Criminal Justice Ethics Exam Solutions - 900 Verified Questions

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Criminal Justice Ethics

Exam Solutions

Course Introduction

Criminal Justice Ethics explores the fundamental ethical principles and dilemmas facing professionals within the criminal justice system, including law enforcement, the courts, and correctional institutions. The course examines topics such as discretion, justice, integrity, and the moral responsibilities of criminal justice practitioners. Students will analyze real-world case studies and theoretical frameworks to understand the challenges of making ethical decisions in complex and diverse environments, fostering critical thinking and professional development in upholding ethical standards in the pursuit of justice.

Recommended Textbook

Criminal Procedure for the Criminal Justice Professional 12th Edition by John N. Ferdico

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15 Chapters

900 Verified Questions

900 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1338

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Chapter 1: Individual Rights Under the United States

Constitution

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Following the Harmelin v. Michigan (1991) decision, the Eighth Amendment proportionality clause was _____.

A) removed

B) found to be broadly applicable

C) found to prevent only grossly disproportionate sentences

D) restricted to length of sentence and criminal fine issues

Answer: C

Q2) The _____ restricts the establishment of any government-sponsored religion.

A) proportionality clause

B) symbolic speech clause

C) free exercise clause

D) probable cause clause

Answer: C

Q3) The Sixth Amendment provides a right to be represented by counsel only in criminal prosecutions that may result in imprisonment.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Criminal Courts, Pretrial Processes, and the

Exclusionary

Rule

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The exclusionary rule will not be invoked in instances where a police officer acts in good faith in following what he or she believes to be the law.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The prosecutor's failure to disclose evidence which would show the defendant to be not guilty is a violation of the ______________.

Answer: Brady Rule

Q3) The judicial process in the United States does not require proof to an absolute certainty in any phase of proceedings.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) Circumstantial evidence _____.

A) indirectly infers a fact at issue

B) directly establishes a fact at issue

C) can be physical, tangible evidence, but not testimonial evidence

D) can be testimonial evidence, but not physical, tangible evidence

Answer: A

Chapter 3: Basic Underlying Concepts: Property, Privacy,

Probable Cause, and Reasonableness

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A "search" occurs when an expectation of privacy that society is prepared to recognize is infringed.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) When an officer's experience and expertise is relevant to the probable cause determination, the officer must be able to explain sufficiently the basis of that opinion so that it "can be understood by the average reasonably prudent person."

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Probable cause is evaluated by examining the __________ of the police at the time of the arrest or search, not merely the personal knowledge of the arresting or searching officer.

Answer: collective knowledge

Q4) Third party information is often referred to as ________. Answer: hearsay

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Chapter 4: Criminal Investigatory Search Warrants

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Fourth Amendment sets probable cause as the minimum standard for issuing warrants.

A)True

B)False

Q2) To qualify to issue a warrant, the judicial officer must be _____.

A) biased and attached

B) biased and detached

C) neutral and semi-detached

D) neutral and detached

Q3) The person swearing-out an affidavit is referred to as the ___________.

Q4) Officers must follow knock and announce requirements even if they believe no one is in the premises to be searched.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Officers executing a search warrant for a particularly described premises may not search _____.

A) other buildings which may be on that land

B) vehicles which may be parked on that land

C) people on the premises without further justification

D) the open fields around the land

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Chapter 5: Searches for Electronically Stored Information and

Electronic Surveillance

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Briefly describe what the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) is and does.

Q2) Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 refers to a "person who was a party to any intercepted" wire or oral communication or "a person against whom the interception was directed" as _____.

A) suspect

B) aggrieved

C) felonious

D) victimized

Q3) Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 _____.

A) requires authorization by a judge in the location of the tapped telephone

B) allows the issuance of interception orders for any felony offense

C) permits taps even when ordinary investigative procedures have not been exhausted

D) requires that the order be executed "as soon as practicable"

Q4) What impact has "cloud" technology had upon law enforcement in terms of electronic surveillance? Explain your reasoning.

Q5) Briefly describe how the Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Acts of 1968 originated.

