Criminal Justice Administration Review Questions
Course Introduction
Criminal Justice Administration explores the principles, practices, and organizational dynamics driving the management and operation of criminal justice agencies, including law enforcement, courts, and corrections. The course examines administrative processes such as policy formation, personnel management, decision-making, budgeting, leadership strategies, ethical considerations, and interagency collaboration. Students gain a comprehensive understanding of how justice organizations respond to societal challenges, legal mandates, and public expectations while maintaining fairness, accountability, and effective crime control.
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CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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17 Chapters
849 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) The smallest and top tier of the "wedding-cake" model of criminal justice focuses on high profile cases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Organized crime is defined as:
A) behavior that has been labeled criminal because it is contrary to shared values, customs and norms.
B) illegal acts carried out by illegal organizations engaged in the market for illegal goods or services.
C) nonviolent crimes committed by business entities or individuals to gain a personal or business advantage.
D) the interlocking network of law enforcement agencies, courts, and corrections institutions designed to enforce criminal laws.
Answer: B
Q3) The __________ gives the government in the United States certain powers, such as the right to coin money, create an army, and regulate interstate commerce
Answer: Constitution
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3
Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) A school of criminology that holds that wrongdoers act as if they weigh the possible benefits of criminal or delinquent activity against the expected costs of being apprehended is called __________.
A) classical criminology
B) utilitarianism
C) positivism
D) social process theory
Answer: A
Q2) __________ are chemical substances that control certain cellular and bodily functionssuch as growth and reproduction.
Answer: Hormones
Q3) An approach to drug addiction that treats drug abuse as a mental illness is called the __________ model of addiction.
A) medical
B) biological
C) criminal
D) psychological
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Q1) The __________ is an annual report compiled by the FBI to give an indication of criminal activity in the United States
Answer: Uniform Crime Report or UCR
Q2) The "dark figure of crime" in the United States is:
A) much smaller than the UCR and NCVS would suggest.
B) about that same as the UCR and NCVS suggest.
C) much larger than the UCR and NCVS suggest.
D) really has no relevance to the figures found in the UCR or NCVS.
Answer: C
Q3) Explain the two circumstances in which murder in the first degree occurs.
Answer: -When the crime is premeditated, or considered (contemplated) beforehand by the offender, instead of being a spontaneous act of violence.
-When the crime is deliberate, meaning that it was planned and decided on after a process of decision making. Deliberation does not require a lengthy planning process. A person can be found guilty of first degree murder even if she or he made the decision to murder only seconds before committing the crime.
Q4) The __________ party in a court case proceeding is called the plaintiff.
Answer: injured
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) A regulatory agency is a federal, state, or local government agency established to perform a specific function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _______________ __________ is the act of willful neglect or physical violence that occurs within a familial or other intimate relationship.
Q3) The authority of a court to hear and decide cases within an area of the law or a geographic territory is called __________.
A) case law
B) statute
C) jurisdiction
D) negligence.
Q4) Most hate crimes are motivated by which of the following?
A) race
B) religion
C) sexual orientation
D) ethnicity
Q5) __________ __________are the rules of law announced in court decisions.
Q6) Explain the development of the due process clause to the Constitution.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) Which of the following is typically NOT one of the responsibilities of the sheriff's department?
A) operating the jail
B) investigating drug crimes
C) carrying out civil and criminal processes within county lines
D) transporting inmates to and from the federal courthouse
Q2) A uniformed security guard patrolling a shopping mall parking lot or a bank lobby has one primary function- to convince a potential criminal to search out a shopping mall or bank that does not have private security, this is known as the __________ factor.
Q3) Which of the following is the responsibility of the ATF?
A) Enforcing domestic drug laws and regulations and assisting other federal and foreign agencies in combating illegal drug manufacture and trade on an international level.
B) Monitoring the illegal sale, possession, and use of firearms and the control of untaxed tobacco and liquor products.
C) Providing security at federal courts, and controlling property that has been ordered seized by federal courts.
D) Investigating and to enforcing our country's immigration and customs laws.
