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Criminal Justice Exam Solutions - 900 Verified Questions

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Criminal Justice Exam Solutions

Course Introduction

Criminal Justice is an interdisciplinary course that explores the structure, functions, and processes of the criminal justice system, including law enforcement, courts, and corrections. The course examines the foundations of criminal law, the rights of accused individuals, ethical considerations, and contemporary issues such as policing practices, juvenile justice, and the impact of technology on crime and its detection. Students will analyze the roles of various agencies, evaluate the effectiveness of different approaches to crime prevention, and consider broader societal implications, including systemic inequality and reform initiatives within the criminal justice system.

Recommended Textbook

Criminal Procedure for the Criminal Justice Professional 12th Edition by John

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15 Chapters

900 Verified Questions

900 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Individual Rights Under the United States

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Sample Questions

Q1) In some situations, a second trial for the same offense is permitted.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The _____ restricts the establishment of any government-sponsored religion.

A) proportionality clause

B) symbolic speech clause

C) free exercise clause

D) probable cause clause

Answer: C

Q3) The Fourth Amendment's _____________________ requirement stipulates that before an arrest warrant can be issued, the applying officer must produce evidence showing by a fair probability that the specific person named committed a specific offense.

Answer: probable cause

Q4) The _____________________ branch of government creates most of the law of criminal procedure.

Answer: judicial

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Criminal Courts, Pretrial Processes, and the

Exclusionary Rule

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Police interrogate a suspect who tells police where a stash of illegal drugs is hidden which are then seized by the police. The drugs are best classified as _____.

A) primary evidence

B) derivative evidence

C) circumstantial evidence

D) fruit of the poisonous tree

Answer: B

Q2) A court's authority to hold a trial is its _____.

A) venire

B) original jurisdiction

C) appellate jurisdiction

D) venue

Answer: B

Q3) An affidavit can be described as a ______________.

Answer: sworn statement

Q4) The lowest level of criminal court in the federal system is the ______________. Answer: U.S. District Court

Q5) The location of the court is referred to as the ______________. Answer: venue

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Chapter 3: Basic Underlying Concepts: Property, Privacy,

Probable Cause, and Reasonableness

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60 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some courts require additional information to establish the veracity/truthfulness of an ordinary citizen informant if the citizen merely provides an anonymous tip. Which issue is a primary factor, mentioned in the text (State v. White, Ga. App. 1990), used by Georgia courts to assess the veracity/truthfulness of an anonymous tip?

A) the testimony of the officer receiving the tip as to its credibility

B) whether the information is from a "concerned citizen"

C) whether the citizen had provided valid tips in the past

D) whether the tipster had firsthand or secondhand knowledge

Answer: B

Q2) The elements of the __________ two-pronged test are important considerations in determining the existence of probable cause based on informant testimony. Answer: Augilar-Spinelli

Q3) The decision in Illinois v. Gates (1983) completely overruled the Aguilar-Spinelli criteria for establishing probable cause based on informant information .

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Criminal Investigatory Search Warrants

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Sample Questions

Q1) The number of hours a search lasted is the major factor used to determine the reasonableness of the duration of a search.

A)True

B)False

Q2) For police to legally search areas that are appurtenant (incident to, belonging to, or going with the residence listed on the warrant):_____.

A) the appurtenant areas must be explicitly stated in the language of the warrant

B) the items that are the listed in the warrant must be capable of storage in the appurtenant areas

C) the appurtenant areas must be in plain view

D) the owner of the premises must consent tenant areas

Q3) To avoid the severity of total repression of evidence when a small mistake is made in a search warrant, the courts have adopted partial suppression, better known as ___________ or severability.

Q4) Provide examples that would illustrate a minimum of three different constitutional limits on the seizure of items found in a search.

Q5) The person swearing-out an affidavit is referred to as the ___________.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Searches for Electronically Stored Information and

Electronic Surveillance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Materials that are made inaccessible to anyone without a special court order are said to be _____.

A) under lock and key

B) on-hold

C) under seal

D) en todos

Q2) The __________ provides that any person may intercept an electronic communication made through a system that is configured so that the communication is readily accessible to the general public.

Q3) Congress created a special Article III court to review FISA applications called the __________.

Q4) The case of Dalia v. United States ruled that a judicial order to place an eavesdropping device by law enforcement in a business or residence need not have a separate order specifically authorizing the __________ entry to install the device.

Q5) Title III of the Wiretap Act does not cover video surveillance using video cameras that record only images and not aural communications.

