Criminal Justice Administration
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Criminal Justice Administration explores the structure, functions, and processes of agencies involved in enforcing laws, adjudicating crimes, and treating offenders. This course examines the roles and responsibilities of police, courts, and correctional institutions within the wider context of the criminal justice system. Students will analyze administrative issues such as policy development, management strategies, ethical decision-making, and the impact of technology and reforms on justice delivery. Emphasis will be placed on understanding the challenges and opportunities faced by administrators in promoting justice, efficiency, and accountability while safeguarding the rights of individuals and the community.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Procedure for the Criminal Justice Professional 12th Edition by John N. Ferdico
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15 Chapters
900 Verified Questions
900 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Individual Rights Under the United States
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Sixth Amendment provides a right to be represented by counsel only in criminal prosecutions that may result in imprisonment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) According to the _____________________ doctrine, double jeopardy does not arise when federal and state courts both have jurisdiction to prosecute.
Answer: dual sovereignty
Q3) Substantive criminal law establishes legal prescriptions and proscriptions, whereas procedural criminal law sets forth the mechanisms through which substantive criminal laws are implemented.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The Supreme Court of the 1960s made policing the police, as well as state courts, a distinctly federal concern. Today, we refer to this shift in policy as the _____________________ revolution of the 1960s.
Answer: due process
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Criminal Courts, Pretrial Processes, and the
Exclusionary
Rule
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circumstantial evidence _____.
A) indirectly infers a fact at issue
B) directly establishes a fact at issue
C) can be physical, tangible evidence, but not testimonial evidence
D) can be testimonial evidence, but not physical, tangible evidence
Answer: A
Q2) The main purpose of ______________ is to accept the defendant's plea.
Answer: arraignment
Q3) A court with only appellate jurisdiction has the authority to _____.
A) retry a case
B) review the evidence to determine facts
C) review the legal issues of a case
D) review only plain error
Answer: C
Q4) The exclusionary rule requires that _____
A) unambiguous evidence of prosecutorial misconduct be presented
B) demonstration that the evidence was maliciously obtained
C) the prosecutor be willing to stipulate the evidence was illegally obtained
D) the defendant's Fourth, Fifth, or Sixth Amendment rights have been violated
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Basic Underlying Concepts: Property, Privacy,
Probable Cause, and Reasonableness
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Sample Questions
Q1) A citizen contacts the local police department and alleges that a particular person is dealing drugs out of his home. The citizen states that (s)he thought the police should know, but that (s)he does not "want to get involved by giving my name." What information would the officer need to state in the affidavit to satisfy the first prong of Aguilar-Spinelli (basis of knowledge)?
A) The name of the high school student that purchased the drugs.
B) How, when, and where the informant obtained the information.
C) How, when, and where the drug dealer obtained the drugs that were sold.
D) The reasons to believe that the informant was providing truthful information.
Answer: B
Q2) The U.S. Supreme Court has defined a "search" to occur when _____.
A) here is a meaningful interference with possessory interests in property
B) an individual has a subjective expectation of privacy and the expectation of privacy has been infringed upon
C) an individual has a subjective expectation of privacy that society considers reasonable and the privacy expectation is infringed
D) an officer collects any evidence against a person regardless of circumstance
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Criminal Investigatory Search Warrants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose and rationale underlying the concept of an anticipatory search warrant?
Q2) A(n) ___________ search allows items discovered during the execution of a covert entry warrant to be seized if there is a "reasonable necessity for the seizure."
Q3) Outline the process of applying for a search warrant. Include the considerations a law enforcement officer must be aware of if (s)he is to be successful in obtaining a search warrant.
Q4) An officer about to execute a search warrant has a sudden feeling that the occupants might resist, making the officer fearful. The officer has no facts or circumstances to support this belief. The most legally sound course of action would be to _____.
A) break in without notice
B) surreptitiously enter
C) still knock and announce
D) get permission from a supervisor to break in
Q5) The Fourth Amendment sets probable cause as the minimum standard for issuing warrants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Searches for Electronically Stored Information and
Electronic Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ concerns the use of scientific methods toward the preservation, collection, and interpretation of digital evidence from digital sources.
A) Forensic computer information systems
B) Computer forensics
C) Electronic surveillance
D) Computer science
Q2) Compare and contrast an interception order under Title III of the Wiretap Act and an ordinary search warrant.
Q3) What term describes tools for hiding, destroying, or counterfeiting the information relied on by digital forensics experts?
A) anti forensics
B) Trojans
C) wipes
D) back doors
Q4) A(n) ___________ is defined as " a transfer containing the human voice at any point between and including the point of origin and the point of reception."