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) __________ is the moral sense of a police officer that she or he should apply authority in a certain manner.
Q2) According to Gay, Schell, and Schack, officers tend to spend how much of their time on patrol responding to calls for service?
A) one-quarter
B) half
C) three-quarters
D) all
Q3) Most police departments require that you be a U.S. citizen in order to become a police officer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is DNA fingerprinting so useful in criminal investigations?
A) because no two people, other than identical twins, have the same DNA
B) because detectives can find useable DNA at every crime scene
C) because DNA can always be obtained without a warrant
D) because DNA evidence is always conclusive
Q5) Explain the differences between the police academy and field training and why it is important for officers to have both types of training.
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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) What is the Supreme Court's justification for saying that the Fourth Amendment does not require police to obtain a warrant to search automobiles when they have probable cause to believe that a vehicle contains contraband or evidence of criminal activity?
A) Because a warrant is never required for any movable object such as a vehicle.
B) By the time the officers could obtain the warrant, the suspects could have driven away and destroyed any evidence
C) Because there is no right to privacy in a vehicle that may be operated on a public roads.
D) Because warrants are only required for personal property such as homes, apartments, or garages.
Q2) The questioning of a suspect after that person has been taken into custody is called a __________.
Q3) Explain at least four of the circumstances where a Miranda warning does not have to be given to a person being questioned.
Q4) A pat-down or minimal search by police to discover weapons is called a __________.
Q5) A brief detention of a person by law enforcement agents for questioning is called a
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) Which U.S. Supreme Court case established every American's right to be represented by counsel in a criminal trial:
A) Miranda v. Arizona
B) Gideon v. Wainwright
C) Furman v. Georgia
D) Gregg v. Georgia
Q2) Which of the four functions of the courts emphasizes punishment and retribution-criminals must suffer for the harm done to society, and it is the courts' responsibility to see that they do so.
A) due process function
B) crime control function
C) rehabilitation function
D) bureaucratic function
Q3) A "laissez-faire" judge follows procedure and restricts the freedom of attorneys to deviate from regulations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Being in charge of the docket is an administrative responsibility of the
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) The Strickland Standard deals with which of the following?
A) attorney-client privilege between a defense attorney and a defendant
B) constitutional requirements of counsel
C) professional relationship between the prosecutor and the defense attorney
D) the judge's appointment of a public defender.
Q2) Many defendants plea bargain because it removes the risk that they may go to trial and face a less severe conviction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the pretrial process, prosecutors have a great deal of discretion. Which of the following is NOT one of the areas where prosecutors have a great deal of discretion?
A) Whether an individual who has been arrested by the police will be charged with a crime.
B) The level of the charges to be brought against the suspect.
C) If and when to stop the prosecution.
D) Which judge will hear the case.
Q4) U.S. attorneys are nominated by the __________ and confirmed by the __________.
Q6) List and briefly explain the different forms of plea bargaining agreements. Page 11
Q5) In __________ cases, the primary responsibility to set bail lies with the judge.
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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) The bar against double jeopardy does not stop a victim from bringing a(n) __________ against the same person?
A) criminal charge
B) civil suit
C) adjudication
D) appeal
Q2) Voir dire is a part of the:
A) opening statement
B) indictment process
C) jury selection process
D) closing argument
Q3) When is an appeal NOT required in most states?
A) in every case
B) when the sentence is longer than 10 years in prison
C) when the sentence is life without parole
D) when the sentences is capital punishment
Q4) Direct evidence is evidence that establishes the existence of a fact that is in question without relying on inference.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) A __________ is a stipulation that allows a judge to adjust his or her sentencing decision based on the special circumstances of a particular case.
Q2) Outline at least two Supreme Court rulings on capital punishment that have impacted the bifurcated process for death penalty sentencing.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an element present when sentencing disparity occurs?
A) Criminals receive similar sentences for different crimes of unequal seriousness.
B) Criminals receive different sentences for similar crimes.
C) Mitigating or aggravating circumstances have a disproportionate effect on sentences.