A)True B)False

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Chapter 6: Administrative and Special Needs Searches

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Sample Questions

Q1) Searches and/or seizures conducted at fixed or functional border locations are governed by the principle that _____.

A) the officer have probable cause

B) the officer have reasonable suspicion

C) they be conducted by an officer employed by the FBI

D) they be conducted in a reasonable manner

Q2) Which statement about the opinion of the Court in Safford Unified School District v. Redding (2009) is true?

A) The Court ruled that the definition of a "strip search" includes who was looking and how much was seen.

B) The Court ruled that the school officials exceeded the scope of a reasonable search.

C) The Court ruled the strip search to be unconstitutional.

D) The Court ruled that, in this instance, there was no strip search.

Q3) Define what is meant by a special needs search. Provide a minimum of two examples.

Q4) The line between an administrative and a criminal search sometimes blurs. In distinguishing between them, it is important to look at the search's __________ and competing __________.

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Chapter 7: Arrests, Searches Incident to Arrest, and Protective Sweeps

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Sample Questions

Q1) In Tennessee v. Garner (1985), the Supreme Court decided that the common law fleeing felon rule violated which Amendment?

A) First Amendment.

B) Fourth Amendment.

C) Fifth Amendment.

D) Eighth Amendment.

Q2) In general, if a police officer makes a warrantless arrest for a felony based on probable cause and it turns out that the arrestee did not commit the suspected offense, the officer is not civilly liable, provided no negligence was involved in making the arrest.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A(n) __________ is the routine practice of police departments of securing and recording the contents of a lawfully impounded vehicle. This is done to protect the vehicle owner's property while it remains in custody, and to protect the police from potential danger and from claims or disputes over lost or stolen property.

Q4) State the elements of a formal arrest. Illustrate by way of example the difference between the concepts tantamount to an arrest and formal arrest.

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Chapter 8: Stops and Frisks

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Sample Questions

Q1) As the delay between the development of reasonable suspicion on the part of the officer and the actual stop grows longer, courts may find that the suspicion has "evaporated."

A)True

B)False

Q2) The United State Supreme Court has ruled that an officer may rely on their own experience and specialized training to establish reasonable suspicion that might not be available to an untrained person.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Generally speaking, ______________ is needed to support an anonymous tip and provide reasonable suspicion to justify an investigatory stop.

Q4) A police officer who detains a person must have _____ supported by articulable facts that criminal activity may be afoot.

A) probable cause

B) reasonable suspicion

C) color of authority

D) legal ground

Q5) Define what is meant by a furtive gesture and give two examples.

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Chapter 9: Consent Searches

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Q1) A person's consent to an officer's request to enter his or her residence __________ grant the officer a right to search.

Q2) The person giving the authority to search is called the _______; the person acting for the _______ is called his or her ________.

Q3) Under what circumstances can a hotel manager give consent to search a room occupied by a guest or previously occupied by a guest? Illustrate by example.

Q4) A person giving police the authority to search by consenting to the request to search may limit the scope of the search to particular areas or items. When the citizen consents to a search in this way it is called a __________ grant of consent.

Q5) If a motorist is too intoxicated to drive, they are automatically too intoxicated to give valid consent.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Evasive or uncooperative conduct on the part of the person in custody is considered to indicate that the consent is not voluntary.

A)True

B)False

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Page 11

Chapter 10: The Plain View Doctrine and Special Needs Searches

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Sample Questions

Q1) Law enforcement agents of the Drug Enforcement Agency flying over a large forest observe a cultivated patch in the forest. Suspecting that it is a marijuana field, they land and approach on foot where they verify that it is marijuana and arrest a person working in the field. Their observations from the plane _____.

A) do not violate the Fourth Amendment because they had a right to fly there

B) do not fall within plain view because the nature of the plants was not immediately apparent

C) fall within plain view because they did not seize the marijuana until after making an arrest

D) do not fall within plain view because they invaded the suspect's privacy

Q2) The requirements of the plain view doctrine do not include that the _____.

A) officer, as a result of a prior valid intrusion, must be in a position in which he or she has a legal right to be

B) officer must not unreasonably intrude on any person's reasonable expectation of privacy

C) officer may develop probable cause to believe that the item is subject to seizure by handling and thoroughly examining the item

D) discovery of the item of evidence by the officer need not be inadvertent

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Chapter 11: Search and Seizure of Vehicles and Containers

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Sample Questions

Q1) The controlling consideration in the warrantless search of a vehicle is __________ to believe that the vehicle contains items that are connected with criminal activity and thus are subject to seizure.

