Criminal Justice and Psychology Question
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Course Introduction
This course explores the intersection of criminal justice and psychology, examining how psychological principles and theories inform practices within the legal system. Students will analyze the psychological underpinnings of criminal behavior, offender profiling, and decision-making processes within law enforcement and the courts. The course also covers topics such as eyewitness testimony, the assessment and treatment of offenders, mental health issues within the justice system, and the reliability of forensic evidence, fostering an understanding of how psychological insights can contribute to more effective and equitable criminal justice practices.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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30 Chapters
927 Verified Questions
927 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40501
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning our criminal justice system is false?
A)Police officers are good at detecting deception
B)Sex offender treatment can be effective at reducing reoffending.
C)Clinicians who use actuarial risk assessments are better at predicting risk of reoffending relative to those who rely on unstructured professional judgment.
D)Police officers have comparable rates of suicide to the general population.
E)Eyewitnesses can make mistakes when presented with police lineups.
Answer: A
Q2) In what legal case did the Supreme Court of Canada first define the criteria for determining when the testimony of expert witnesses,including psychologists,would be admitted in court?
A)R.v.Daubert
B)R.v,Mohan
C)R.v.Gladue
D)R.v.Oickle
E)R.v.Hubbert
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 1: B: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the Mohan criteria? Outline the four criteria and identify a potential problem with them.
Answer: a.The Mohan criteria are the Canadian criteria which outline factors that should be considered when determining the admissibility of expert testimony in court.The four criteria are:
-The evidence must be relevant.
-The evidence must be necessary for assisting the trier of fact (i.e.,it goes beyond the common understanding of court).
-The evidence must not violate any rules of exclusion (i.e.,it must not relate to whether a witness is telling the truth).
-The testimony must be provided by a qualified expert.
b.These criteria are potentially problematic as they are highly subject to the discretion of the judge and judges can sometimes be wrong (e.g.,the judge determines if the evidence actually goes beyond the common understanding of the jury).
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4
Chapter 2: A: Police Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of the use-of-force continuum?
A)It is an indirect method of helping to control the amount of force used by a police officer.
B)It provides a dynamic guide that can potentially assist with use-of-force decision making.
C)Following the continuum completely removes the need for police discretion in use-of-force situations.
D)The continuum encourages officers to continually assess their surroundings.
E)Lethal force is one of the use-of-force options included in the continuum.
Answer: C
Q2) As a psychologist involved in police selection,which measure(s)would you be most confident in administering to an applicant if your goal was to accurately predict the potential for a candidate to display problematic police behaviour?
A)IPI
B)SILS
C)MMPI
D)MMPI-2 Lie Scale
E)RPAT
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: B: Police Psychology
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7 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
Q2) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q3) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
Q4) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Q5) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
Q6) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
Q7) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
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Chapter 3: A: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary goal of the PEACE model of investigative interviewing is
A)to obtain a confession.
B)to obtain complete and accurate information about the crime.
C)to utilize minimization techniques only in questioning suspects.
D)to eliminate the need for use of any investigative coercion practices.
E)to teach police officers how to use calming strategies during stressful interviews.
Q2) According to Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990),the process of profiling described in equation form is:
A)WHO + WHY = WHAT
B)WHAT + WHY = WHO
C)WHAT + WHEN = WHO
D)WHO + WHERE = WHAT
E)WHAT + WHO = WHY
Q3) According to your textbook,which type of false confession is most common?
A)voluntary
B)coerced-compliant
C)coerced-internalized
D)retracted
E)disputed
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Page 7
Chapter 3: B: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the interrogation model that is most often taught to police officers in North America? Briefly describe the model's three stages.
Q2) List five background characteristics that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five background characteristics that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q3) State four general criticisms of criminal profiling.
Q4) Distinguish between deductive criminal profiling and inductive criminal profiling.Identify a problem associated with each method.
Q5) What does the acronym for the PEACE model of interrogation stand for? Briefly describe the primary goal of this model,and provide one example of how Canadian police officers are not adhering o the principles advocated by the PEACE model.
Q6) Define what is meant by minimization and maximization techniques and provide one example of each technique.
