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Crime and Society explores the complex relationship between criminal behavior and the social environment in which it occurs. The course examines how social structures, cultural norms, economic factors, and public policies influence patterns of crime, the definition of criminal acts, and the responses of the criminal justice system. Students will analyze theories of crime causation, the impact of crime on individuals and communities, and contemporary issues such as media representations, gender, race, and the effectiveness of crime prevention strategies. Through case studies, discussion, and critical analysis, the course fosters an understanding of the ways in which crime both shapes and is shaped by the broader society.
Recommended Textbook
Criminology The Essentials 3rd Edition by Anthony Walsh
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Q1) Criminality is a legal term.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Briefly explain the views of the classical school of criminology in regard to explaining criminal behavior.
Answer: The classical school emphasized human rationality and free will in its explanations for criminal behavior.
Q3) During the Progressive Era (from about 1890 to 1920), ______ became the primary disciplinary home of criminology.
A)biology
B)psychology
C)sociology
D)theology
Answer: C
Q4) Criminality is the scientific study of crime and criminals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The term index crime refers to
A)the nation's murder rate
B)Part I offenses on the UCR
C)Part II offenses on the UCR
D)the rate of violent victimizations reported on the NCVS
Answer: B
Q2) Property crimes are more likely to be cleared than violent crimes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A crime rate is calculated by standardizing the number of reported crimes by some unit of the population.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) What is the hierarchy rule?
Answer: Rule under the UCR that requires police to report only the highest (most serious) offense committed in a multiple-offense single incident to the FBI and to ignore the others.
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Q1) Until recently, the ______ was the forgotten party in the criminal justice system.
A)community
B)offender
C)prosecutor
D)victim
Answer: D
Q2) Identify one occupation that has one of the highest risks for victimization.
Answer: police officers; correctional officers; taxi drivers
Q3) ______ are at a low risk of victimization for violent crime.
A)African Americans
B)the elderly
C)the poor
D)violent offenders
Answer: B
Q4) Briefly explain the difference between traditional and electronic bullying.
Answer: Traditional bullying means everything from insults and name-calling to assault and destroying the victim's property.Electronic bullying means anything designed to hurt sent by electronic means (e-mail, Facebook, text messages).
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Q1) Adolphe Quetelet is known for his work in the area of cartographic criminology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which two theorists are most often associated with the classical school?
Q3) The philosopher the most closely associated with the principle of utility was
A)Cesare Lombroso
B)Jeremy Bentham
C)Adolphe Quetelet
D)Cesare Beccaria
Q4) According to Raffael Garofalo, societies can only be protected from ______ criminals by swiftly executing them, regardless of the crime for which they were being punished.
A)endemic
B)extreme
C)impulsive
D)professional
Q5) Hedonism is a doctrine whose central tenet is that the achievement of pleasure is the main goal of life.
A)True
B)False

6
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Q1) Who are more likely to be victimized according to Cohen and Felson (1979)?
A)females
B)living alone
C)with many possessions
D)only a and b
E)a, b, and c
Q2) How can affluence be a cause of crime?
Q3) Routine activities theory points out that crime increased dramatically with the expansion of the welfare state from the _______ onward.
A)1950s
B)1960s
C)1970s
D)1980s
Q4) Hume believes that after humans perceive a situation, experience emotions, and pass judgment on the event based on the emotion it evokes, humans then ______ that judgment.
A)second guess or rethink
B)analyze their perceptions of
C)plan a different reaction related to D)provide reasons for
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Q1) Which mode of adaptation is characterized by the rejection of legitimate cultural goals and the institutionalized means of attaining them?
A)conformity
B)innovation
C)retreatism
D)ritualism
Q2) Identify the five critical periods that have affected the social and organizational development of gangs over the last 150 years.Briefly explain the impact of each period on the development of contemporary gangs.
Q3) The zone inhabited by newly arrived individuals looking for work where social changes leading to delinquency mostly occurred was known as
A)social disorganization
B)the transition zone
C)the ghetto zone
D)the poverty zone
Q4) Describe the two ways in which social disorganization impacts crime and delinquency.
Q5) Define rebellion in regards to Merton's modes of adaptation.
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Q1) Define self-control according to Gottfredson and Hirschi.
Q2) How does primary deviance differ from secondary deviance?
Q3) Identify one possible policy implication of differential association theory.
Q4) According to Gottfredson and Hirschi, what is the source of low self-control?
Q5) The policy implications derivable from social control and self-control theories largely have to do with the family.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How do discriminative stimuli differ from reinforcements and punishments?
Q7) Describe both differential association theory and social learning theory.Compare and contrast what the two theories have in common, and how they differ?
Q8) ______ refers to the acceptance of social norms regulating conduct.
A)attachment
B)commitment
C)involvement
D)belief
Q9) Identify and explain two techniques of neutralization.
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Q10) Identify and explain the five techniques of neutralization according to Sykes and Matza's work.Provide one example of each.
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Q1) The core concept of ______ philosophy is the concept of class struggle.