Q5) Congress created a special Article III court to review FISA applications called the
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Chapter 6: Administrative and Special Needs Searches
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Sample Questions
Q1) The U.S. Supreme Court decisions in both United States v. Montoya de Hernandez (1985) and United States v. Flores-Montano (2004) concerned border searches. The earlier case involved a search of a person, whereas the more recent case related to a vehicular search. Which of the following most accurately reflects the decisions in these two cases?
A) Reasonable suspicion is required for both person and vehicle searches at a border checkpoint.
B) No level of suspicion is required for either a vehicle or a person search occurring at a border checkpoint.
C) Reasonable suspicion is required for a more invasive search of a person at a border checkpoint, whereas no level of suspicion is required for a vehicle search.
D) Reasonable suspicion is required for a search of a vehicle at a border checkpoint, whereas no level of suspicion is required for a person search.
Q2) Warrantless searches are allowed for certain licensed and __________ industries.
Q3) "Special needs" exceptions are evaluated under the __________ standard of the Fourth Amendment.
Q4) Explain the differences between a criminal search and an administrative search.
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8
Chapter 7: Arrests, Searches Incident to Arrest, and Protective Sweeps
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by the term exigent circumstance? Provide an example.
Q2) A person is "picked up for questioning" by the police and taken to the police station interrogation room where (s)he is given Miranda warnings and questioned. (S)he was never told "You're under arrest". Which of the following occurred?
A) a formal arrest.
B) a seizure tantamount to arrest.
C) a Terry stop.
D) an investigative stop.
Q3) A formal arrest occurs when a person is _____.
A) detained, however briefly, for any reason
B) taken into custody to answer for a criminal charge
C) stopped and frisked
D) booked
Q4) A(n) __________ is the routine practice of police departments of securing and recording the contents of a lawfully impounded vehicle. This is done to protect the vehicle owner's property while it remains in custody, and to protect the police from potential danger and from claims or disputes over lost or stolen property.
Q5) Briefly explain what is meant by the term warrantless arrest authority?
Q6) In a protective sweep, police are looking for __________.
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Chapter 8: Stops and Frisks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Officers may stop a person or a vehicle on the basis of which of the following?
A) police flyer and bulletin, but not a radio dispatch
B) bulletin and radio dispatch, but not a police flyer
C) radio dispatch and police flyer, but not a bulletin
D) a police flyer, bulletin, or a radio dispatch
Q2) An officer stops a vehicle for a minor equipment violation in order to investigate a more serious crime involving the occupants. This is often referred to as a(n) _____________.
Q3) A body of international law collectively referred to as the ______________ has developed over the centuries to set rules for the treatment of prisoners of war captured on the battlefield in war time.
Q4) _____ is a less demanding standard than _____.
A) Reasonable suspicion; probable cause
B) Probable cause; reasonable suspicion
C) Factual belief; probable cause
D) Prudent oversight; reasonable suspicion
Q5) Briefly describe the history and purpose of the origination of the Geneva Conventions.
Q6) Define what is meant by a furtive gesture and give two examples.
Q7) What is meant by a show of authority?
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Chapter 9: Consent Searches
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main advantage of a consent search for law enforcement personnel?
A) it is more convenient than the warrant procedure.
B) it is not as much probable cause than is required in other searches.
C) it is easier to prove validity of consent than it is to prove other procedures.
D) consent can be obtained from persons other than the suspect.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) In some situations consent obtained through threat of force may be deemed voluntarily given.
B) Police do not need to first tell a person that they are "free to go" before a consent can be deemed voluntarily given.
C) Voluntary consent to search must be given orally.
D) Voluntariness of consent is not affected by the physical, mental, or emotional condition and the intelligence or educational level of the person giving consent.
Q3) Can a person who is intoxicated give consent to search his/her property? Why or why or why not?
Q4) A __________ is a person in possession of someone else's personal property with the lawful permission of the rightful owner.
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Chapter 10: The Plain View Doctrine and Special Needs
Searches
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the plain touch or plain feel doctrine.
Q2) Describe searches regarding the plain view doctrine of police vehicle inventory searches in the case of South Dakota v. Opperman, 1976.
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement about the use of a thermal imaging device to detect invisible infrared radiation emanating from a home?
A) The Court found the use of the device did not violate an expectation of privacy.
B) The Court found the use of the device to be constitutional.
C) The court found use of the device to be unconstitutional because the device is not in general public use.
D) Use of the device constitutes a seizure (of the information), but not a search.