Q7) List five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q8) Distinguish between a retracted confession and a disputed confession.
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Chapter 4: A: Deception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are potential applications of the polygraph in Canada?
A)Polygraph testing is used to screen prospective employees in certain agencies.
B)Polygraph results are used to pressure individuals to confess to a crime.
C)A polygraph test may be administered to the alleged victim of a crime to help determine whether the crime has indeed occurred.
D)A polygraph test may be administered to verify insurance claims.
E)All of the above
Q2) Which verbal indicator has been most strongly associated with deception?
A)speech fillers
B)voice pitch
C)speech pauses
D)speech errors (e.g.,slips of the tongue)
E)rate of speech
Q3) Which of the following is not a cue to malingered psychosis in criminal defendants?
A)hallucinations with delusions
B)understandable motive for committing crime
C)absence of subtle signs of psychosis
D)presence of a partner in the crime
E)visual hallucinations in black and white
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Page 9
Chapter 4: B: Deception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
Q2) Your text identifies several cues of malingered psychosis.Identify three cues associated with hallucinations and three cues associated with delusions.
Q3) Provide two verbal and two nonverbal cues (variables)demonstrated to be reliable indicators of deception.
Q4) Describe the four phases of a Comparison Question Test (CQT).Make sure you identify the purpose of each phase.
Q5) What concern has been raised regarding use of brain-imaging evidence in court? Discuss research that has examined this concern.
Q6) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
Q7) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering? List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
Q8) Rogers (1990)describes three explanatory models of malingering.Name and define these three models.Which model is most highly supported?
Q9) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
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Chapter 5: A: Eyewitness Testimony
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Sample Questions
Q1) When presented with a target-absent lineup,older adults (over 60 years of age)tend to make ______________ correct identifications and __________________ correct rejections compared to younger adults.
A)fewer/more
B)more/fewer
C)a similar number of/fewer
D)fewer/a similar number of
E)a similar number of/more
Q2) Overall,there is ______________ between the accuracy and the confidence of an eyewitness in the identification of a perpetrator.
A)a large positive correlation
B)a small positive correlation
C)no correlation
D)a small negative correlation
E)a large negative correlation
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Chapter 5: B: Eyewitness Testimony
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the misinformation effect within the context of eyewitness research.In addition,fully describe the three most common explanations for this effect
Q2) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
Q3) Describe the three major types of biases that have been found to increase false positives in lineup identifications.
Q4) Distinguish between a system variable and an estimator variable as related to eyewitness research.Provide one example of each.
Q5) List the five reasons why photo lineups are more common than live lineups.
Q6) Distinguish between recall versus recognition tests of memory as dependent variables in research.Describe how recall and recognition responses made by witnesses can be examined.
Q7) Distinguish between a simultaneous and a sequential lineup.
Q8) In general terms,how does the enhanced cognitive interview differ from the original cognitive interview? Name and define three of the five techniques specific to the enhanced cognitive interview.
Q9) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Page 12
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Chapter 6: A: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recent research by Lyon,Scurich,Choi,Handmaker,and Blank (2012)examining child sexual abuse transcripts reported what type of question to lead to the most evaluative information elicited?
A)Option-posing questions
B)Wh-questions
C)Forced choice questions
D)How-questions
E)Suggestive questions
Q2) Which of the following is not specified as a category of the narrative elaboration procedure?
A)criminal acts
B)participants
C)conversation/affective states
D)settings
E)consequences
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13
Chapter 6: B: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Q1) Distinguish between the incidence and the prevalence of child maltreatment.Provide an example of each.
Q2) Discuss the prevailing view regarding child witnesses from the 1600-1900s.Identify the four factors outlined by Ceci and Bruck (1993)that led to the renewed interest in child witnesses.
Q3) Name and briefly describe the two directions that have been taken to understand children's greater propensity toward suggestibility when recalling events (Bruck & Ceci,1999).
Q4) What are the five criteria identified by Lindsay and Read (1995)that should be considered when determining the veracity of a recovered memory?
Q5) Discuss the short and long term effects of physical abuse as well as sexual abuse.