Q2) In Chambers v. Maroney, the Court extended the Carroll doctrine to include _____. A) impoundment before search

B) impoundment after the search

C) no impoundment unless there is a search

D) impoundment on separate probable cause from the search

Q3) A valid inventory search requires neither __________ nor a(n) __________.

Q4) A warrantless examination of the exterior of a car deemed reasonable under the Fourth Amendment because _____.

A) there is no reasonable expectation of privacy in the readily visible areas

B) of the Carroll doctrine applies

C) most departments have written policies regarding impoundment

D) of the vehicle's mobility and the chance it can be removed

Q5) Name at least three different scenarios that the courts have ruled that it is within the authority of the police to impound a vehicle.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Open Fields and Abandoned Property

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Sample Questions

Q1) An officer wants to enter a certain area of a large apartment building to observe activities and seize any contraband he might happen across. What is the most legitimate "good rule of thumb" for the officer?

A) The officer may not enter if he has not been invited by a resident.

B) The officer may enter any area commonly used by visitors, businessmen, and delivery people to gain access and move about the building.

C) The officer may not enter without probable cause.

D) The officer may enter any area where incriminating evidence is immediately apparent.

Q2) Fourth Amendment protections do not apply to abandoned property.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is not considered an intention to abandon an object?

A) Leaving the object unattended for an unreasonable period of time

B) Leaving it unprotected in the care of no one

C) Placing the object in a garbage can within the curtilage

D) Discarding the object out of consciousness of guilt or fear of apprehension

Q4) Discuss the findings in California v. Ciraolo, 1986, regarding aerial warrantless observations by the police.

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Chapter 13: Interrogations, Admissions, and Confessions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Police are questioning a suspect about a crime. Miranda warnings are read to the suspect and the suspect clearly indicates he wishes to remain silent. Which of the following legal limitations are placed on the police?

A) They are, from this point forward, forever barred from asking questions of the suspect related to the crime in question and other crimes.

B) They must immediately, scrupulously respect the decision and stop with questioning, but may, after a significant amount of time passes and after re-reading the Miranda warnings, question the suspect about other crimes.

C) They may ignore verbal requests to remain silent and are only constrained when the request is in writing.

D) They must immediately contact an attorney for the criminal suspect.

Q2) Describe and provide a court case as an example to illustrate Miranda's limitation regarding testimonial evidence.

Q3) Both confessions and admissions are incriminating statements.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the Miranda Warning?

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Chapter 14: Pretrial Visual Identification Procedures

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Sample Questions

Q1) The right to counsel guaranteed by the Wade-Gilbert cases does not apply at the outset of a criminal investigation, instead, the right must "attach" when a "triggering event" occurs.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The _____ states that at a pretrial, post indictment lineup, the suspect has a right to assistance of counsel.

A) Stovall v. Denno case

B) U.S. v. Wade case

C) Yerkes-Dodson rule

D) Wade-Gilbert rule

Q3) Memory fades fairly rapidly immediately following the event, a phenomenon referred to as the __________.

Q4) The Supreme Court held in Stovall v. Denno (1967) that due process forbids any pretrial identification procedure that is unnecessarily suggestive and conducive to __________ mistaken identification.

Q5) Explain why the presence of counsel is required at a pretrial confrontation with witnesses conducted after the initiation of adversary judicial proceedings.

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Chapter 15: Criminal Trials, Appeals, and Postconviction

Remedies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain the difference between determinate and indeterminate sentencing.

Q2) Explain the differences between a subpoena and a summons.

Q3) Which of the following is not a true statement about the venire?

A) Federal law and the law of most states require that no citizen be excluded from service as a juror on account certain factors like race and sex.

B) The venire must be a perfect mirror of the community or accurately [reflect] the proportionate strength of every identifiable group.

C) The venire is supposed to be representative of society as a whole.

D) The prospective jurors who are summoned comprise the venire.

Q4) The Daubert case suggested several factors (that are neither exhaustive nor applicable to every case) that might be used in evaluating whether a particular scientific theory, study, or test is both valid and reliable. Which is not one of the factors identified by the case?

A) It is generally accepted in the relevant scientific community.

B) It has a known or potential rate of error that is acceptably low.

C) It involves a person employed by a college or university.

D) It is empirically testable and capable of replication.

Q5) Write a brief paragraph describing what takes place during voir dire.

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Q6) Name three things that a prosecutor or defense attorney may strike a juror for.

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