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Chapter 6: Administrative and Special Needs Searches

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60 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) In response to the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001, cities across the United States took steps to increase security to protect buses, trains, ferries, and other forms of public transportation from terrorist attack. To date, the courts _____.

A) have been antagonistic toward these measures

B) have been supportive of these measures

C) have refused to review appeals from these cases

D) have not been asked to address this issue

Q2) If evidence of criminal activity is discovered during the course of a valid administrative search and the evidence is readily viewable by the inspector, the evidence _____.

A) cannot be seized even if a warrant is obtained

B) cannot be seized without first obtaining a warrant

C) may be immediately seized because probable cause is not necessary in an administrative search

D) may be immediately seized under the plain view doctrine

Q3) Because the search guidelines for college students are so vague and inconsistent, few generalizations can be made.

A)True

B)False

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Arrests, Searches Incident to Arrest, and Protective Sweeps

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Officers may not deliberately move an arrested person near an object or place they want to search in order to activate the incident-to-arrest exception.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In the majority of states, arrest warrants are required for misdemeanors that do not occur in the officer's presence.

A)True

B)False

Q3) During a search incident to arrest, officers may not search for weapons unless they can point to specific facts and circumstances indicating the likelihood that the person was armed and dangerous.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following are needed for an officer to make a warrantless arrest for a felony?

A) the officer must have a separate witness.

B) the offense must be committed in the officer's presence.

C) the officer must have verbal approval from a court to arrest.

D) the officer must have probable cause that the offense was committed.

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Chapter 8: Stops and Frisks

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The USA Patriot Act has broadened the government's power to detain individuals within the United States for long periods of time on apparently nothing more than reasonable suspicion once such persons have been classified by the U.S. government as an enemy combatant.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The United State Supreme Court has ruled that an officer may rely on their own experience and specialized training to establish reasonable suspicion that might not be available to an untrained person.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A law enforcement officer may detain property for a brief time if the officer has a ______________ that the property contains items subject to seizure.

Q4) Many states and the federal government have rules prohibiting ______________ by law enforcement officers. Many states require law enforcement agencies to collect statistical data on the race and ethnicity of persons pulled over for traffic stops.

Q5) Define and give an example of a pretextual stop.

Q6) Describe the distinctions between a stop and a formal arrest.

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Chapter 9: Consent Searches

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Without a signed consent form, the validity of the search is easily challenged.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The officer tells a driver, stopped for a lawful traffic violation, that if he wants to he can attempt to repair a brake light to avoid a ticket. The driver opens the trunk and attempts a quick repair but in so doing exposes an illegal weapon in the trunk. The officer seizes the weapon and arrests the driver. At the suppression hearing, how is the court likely to 'hold' the search?

A) invalid because the driver failed to give affirmative consent to opening the trunk.

B) invalid because the officer failed to warn the driver that he did not have to open the trunk.

C) valid because the driver's actions indicate voluntariness.

D) valid because the driver was not under arrest.

Q3) Compare and contrast the authority of parents to grant consent to search their child's property and a child's authority to grant consent to search a parent's residence.

Q4) A __________ is a person in possession of someone else's personal property with the lawful permission of the rightful owner.

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Chapter 10: The Plain View Doctrine and Special Needs Searches

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Mincey v. Arizona, the warrantless search of a residence is not constitutionally permissible simply because a homicide has recently occurred there. There is no "_______________" exception.

Q2) The requirements of the plain view doctrine do not include that the _____.

A) officer, as a result of a prior valid intrusion, be in a position in which he or she has a legal right to be

B) officer must not unreasonably intrude on any person's reasonable expectation of privacy

C) officer must not use any means to enhance her ability to observe

D) The incriminating character of the object to be seized must be immediately apparent to the officer

Q3) A police officer legally enters a place and observes what he believes to be stolen merchandise. The officer can pick the item up to more closely examine it and then make a determination as to whether the item is evidence of a crime.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Briefly describe the plain view doctrine.

Q5) What is meant by a controlled delivery and why is it used?

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Chapter 11: Search and Seizure of Vehicles and Containers

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assuming that a vehicle has been legally impounded, under what circumstances, if any, may the vehicle be searched for incriminating evidence without a warrant?

