Criminal Justice in America
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Criminal Justice in America offers an in-depth exploration of the structure, functions, and processes of the United States criminal justice system. The course examines key components including law enforcement, courts, and corrections, while also discussing the historical foundations, current challenges, and evolving policies that shape criminal justice practices. Students will analyze issues related to crime, policing, legal procedures, punishment, juvenile justice, and the roles of various stakeholders in promoting social order and justice. Special emphasis is placed on understanding the relationship between criminal justice institutions and society, including debates around fairness, equity, and reform.
Recommended Textbook
CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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17 Chapters
849 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) Illegal acts carried out by illegal organizations engaged in the market for illegal goods or services are called __________ __________.
Answer: organized crime
Q2) Nonviolent crimes committed by business entities or individuals to gain a personal or business advantage are called high-tech crimes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the purposes of the criminal justice System?
A) to control crime
B) to prevent crime
C) to provide and maintain justice
D) to create laws regarding punishments for crime
Answer: D
Q4) Nonviolent crimes committed by business entities or individuals to gain a personal or business advantage are called __________.
Answer: white-collar crime
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) Contrast the medical model of addiction with the criminal model of addiction. Answer: -The medical model of addiction is an approach to drug addiction that treats drug abuse as a mental illness
-Those who believe in the medical model of addiction advocate treating addiction as a disease and hold that society should not punish addicts but rather attempt to rehabilitate them, as would be done for any other unhealthy person
-The criminal model of addiction is an approach to drug abuse that treats illegal drug use as a criminal act
-The criminal justice system tends to favor the criminal model of addiction over the medical model, as this model holds that drug abusers and addicts endanger society with their behavior and should be punished the same as any other persons who commit crimes that are not drug related
Q2) A __________ is a possible explanation for an observed occurrence that can be tested by further investigation. Answer: hypothesis
Q3) __________ is the scientific study of crime and the causes of criminal behavior. Answer: Criminology
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Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Q1) Which type of crime would be considered a mala prohibita crime?
A) theft
B) homicide
C) bigamy
D) rape
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an argument in support of the National Crime Victimization Survey's?
A) It measures both reported and unreported crime.
B) It does not rely on victims directly reporting a crime to the police.
C) It is unaffected by police bias and distortions in reporting crime to the FBI.
D) It is compiled by the FBI as a supplement to the Uniform Crime Reports.
Answer: D
Q3) Involuntary manslaughter is a negligent homicide in which the offender had no intent to kill his or her victim.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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5
Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) __________ is a defense in which the defendant claims that he or she was induced by a public official: usually an undercover agent or police officer: to commit a crime that he or she would otherwise not have committed
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a basic element of corpus delicti?
A) actus reus
B) mens rea
C) mala in se
D) concurrence
Q3) The authority of a court to hear and decide cases within an area of the law or a geographic territory is called __________.
A) case law
B) statute
C) jurisdiction
D) negligence.
Q4) Administrative law is the body of law created by administrative agencies (in the form of rules, regulations, orders, and decisions) in order to carry out their duties and responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) Discuss and explain at least three reasons why the field of private security continues to grow in the United States.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons police officers are entrusted with a great amount of trust in their discretion?
A) Police officers are considered trustworthy and are therefore assumed to make honest decisions.
B) Experience and training give officers the ability to determine whether certain activity poses a threat to society.
C) The department controls their behavior through quotas so they do not misuse their discretion.
D) Due to the nature of their jobs, police officers are extremely knowledgeable in human, and by extension criminal behavior.
Q3) The predominant goal of private security is to __________ crime.
A) stop
B) eliminate
C) deter
D) catch
Q4) List and explain the four basic responsibilities of the police.
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) Explain how ethical breaches committed by police officers undermine public confidence in law enforcement?
Q2) According to the U.S. Supreme Court, police officers may use deadly force if they have probable cause to believe that the fleeing suspect poses a threat of serious injury or death to the officers or others.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Police corruption is considered the abuse of authority by a law enforcement officer for personal gain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following elements of ethics addresses the issue that the law provides rigid guidelines for how police officers must act and how they cannot act, but it does not offer guidelines for how officers should act in many circumstances?
A) duty
B) honesty
C) discretion
D) loyalty
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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) Before a judge or magistrate will issue a search warrant, a police officer must present information showing reasonable suspicion that a crime has been or will be committed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The constitutional rights of accused persons taken into custody by law enforcement officials are called __________.
Q3) The questioning of a suspect after that person has been taken into custody is called a __________.
Q4) If the police see a person with a known criminal background in a place where criminal activity is openly taking place then they have probable cause to arrest them. A)True B)False
Q5) Explain the four different categories of items that may be seized under a search warrant.
Q6) An officer may make an arrest on reasonable suspicion. A)True B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) A _______________ is an election in which candidates are presented on the ballot without any party affiliation.
Q2) Domestic courts hear which of the following types of cases?
A) crimes that involve the illegal use of firearms
B) crimes committed by minors
C) crimes of domestic violence, such as child and spousal abuse
D) crimes involving the special needs of the elderly victims
Q3) Define the four different functions of the court according to your book.
Q4) Which of the four functions of the courts is to protect individuals from the unfair advantages that the government-with its immense resources- automatically enjoys in legal battles?
A) due process function
B) crime control function
C) rehabilitation function
D) bureaucratic function
Q5) The judge is the dominant figure in the courtroom and therefore exerts the most influence over the values and norms of the work group.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how the Missouri Plan of judicial selection occurs.
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) Which of the following is a criticism of some defense attorneys when it comes to plea bargaining?
A) They have a desire to increase profit margins by quickly disposing of cases.
B) They encourage their client to plea bargain because they earn more money from the defendant by doing so.
C) They damage their relationship with the courtroom workgroup by doing so.