Q6) A number of changes were made to improve courtroom accommodations for child witnesses in Canada.List four of these changes.
Q7) Describe the changes made to the competency inquiry with the enactment of Bill C-2 (2006).
Q8) List four risk factors associated with physical abuse and four risk factors associated with sexual abuse.
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Chapter 7: A: Juries: Fact Finders
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56 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following defendant characteristics has been found to influence a verdict?
A)criminal history
B)mental health
C)occupation
D)marital status
E)sex
Q2) Which of the following methods of researching jury behaviour is least likely to be used in Canada?
A)archival research
B)post-trial interviews
C)simulation studies
D)field studies
E)All of the above are commonly used in Canada.
Q3) Which research method is able to establish cause-and-effect relationships?
A)archives
B)simulation studies
C)post-trial interviews
D)field studies
E)all of the above
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Chapter 7: B: Juries: Fact Finders
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four functions of a jury.
Q2) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
Q3) In the context of jury decision making,identify two defendant characteristics that are most likely to result in guilty verdicts,and briefly explain each.
Q4) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
Q5) Besides the method of placing a ban on pretrial publicity,name and explain two other methods that courts can employ to increase the likelihood of jury impartiality.
Q6) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q7) List two proposed advantages and two proposed disadvantages associated with the asking of questions by jurors as a courtroom comprehension aid.
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Page 16
Chapter 8: A: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a scale included in the R-CRAS?
A)cognitive control
B)behavioural control
C)psychopathology
D)current emotional state
E)organicity
Q2) In what Canadian case was it concluded that an unfit person could not be sentenced?
A)R.v.Swain
B)R.v.Demers
C)Winko v.British Columbia
D)R.v.Arenburg
E)R.v.Balliram
Q3) Which of the following dispositions can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
A)detention in a psychiatric facility
B)absolute discharge
C)conditional discharge
D)all of the above are potential dispositions
E)none of the above
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Chapter 8: B: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Sample Questions
Q1) What changes to how defendants found NCRMD are dealt with were proposed in Bill C-54 early in 2013?
Q2) What are three explanations proposed by Bland et al.(1990)for the high rates of mental illness in offender populations in Canada?
Q3) What is the relationship between recidivism rates and offenders with mental disorders,as studied by Rice and Harris (1992)?
Q4) You have been hired by a Canadian lawyer to assess a defendant for competency to stand trial.As a first step,you have decided to conduct a competency screener.Describe the screener that you will use and justify your choice.
Q5) What are the three dispositions that can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
Q6) What is the name of the current insanity defence in Canada? According to the Canadian Criminal Code,what are the criteria for insanity? Assuming you are the Crown prosecutor,identify two situations in which you may raise the issue of insanity.
Q7) Distinguish between noninsane automatism and insane automatism.Discuss what dispositions are associated with each,and what circumstances have been recognized by Canadian courts in cases of noninsane automatism.
Q8) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
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Chapter 9: A: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sentencing guidelines,such as mandatory minimum sentences and starting point sentences,have been utilized to:
A)promote rehabilitation rather than incarceration.
B)"crack down" on crime by increasing sentence severity.
C)increase leniency towards offenders with mitigating circumstances.
D)reduce sentencing disparity between and within judges.
E)provide juries with better instructions on how they should sentence offenders.
Q2) A member of Canada Post has been charged with violating personal rights as he was opening and reading letters that were not addressed to him while sorting mail for his route.This Canada Post worker would be tried in what type of court?
A)Administrative Tribunal
B)Gladue Court
C)Provincial Superior Court
D)Federal Court
E)Tax Court of Canada
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Chapter 9: B: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Q1) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
Q2) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
Q3) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
Q4) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q5) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q6) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
Q7) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
Q8) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q9) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
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Chapter 10: A: Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The HCR-20 organizes risk factors into which of the following three scales?
A)Home,Clinical,Risk Management
B)Historical,Criminal,Recidivistic
C)Home,Clinical,Recidivistic
D)Historical,Clinical,Risk Management
E)Historical,Criminal,Risk Management
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the connection between clinical risk factors and violence?
A)Forensic psychiatric patients with a history of suicide attempts and self-injurious behaviour are more likely to engage in violence than other patients.