Q4) The plain view rule applies only to those things which can be seen without any mechanical or electrical aids to assist in observing items of evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is meant by a controlled delivery and why is it used?
Q6) Briefly describe the plain view doctrine.
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Chapter 11: Search and Seizure of Vehicles and Containers
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Q1) Based on the California v. Acevedo decision, the scope of a warrantless search of an automobile is defined by the _____.
A) nature of the container in which the contraband is secreted
B) object of the search and the places in which there is probable cause to believe that it may be found
C) object of the search, but not by the places in which there is probable cause to believe that it may be found
D) places in which there is probable cause to believe that the object may be found, but not by the object of the search
Q2) Owners or renters of a vehicle, and those riding with them, have standing under the Fourth Amendment to challenge a search of a vehicle they recently occupied.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Law enforcement officers with probable cause to search a motor vehicle may inspect passengers' belongings found in the vehicle that are capable of concealing the object of the search.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Open Fields and Abandoned Property
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Q1) The Fourth Amendment protections requiring police to have a warrant to enter to search extend to _____ but not to _____ under the open fields doctrine.
A) homes; businesses
B) private areas of a business; public areas of a business
C) businesses; hospital rooms
D) houses; temporary living quarters
Q2) Curtilage is usually defined by property boundary lines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An officer wants to enter a certain area of a large apartment building to observe activities and seize any contraband he might happen across. What is the most legitimate "good rule of thumb" for the officer?
A) The officer may not enter if he has not been invited by a resident.
B) The officer may enter any area commonly used by visitors, businessmen, and delivery people to gain access and move about the building.
C) The officer may not enter without probable cause.
D) The officer may enter any area where incriminating evidence is immediately apparent.
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Chapter 13: Interrogations, Admissions, and Confessions
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Q1) A suspect states, "I was in the car, but I didn't know it was stolen." How would this statement be most accurately classed?
A) a confession
B) a perpetration
C) an admission
D) a deposition
Q2) In which situation would the suspect be considered "in custody" for Miranda warning purposes?
A) while being questioned during an investigatory stop
B) while being transported to the police station in a patrol car subsequent to an arrest
C) while being questioned in jail by a police undercover agent posing as an inmate
D) while being questioned during an investigatory stop and frisk
Q3) What "test" is used to determine if a person is in custody?
A) if the officer intends to arrest the suspect
B) if the suspect doesn't feel free to leave
C) if a reasonable person wouldn't feel free to leave
D) if the detention is more than brief questioning
Q4) What is the Miranda Warning?
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Chapter 14: Pretrial Visual Identification Procedures
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Q1) A(n) __________ line-up or photo array occurs when neither the witness nor the person administering the lineup or photo array knows who the suspect is or who the foils are.
Q2) Perception and memory function optimally when there is only a moderate amount of stress, a principle referred to as the __________ law.
Q3) Persons in a lineup may _____.
A) refuse to wear the clothing worn by the perpetrator
B) be required to utter the words used by the perpetrator
C) be of obviously different races
D) refuse to be photographed
Q4) The Wade-Gilbert cases held that a post-indictment pre-trial lineup is a "critical stage" of a criminal prosecution that triggers the right to counsel. The logic of the Court in reaching this conclusion was that the presence of the defense attorney will _____.
A) prevent suggestive techniques that could lead to wrongful convictions
B) allow the suspect to assert his or her right to not participate in the lineup
C) let the suspect control the process that are implemented by police
D) allow effective cross-examination of the witness during the lineup
Q5) Describe the first stage of the memory acquisition, or encoding, process.
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Chapter 15: Criminal Trials, Appeals, and Postconviction
Remedies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Barker v. Wingo (1972) the U.S. Supreme Court identified four factors that courts should assess in determining whether a particular defendant has been deprived of the right to a speedy trial. Which of the following most accurately states the factors?
A) length of delay, reason for the delay, whether the delay was inadvertent, and prejudice to the defendant
B) length of delay, whether the delay was inadvertent, defendant assertion of the right, and prejudice to the defendant
C) whether the delay was inadvertent, reason for the delay, defendant assertion of the right, and prejudice to the defendant
D) length of delay, reason for the delay, defendant assertion of the right, and prejudice to the defendant
Q2) There are two major forms of relief for a defendant after being convicted of a crime: __________ and __________.
Q3) The final, authoritative determination or decision of a court upon a matter within its jurisdiction is called __________.
Q4) Explain the differences between a subpoena and a summons.
Q5) Write a brief paragraph describing what takes place during voir dire.
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