D) They are more competent than their private counterparts.
Q2) In __________ cases, the primary responsibility to set bail lies with the judge.
Q3) Plea bargaining accounts for what percent of convictions in state courts
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 94%
Q4) Defendants who plea bargain receive __________ sentences on average than those who go to trial and are convicted.
A) the same
B) slightly longer
C) slightly shorter
D) significantly shorter
Q5) _________ is a formal investigation prior to trial
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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) A witness who has been granted immunity may still refuse to answer questions on the basis of self-incrimination.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A declaration following a trial that the individual accused of the crime is innocent is called a(n) __________.
Q3) The standard of proof used in a criminal trial is:
A) preponderance of the evidence
B) beyond a reasonable doubt
C) criminal surety
D) civil surety
Q4) The preliminary questions that the trial attorneys ask prospective jurors is called __________.
Q5) In general, prosecutions for murder and other offenses that carry the death penalty do not have a statute of limitations.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ is the group of citizens from which the jury is selected.
Q7) To be tried twice for the same criminal offense is called __________.
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) "Three-strikes laws" are specifically geared to target which offending population?
A) juvenile offenders
B) habitual offenders
C) minor offenders
D) misdemeanor offenders
Q2) For the better part of the past three decades, the American criminal justice system has mostly rejected many of the principles of rehabilitation as a philosophical reason for punishment in favor of other, more __________, strategies.
A) community based
B) restorative
C) regulatory
D) punitive
Q3) According to your book, for which type of offense does an offender typically spend less than half of the sentenced time in prison?
A) assault
B) robbery
C) rape
D) drug trafficking
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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) In _______________, the U.S. Supreme Court established a three-stage procedure by which the due process rights of probationers would be protected in probation revocation situations?
A) Mempa v. Rhay
B) Gagnon v. Scarpelli
C) Brewer v. United States
D) Minnesota v. Murphy
Q2) The process by which the government seizes private property attached to criminal activity is called __________.
Q3) According to research, in which of the following circumstances would an offender likely be granted probation instead of incarceration?
A) If the individual was on probation or parole at the time of the arrest.
B) If the individual injured the victim of the crime.
C) If the individual only had minor prior convictions.
D) If the individual used a non-lethal weapon during the commission of the crime.
Q4) A sentence that consists of incarceration in a prison or jail, followed by a probationaryperiod in the community is called a ___________________.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) Explain the supermax syndrome that is prevalent in supermax facilities.
Q2) The __________ design has been utilized since the early nineteenth century. The wagon wheel form of the structure was created with the dual goals of separation and control.
Q3) As of 2011, imprisonment rates for women have been growing at ___ the rate of men.
A) the same
B) two times
C) three times
D) seven times
Q4) A prison operates under which type of management structure for its employees?
A) linear
B) vertical
C) hierarchical
D) horizontal
Q5) A supermax prison is a correctional facility reserved for those inmates who have extensive records of misconduct in maximum-security prisons.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain what the concept of the "burden of jail administration" means.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a condition paroled child molesters usually have following their release:
A) must have no contact with children under the age of sixteen
B) must be chemically castrated
C) must receive permission from the parole officers to change residence
D) must stay a certain distance from schools or parks where children are present
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a barrier to reentry for parolees?
A) financial hardship
B) mental illness
C) strong community connects
D) adjustment to social changes
Q3) A __________ is the temporary release of a convicted offender from prison for employment related purposes.
A) work release program
B) furlough
C) halfway house
D) reentry
Q4) Explain at least three of the barriers to reentry when an inmate is released from a correctional facility.
Q5) Explain the process of parole revocation.
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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) At the beginning of the 1800s juveniles were:
A) treated the same as adults
B) sent to a separate court to deal with juvenile issues
C) never allowed to be executed or imprisoned
D) handed over to the social services to be dealt with
Q2) Explain why juveniles are often thought to have lowered responsibility for their actions in a legal sense?
Q3) The creation of the juvenile court was based on the concepts that children are not fully responsible for criminal conduct and are capable of being rehabilitated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Wolfgang and his colleagues determined that chronic offenders are responsible for half of all crimes and two-thirds of all violent crimes within any given cohort. They termed these individuals the:
A) reoffenders
B) chronic 6 percent
C) outsiders
D) delinquent
Q5) Explain the development of the concept of parens patriae.
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Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) Terrorist acts generally target military personnel rather than civilians or "innocent" persons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a duty of a first responder?
A) contact the families of those who have been injured
B) securing the scene of the incident by maintaining order
C) rescuing and treating any injured civilians
D) retrieving those who have been killed
Q3) The Patriot Act allows the FBI or other federal agencies to obtain warrants for "terrorism" investigations, "chemical weapons" investigations, or "computer fraud and abuse" investigations as long as agents can prove that such actions:
A) have significant purpose.
B) meet a standard of probable cause.
C) meet a standard of reasonable suspicion.
D) meet the preponderance of evidence standard.
Q4) Explain the different types of weapons of mass destruction.
Q5) Individuals who use violence to further political goals such as the formation or destruction of a particular government are called __________.
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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) Outline the three major reasons why the Internet is conducive to the dissemination of child pornography.
Q2) Buying and selling that takes place in cyberspace is called:
A) online auction fraud
B) e-commerce
C) online retail fraud
D) hacking
Q3) A __________ is a network of computers that have been appropriated without the knowledge of their owners and used to spread harmful programs via the Internet.
Q4) What protections ensure that a person who writes a book or a song or creates a software program is financially rewarded if that product is sold in the marketplace?
A) software and hardware
B) piracy and hacking
C) copyrights and patents
D) duplicates and rulings
Q5) U.S. law requires that banks "know their customers"-that is, a banks is not required to know the source of a customer's funds.
A)True
B)False
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