Q2) To use the automobile exception as the basis for a warrantless search, _____.

A) the vehicle must be inherently capable of movement, the officer must have probable cause, and there must exist an additional exigent situation

B) the vehicle must be inherently capable of movement, but the officer does not need probable cause to search

C) the vehicle must be inherently capable of movement and there must exist an additional exigent situation

D) the vehicle must be inherently capable of movement and the officer must have probable cause

Q3) If possible, warrantless searches under the __________ doctrine should be conducted immediately at the scene where the vehicle is stopped.

Q4) Not all drivers and passengers have an expectation of privacy in terms of the items contained in a vehicle. Under the Fourth Amendment these vehicle occupants would be said to lack __________ to challenge a particular vehicle search by police.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Open Fields and Abandoned Property

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26693

Sample Questions

Q1) In a multiple occupancy dwelling, which of the following is typically NOT accessible under the open fields doctrine?

A) hallways

B) balconies

C) elevators

D) stairways

Q2) Discuss the differences between single and multi-family dwellings for the purposes of determining the extent of the curtilage.

Q3) If an officer has entered open fields to search, he or she _____

A) must base all seizures on probable cause that the items are seizable

B) may seize only items in plain view

C) must obtain a warrant before seizing any item they find

D) must have exigency to seize any item they find

Q4) The case of Oliver v. United States, 1984, involved a warrantless police seizure of marijuana from a secluded plot of land. Explain the court's rationale regarding searches in and around unoccupied tracks.

Q5) Curtilage means the __________ and __________.

Q6) __________ is the foundational U.S. Supreme Court case addressing abandoned property.

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Chapter 13: Interrogations, Admissions, and Confessions

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A confession produced by police threatening violence but not touching the suspect is nevertheless a violation of due process.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Some courts have ruled that a confession produced by trickery or __________ is not necessarily involuntary.

Q3) Which statement is true?

A) In all situations where questioning occurs at a police station, the person questioned is considered "in custody".

B) In all situations where questioning occurs in the interrogation room of a police station, the person questioned is considered "in custody".

C) In all situations where questioning occurs at a jail or in a prison, the person questioned is considered "in custody".

D) "In custody" determinations are not made based entirely on location. Custody is determined by examining, from a reasonable person's point of view, the totality of facts and circumstances surrounding an encounter between a person and law enforcement authorities.

Q4) Provide a definition of "custody."

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Chapter 14: Pretrial Visual Identification Procedures

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26695

Sample Questions

Q1) A __________ error is a belief that events that were imagined were actually perceived.

Q2) Briefly explain what is meant by cross-racial identification bias.

Q3) The people who appear in a lineup or photo array other than the suspect are called

Q4) When a person has witnessed a violent crime that involves a weapon, he pays very close attention to his surroundings and his level of accuracy in recalling these events is much higher than in normal circumstances.

A)True

B)False

Q5) When sensory acquisition is incomplete because a person is overwhelmed with too much information in too short a period of time, _______________ has occurred.

Q6) What do data from The Innocence Project suggest is the leading cause of wrongful conviction in United States courts?

A) use of improper forensic techniques

B) eyewitness misidentification

C) false confessions

D) unreliable informants

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Chapter 15: Criminal Trials, Appeals, and Postconviction

Remedies

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26696

Sample Questions

Q1) The prosecutor's failure to disclose evidence which would show the defendant to be not guilty is a violation of the __________.

Q2) Peremptory challenges are limited in number, but challenges for cause are not.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is not a true statement about the venire?

A) Federal law and the law of most states require that no citizen be excluded from service as a juror on account certain factors like race and sex.

B) The venire must be a perfect mirror of the community or accurately [reflect] the proportionate strength of every identifiable group.

C) The venire is supposed to be representative of society as a whole.

D) The prospective jurors who are summoned comprise the venire.

Q4) In appellate review of the decisions of courts of original jurisdiction, the __________ standard of review grants no deference to the lower court.

Q5) Name and describe the three common post-trial motions that are often made by the defense following a conviction.

Q6) Name three things that a prosecutor or defense attorney may strike a juror for.

Page 17

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