D) Criminals of different races receive different sentences.
Q4) Capital punishment is a sentencing option in fifty states and in the federal government.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain what the presentence investigative report is and why it is important.
Q6) Explain the concept of restorative justice.
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) Approximately how many adults are currently under the supervision of state and federal probation organizations in the United States?
A) 2.2 million
B) 4.2 million
C) 5.4 million
D) 10 million
Q2) Home incarceration requires offenders to be in their homes at specific hours each day, usually at night.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to research, in which of the following circumstances would an offender likely be granted probation instead of incarceration?
A) If the individual was on probation or parole at the time of the arrest.
B) If the individual injured the victim of the crime.
C) If the individual only had minor prior convictions.
D) If the individual used a non-lethal weapon during the commission of the crime.
Q4) Explain alternative sentencing arrangements.
Q5) Explain how probation can be revoked.
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Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) The __________ design has been utilized since the early nineteenth century. The wagon wheel form of the structure was created with the dual goals of separation and control.
Q2) Jails are often more difficult to manage than prisons for which of the following reasons?
A) the more diverse and complex population that occurs in a jail facility
B) the large number of juveniles they must house and process
C) the lack of usefulness of jails in today's society
D) the smaller population they serve in a given year compared to prisons
Q3) Those sentenced to time in jail versus those awaiting trial or temporarily detained make up the majority of the jail population.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A disciplinary action taken by prison officials in which all inmates are ordered to their quarters and nonessential prison activities are suspended is known as
Q5) The __________ model is based on the assumption that prisoners are incarcerated for reasons of incapacitation, deterrence, and retribution.
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) The release of an inmate into a community supervision program at the discretion of the parole board is called which of the following?
A) mandatory release
B) discretionary release
C) pardon
D) parole
Q2) In most localities, the correctional agent assigned the responsibility of supervising parolees is called a:
A) sheriff's deputy
B) probation officer
C) social worker
D) parole officer
Q3) If convicted offendersfollow the conditions of their parole until the maximum expiration date, or the date on which their sentence ends, then they are discharged from supervision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the concept of a total institution as it relates to correctional facilities.
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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) Which of the following rights does a juvenile have according to the U.S. Supreme Court?
A) the right to a jury trial
B) the right an appeal
C) the right bail
D) all protections found under the Bill of Rights
Q2) The process of removing low-risk offenders from the formal juvenile justice system by placing them in community-based rehabilitation programs is called:
A) diversion
B) petitioning
C) referring
D) intake
Q3) A judicial waiver is the process in which the juvenile judge decides that the alleged juvenile offender should be transferred to adult court.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A __________ is a juvenile who has been found to have engaged in behavior deemed unacceptable for those under a certain statutorily determined age.
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) The __________ defense has often been raised in terrorism cases involving informants or Undercover agents, but it has yet to succeed.
A) pleading the fifth
B) terrorism
C) entrapment
D) justification
Q2) Explain how the Patriot Act has made it easier for federal agents to conduct searches during terrorism investigations.
Q3) Under the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act of 1978, the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court (FISC) would issue a warrant without probable cause as long as the "primary purpose" of the surveillance was to do which of the following?
A) engage in criminal law enforcement
B) investigate foreign espionage
C) hold federal officers accountable
D) install wiretaps in homes of American citizens
Q4) Individuals who use violence to further political goals such as the formation or destruction of a particular government are called __________.
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) When cyber criminals want to take their money-laundering operations one step Further and avoid legitimate banks altogether, they can make use of
A) digital banking
B) cyber money mules
C) laundering mules
D) digital currency
Q2) Information or data of value to a criminal investigation that is either stored or transmitted by electronic means is called __________.
Q3) Which of the following is one of the main weaknesses of using encryption to protect material on computers?
A) the ease with which iencryptiont can be hacked
B) the rate at which encryption it becomes obsolete
C) the rate at which spam overrides encryptionit
D) the ease with which viruses obstruct encryptionit
Q4) The Internet has been a boon to the pornography industry.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A __________ is a person who uses one computer to break into another.
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