B)Most people with mental disorders are not violent.
C)Psychosis can increase the odds of violence but this is dependent on study designs,what is measured,and timing of symptoms.
D)A relation has been found between substance use and violence.
E)all of the above
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21
Chapter 10: B: Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name at least four ways in which female offenders differ from male offenders.
Q2) What are the three types of judgment errors or biases that clinicians make when assessing risk?
Q3) Identify and explain the three main weaknesses of research on the prediction of violence.
Q4) Identify and explain the three historical risk factors for violent/criminal behaviour discussed in your text.Be as specific as possible.
Q5) What is actuarial risk assessment? Provide two advantages and two disadvantages associated with this method.What new method of risk assessment was developed in an attempt to address certain limitations associated with the actuarial approach?
Q6) Within the context of violence prediction,distinguish between a static risk factor,a dynamic risk factor,and a protective factor.Provide an example of each.
Q7) Describe the coping-relapse model of criminal recidivism proposed by Zamble and Quinsey (1997),including the four levels of the model that can lead to criminal behaviour.
Q8) What was the main issue raised in the Baxstrom and Dixon cases/studies? What are the two key findings to emerge from this research?
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Chapter 11: A: Psychopaths
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diagnosis of psychopathy does fulfill the disease of the mind requirement but it has never fulfilled the second requirement of:
A)knowing the victim
B)not appreciating the nature or quality of the act
C)previously having been committed in a psychiatric institute
D)having spent a night in a psychiatric facility
E)having a diagnosed mood disorder
Q2) Retrospective studies assessing callous/unemotional traits in youth or psychopathy in adults by asking them about their childhood experiences have found that psychopathic individuals report lower levels of
A)child abuse
B)parental care
C)family conflict
D)prosocial relations
E)number of siblings
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Chapter 11: B: Psychopaths
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Q1) Explain who Clifford Olson is and why he is famous.What changes have been made to Canadian legislation as a result of his request?
Q2) Discuss several of the reservations that have been raised concerning applying the label of psychopath to children and adults,and what research has found regarding these concerns.
Q3) Describe the cognitive and affective models of psychopathy in terms of the two predominant theories about the development of psychopathy.
Q4) Name and describe different study designs used involving twins and siblings when trying to isolate the effect of genes or environment on psychopathic traits.
Q5) Name and describe the most widely used assessment tool for measuring psychopathic traits in adults.
Q6) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
Q7) Explain why most researchers believe psychopaths cannot be treated.Describe one well-known study that lends support for this notion.
Q8) Define psychopathy,Antisocial Personality Disorder,and sociopathy and give three examples of differences between these disorders.
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Chapter 12: A: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA),what was the minimum age set for which a child could be charged with a criminal offence?
A)7
B)9
C)11
D)12
E)14
Q2) Prior to commencing a court-ordered assessment of a child or adolescent,a clinician must legally:
A)obtain consent from the youth's parents or guardians
B)obtain consent from the youth
C)obtain assent from the youth
D)obtain consent from the youth's lawyer
E)court-ordered assessments do not legally require consent or assent.
Q3) What is the most frequent sentence imposed in youth court?
A)fine
B)incarceration
C)probation
D)reprimand
E)absolute discharge
Page 25
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Chapter 12: B: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective.
Q2) Compare the key changes to the youth criminal justice system associated with the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA),the Young Offenders Act (YOA)and the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA).
Q3) What is the relationship between youth gang involvement and delinquency? Discuss using research to back up your points.
Q4) Name the three childhood psychiatric disorders that occur with frequency in young offenders.Provide two characteristics of each.
Q5) Three childhood psychiatric diagnoses occur with some frequency in young offenders.Identify the three disorders,describe each,and discuss the relationship between these disorders (i.e.,is diagnosis with one type likely to result in the diagnosis with another?).
Q6) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
Q7) Name the two types of adolescent offenders described by Moffitt.Provide two characteristics associated with each type of adolescent offender.
Q8) Describe the difference between internalizing problems and externalizing problems.Provide examples of each and identify which is more difficult to treat.
