after being convicted to file a direct appeal the appeal will be dismissed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) State court judges must follow all rulings of the U.S.Supreme Court.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Earle wants to pursue his dream of being a U.S.District Court judge.Which of the following is most likely to help
A)Ask the Kansas State Judicial Council to nominate him
B)Ask one of the U.S.Senators from Kansas to submit his name to the president
C)Run ads on TV in Washington, D.C.
D)File appropriate papers to run for a judgeship in the U.S.District Court in Kansas at the next election
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Adjudication Process
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Q1) Grand jury proceedings are required by the U.S.Constitution in all cases involving felonies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The defense is required to establish the defendant's innocence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Who can be impeached at trial
A)anyone who takes the witness stand
B)any witness except the defendant
C)only witnesses who commit perjury
D)impeachment is not done during trial.
Answer: A
Q4) The defendant has a Sixth Amendment right to a trial before 12 jurors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Types of Evidence
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Q1) Which of the following would be direct evidence in a murder case
A)DNA test that establishes that the defendant's blood was found at the crime scene
B)testimony of an expert witness that there is a 1 in 3 million chance that the DNA found at the scene could have come from someone other than the defendant
C)testimony of police officer describing the confession the defendant made
D)testimony of eyewitness describing the defendant shooting the victim
Q2) All relevant evidence is admissible
A)True
B)False
Q3) Something is "at issue" in a trial if it relates to:
A)any disputed element of a crime that is charged.
B)any act of the defendant after the allege crime occurred.
C)any other crime committed by the defendant.
D)any prior conviction of the defendant .
Q4) Direct evidence establishes a fact without an inference.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: Direct and Circumstantial Evidence
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Q1) When deciding whether circumstantial evidence should be admitted at trial, the judge considers:
A)whether the evidence is relevant.
B)whether introducing the evidence will take up too much time.
C)whether the evidence will unduly prejudice the jurors.
D)all of these are considered.
Q2) At trial, character is introduced by:
A)a psychologist who specializes in behavioral disorders.
B)someone who is familiar with what people in the community say about the person in question.
C)the person in question testimonies about his/her own lifestyle.
D)character can be introduced by any of the above witnesses.
Q3) Both direct and circumstantial evidence require the jury to draw an inference in order to establish the fact.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Facts are admissible to establish guilt but motive is not.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Witnesses
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Q1) A person testifying as a ballistic expert can testify that:
A)pattern of lands and groves indicates the bullet was fired from the defendant's gun.
B)tests indicate the defendant fired the bullet that killed the victim.
C)the ownership of the gun that was tested.
D)a ballistic expert would be allowed to testify to all of these
Q2) Should Dr.Nora be allowed to answer hypothetical questions
A)Yes, all witnesses are allowed to answer hypothetical questions.
B)Yes, she should be allowed to give her professional opinion because she is a board certified psychiatrist and has reviewed the file.
C)No, only experts who have conducted clinical interviews are allowed to answer hypothetical questions.
D)No, hypothetical questions are not allowed in criminal trials.
Q3) Impeachment is an attempt to discredit a witness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Expert witnesses may only testify about tests that they personally conducted.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Crime Scene Evidence and Experiments
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Q1) Which of the following DNA tests can only be performed on men
A)Restricted Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
B)Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Analysis
C)Mitochondrial DNA Analysis (mtDNA)
D)Y-Chromosome Analysis
Q2) Evidence that has been discolored or otherwise changed by laboratory tests is not admissible at trial.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Real evidence includes:
A)physical items
B)documents
C)digital pictures
D)all of these are types of real evidence
Q4) Explain the importance of scientific evidence in criminal trials.
Q5) At trial, the results of the test can be successfully challenged:
A)if a new employee did it for the first time.
B)if the supervisor did not sign the report.
C)if the test equipment was defective.
D)all of these
9
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Chapter 8: Documentary Evidence, Models, Maps, and Diagrams
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Q1) All documents must be authenticated except those with the seal of a notary or a government agency.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A document can be authenticated by the testimony of a person who saw the document being made.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A notarized document is self-authenticating if:
A)it is signed by a senior notary.
B)the notary attaches a statement that states what the document is intended for.
C)the person who made the document signs a statement that states what the document is intended for.
D)notarized documents are not self-authenticating.
Q4) If lay witnesses authenticate a handwritten document, the opposing side will NOT be allowed to call a forensic document examiner to establish that the document is a forgery.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how the Business Records Exception to the Hearsay Rule..
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Chapter 9: Hearsay and Its Exceptions
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Q1) Prior inconsistent statements are admissible to impeach the person who made them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does a spontaneous statement differ from a contemporaneous declaration
A)Contemporaneous declarations can be made in response to questions but spontaneous statements can not
B)Spontaneous statements must be made orally but contemporaneous declarations can be either oral or written
C)Contemporaneous declarations can be made with law enforcement officers present but spontaneous statements can not
D)Spontaneous statements are admissible at trial but contemporaneous declarations are not
Q3) Explain why the Hearsay Rule was developed and why the admission of hearsay in a criminal trial may violate the defendant's Sixth Amendment rights.
Q4) The Dying Declaration Exception to the Hearsay Rule is one of the best known rules of evidence.Explain how a police officer would go about obtaining an admissible Dying Declaration.
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Chapter 10: Privileged Communications
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Questions
Q1) Alice has determined that Honest John's real name is John Evans.She has subpoenaed John to testify and ask him where he got the information about Officer Cowan.
A)John has a First Amendment right as a member of the media to refuse to appear in court.