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Chapter 13: A: Intimate Partner Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a meta-analysis of studies using the Conflict Tactics Scale by Archer (2002),which of the following results was true with respect to sex differences in violence?
A)Males and females within university samples committed equal amounts of violence
B)Treatment is more effective for male versus female batterers
C)Males are more likely to engage in minor physical aggression,whereas females are more likely to use severe aggression
D)Women are more likely to under-report levels of interpersonal violence relative to men
E)Men seeking treatment are much less likely to have engaged in severe physical violence relative to males mandated to treatment.
Q2) Victims of stalking are more likely to experience:
A)depression
B)intense stress
C)sleep problems
D)problems at work
E)all of the above
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Chapter 13: B: Intimate Partner Violence
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Q1) Name and briefly describe the three components included in Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory of intimate violence.
Q2) The National Family Violence Prevention Programs developed by the Correctional Service of Canada contain 6 components.Name and briefly describe each of these,and discuss which component has been associated with the best treatment outcomes in research.
Q3) Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers.According to the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004),which is the most effective in terms of recidivism?
Q4) Holtzworth-Munroe and Stuart (1994)developed a typology of male batterers based on the severity of violence,generality of violence,and personality disorder characteristics.Name and define each of the three types of batterers.
Q5) According to Rosenfeld (2004),what variables are significantly related to violence amongst stalkers (relative to those who pose a low risk of behaving violently)? What two factors are specifically associated with the greatest risk for continuing stalking behaviour after release from prison?
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28
Chapter 14: A: Sexual Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a study by Brennan and Taylor-Butts (2008),all of the following reasons have been found concerning why adult victims do not report sexual offences to the police except:
A)Victims don't feel the matter is important enough
B)Victims believe the matter already has been dealt with
C)They feel the matter is too personal
D)They fear the perpetrator will not be punished appropriately and will hurt them further.
E)They simply don't want to involve the police
Q2) In a study by Olver,Stockdale,and Wormith (2011),treatment attrition in sexual offenders is related to all of the following variables except:
A)Denial
B)Negative treatment attitudes
C)Number of prior offences
D)Level of motivation
E)Affective disorders
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Chapter 14: B: Sexual Offenders
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Q1) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests,as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.
Q2) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
Q3) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text,including facts that challenge these false beliefs.
Q4) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
Q5) Describe the two main components of relapse prevention programs aimed at sexual offenders.In addition,distinguish between the terms lapse,relapse,and abstinence violation effect in the context of relapse prevention programs.
Q6) List the four types of female sexual offenders identified by Atkinson (1996).Describe each in terms of their offending behaviour and their backgrounds.
Q7) According to Finkelhor's (1984)theory of child molesting,what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?
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Page 30
Chapter 15: A: Homicidal Offenders
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a meta-analysis by Jolliffe and Farrington (2007),what type of violent offender treatment program was found to be least effective in reducing violent reoffending?
A)Relapse prevention
B)Anger management
C)Social skills
D)Empathy training
E)Self-regulation system
Q2) According to social learning theorists,aggressive behaviour is:
A)the product of a disturbed personality
B)the product of negative childhood experiences
C)the product of learning
D)the product of childhood physical abuse
E)the product of evolution
Q3) Mariticide refers to:
A)the killing of men.
B)the killing of women.
C)the killing of a wife by her husband.
D)the killing of a husband by his wife.
E)the killing of a married couple.
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Chapter 15: B: Homicidal Offenders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40530
Sample Questions
Q1) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers,with one being a hedonistic serial murderer.What motivates a hedonistic serial murderer? List the three subtypes of the hedonistic serial murderer and distinguish between them.
Q2) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
Q3) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
Q4) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
Q5) Identify the three categories of juvenile homicide offenders outlined by Cornell,Benedek,and Benedek (1987)and describe the circumstances of their offending.Which type is the most common among youth killers?
Q6) What are the four main types of homicide recognized by Canadian criminal law? Discuss the features of each including the definitions and penalties.
Q7) Identify the two types of familicide murderers described by Wilson,Daly,and Daniele (1995),and discuss the features of both.
Q8) List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006)between female and male serial murderers.
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