B)John must obey the subpoena but he can invoke the First Amendment as grounds for refusing to answer questions.
C)John can invoke a federal media privilege because he published the story on the Internet.
D)John can invoke the state's statutory media privilege only if it extends to bloggers as well as reporters in traditional media outlets.
Q2) The physician-patient privilege belongs to:
A)physician
B)patient
C)whoever pays the bill
D)all of these hold the physician-patient privilege
Q3) The attorney-client privilege only applies to preparation of the case for trial.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Developing Law of Search and Seizure
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Q1) Can Brian's attorney successful challenge the search warrant before trial
A)Yes, the warrant should have restricted the search to the type of stolen items Brian was suspected of selling.
B)Yes, the warrant was not valid on its face because the judge's signature was not legible.
C)No, defense attorneys can challenge searches done without a warrant but not those a judge authorized in a search warrant.
D)No, the facts used to obtain the search warrant established probable cause.
Q2) A "protective sweep" allows an officer to:
A)sweep a neighborhood for drug users when searching for drug dealers
B)conduct a roadblock to detect individuals driving under the influence of alcohol
C)search the immediate area for people who may ambush the officers
D)obtain arrest warrants for all members of a violent street gang
Q3) Officers are exempt from the knock-and-announce procedure if they are executing a valid warrant in a commercial building.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the process for obtaining a search warrant.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Field Interviews, Arrests, and Jail Searches
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Q1) A patdown for weapons may be done if there is reasonable suspicion that a person is armed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If police officers shoot at non-violent fleeing suspects, they are violating the Fourth Amendment.
A)True B)False
Q3) Police officers may use force only if it is reasonable based on how the circumstances would appear to a reasonable person.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An arrest can be made if there is reasonable suspicion that a person committed a crime.
A)True B)False
Q5) A police officer may use reasonable force to detain someone for a field interview. A)True B)False
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Chapter 13: Plain View, Consent, Vehicles, and Administrative Searches
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Q1) Will that marijuana plants be admissible under the Open Fields Doctrine
A)Yes, items found while trespassing are admissible under the Open Fields Doctrine if they are not near a residence.
B)Yes, the Open Fields Doctrine applies to all observations officers make in rural areas.
C)No, Officer Robinson was trespassing when she observed the marijuana.
D)No, the Open Fields Doctrine only applies to observations made from aircraft.
Q2) If an officer has probable cause evidence is inside a car, the officer may conduct:
A)a thorough search of entire car
B)a thorough search of passenger compartment
C)a thorough search limited to area where the probable cause indicates the evidence will be found
D)car can be impounded but no search can be conducted until a warrant has been obtained
Q3) Under the Plain View Doctrine, officers may examine items to find serial numbers so they can check to see if they are stolen.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Usa Patriot Act, Foreign Intelligence, and Other Electronic Surveillance
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Q1) The USA PATRIOT Act expanded the Wiretap Act of 1968 to include warrants for the seizure of:
A)voicemail stored on telephone company equipment.
B)records stored by Internet providers.
C)credit card numbers used to pay for telephone service.
D)all of these are all correct
Q2) Under the provisions of the Wiretap Act of 1968 that allow wiretaps to be started in emergency situations without court approval, the wiretap warrant must be obtained within:
A)24 hours
B)48 hours
C)72 hours
D)96 hours
Q3) If federal agents want to extend the length of time they can operate a wiretap authorized under the Wiretap Act of 1968, all they need to do is submit an affidavit stating that valuable information has been obtained by using the wiretap.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Self-Incrimination
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Q1) A person who has been given immunity can invoke the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination:
A)Never.
B)to protect other people but not him/herself.
C)for crimes not covered by transactional immunity.
D)whenever questioned about a crime he/she committed.
Q2) A person who has been acquitted of a crime:
A)cannot not claim the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination because double jeopardy prevents him/her from being charged for that crime again.
B)cannot claim the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination because the statute of limitations has been tolled on the crime.
C)cannot claim the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination because he/she now has immunity from prosecution for that crime.
D)All of these are all correct
Q3) List three situations in which the Supreme Court allows the police to question a suspect more than once.Which of these, if any, do you think follows the spirit of the original Miranda decision
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Identification Procedures
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Q1) If a person viewed a lineup that violated Due Process, the trial court will hold a hearing to decide whether the person should testify at trial.The decision will be based on:
A)Harmless Error Rule
B)Contemporaneous Objection Rule
C)Hearsay Rule
D)Fruit of the Poison Tree Rule
Q2) A witness can testify about selecting a person at a lineup only if he/she selected the defendant who is currently on trial.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person who attended a lineup that was conducted in an unconstitutional manner may not testify at trial.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the defendant's Sixth Amendment rights during showups, lineups, and photographic lineups.
Q5) Does the Fifth Amendment apply to showups, lineups, and photographic lineups Explain.
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Chapter 17: Preparing the Case for Court
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Q1) A document made by the witness is admissible under the Past Recollection Recorded Exception to the Hearsay Rule if:
A)the person who prepared the document is unavailable to testify at trial.
B)the person who prepared the document has died.
C)the person who prepared the document testifies that he/she has insufficient present recollection to testify accurately about the incident.
D)the person who prepared the document testifies that the document is accurate and he/she clearly remembers all of the details of the event.
Q2) The prosecutor's office normally handles preparing subpoenas and serving them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The police should advise the prosecutor of all of the facts known to them that might affect the credibility of a witness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss how a police department should deal with reporters.
Q5) Explain what an officer should do to prepare for presenting the case to the prosecutor.
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