A)feminist
B)Marxist
C)peacemaking
D)left realist
Q2) Briefly describe peacemaking criminology.
Q3) Describe the core components of peacemaking criminology.Based on this framework, what should be done to alleviate crime?
Q4) Gender (being male) is the single best predictor of criminal behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ______ is a condition that entails the estrangement or distancing of individuals from something, such as another person, society in general, or the products of their labor.
A)alienation
B)altruism
C)emancipation
D)patriarchy
Q6) What is patriarchy?
Q7) Briefly explain the power-control theory.
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Q1) The individual who helped to define the concept of intelligence, and who had created many of the IQ tests in use today, was
A)David Wechsler
B)Glen Walters
C)Michael Gottfredson
D)Sigmund Freud
Q2) The ______ carries out the basic housekeeping functions of the body by funneling messages from the environment to the various internal organs so that they may keep the organism in a state of biological balance.
A)ANS
B)EEG
C)PCL-R
D)RAS
Q3) Briefly describe the contributions of lifestyle theory.
Q4) According to Freud, the id obeys the reality principle and is able to engage in hedonistic calculus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly define sensation seeking.
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Q1) Research has consistently found a strong positive association between number of sex partners and adult criminal behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The findings of most behavior genetic studies are supportive of the idea that genes affect antisocial behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why do behavior geneticists use twin and adoption studies?
Q4) Which of the following represents the policy implications of biosocial theories of crime?
A)the offering of pre- and postnatal care for women
B)monitoring infants and young children in their early years
C)providing pharmacological treatments
D)all of these.
Q5) Define and discuss the reward dominance theory.What are neurotransmitters? How are the behavioral activating system (BAS) and the behavioral inhibition system associated with criminal behavior?
Q6) Briefly define behavior genetics.

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Q1) What distinguishes delinquency from criminality?
Q2) Describe the main concepts and arguments from age-graded theory.What makes this theory unique?
Q3) Agnew's trait of irritability appears to be analogous with what most psychologists call ______.
A)conscientiousness
B)impulsiveness
C)negative emotionality
D)sensation seeking
Q4) ______ is viewed not as a single turning point but as part of a potential causal dynamic over the life course according to Sampson and Laub.
A)serving in the military during wartime
B)getting a new job
C)marriage
D)residential change
Q5) Short-term antisocial potential can turn into long-term antisocial potential over time, as a result of certain consequences of offending.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What proportion of rape victims typically reports their assaults to the police?
A)Just under a quarter
B)Slightly more than half
C)Over three fourths
D)Less than one third
Q2) What is the definition of voluntary manslaughter?
Q3) According to the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, ______ has the lowest homicide rate in the world.
A)Columbia
B)France
C)Japan
D)the United States
Q4) Compare and contrast rape and aggravated assault.What are the differences in perpetrators and victims?
Q5) When it comes to the public's fear of crime, rape is consistently identified as the crime they fear most.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the definition of aggravated assault?
Q7) Briefly explain the feminist theory of rape.
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Q1) Explain the history of al-Qaeda and how it resulted in the attacks on September 11.
Q2) What are some reasons that terrorism is easier to accomplish today?
Q3) Identify the reasons that individuals join terrorist groups.Based on what is known about their motivations, propose three strategies for reducing terrorist activity.
Q4) In terrorist groups, those categorized as ______ tend to be socially alienated, narcissistic, arrogant, and intelligent, with a deeply idealistic sense of right and wrong.
A)antisocial personalities
B)charismatic leaders
C)followers
D)hedonists
Q5) The majority of terrorists are antisocial personalities who hold deeply idealistic beliefs about right and wrong.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly describe the relationship between terrorism and common crime.
Q7) Briefly explain the motivations of suicide bombers from a rational choice perspective.
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Q1) Which criminal act is committed by males and females in almost equal amounts?
A)burglary
B)arson
C)fraud
D)embezzlement
Q2) ______ is the most important consideration for low- and mid-level burglars.
A)guardianship
B)proximity
C)target attractiveness
D)target exposure
Q3) More women commit arson than men.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The category of motor vehicle theft includes the theft of snowmobiles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is identity theft?
Q6) Describe the crime of arson.How is it similar to other forms of property crime, and how is it distinct?
Q7) Describe the "salami technique."
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Q1) Drugs, now considered illicit, were legally and widely used in the United States for medicinal purposes up until:
A)1850
B)1897
C)1914
D)1962
Q2) Alcohol ______ dopamine levels, and ______ serotonin levels.
A)decreases; decreases B)decreases; increases C)increases; decreases D)increases; increases
Q3) Which organization played the most fundamental role in changing attitudes toward drunk driving in the United States?
A)DEA
B)FBI
C)FDA
D)MADD
Q4) Police spend more than half of their time on alcohol-related offenses.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Discuss Walters and Geyer's (2004) findings and the limitations of their study.
Q2) A study of brokerage firms found that many of the biggest names in the business have not had any serious violations since the early 1980s.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What theory did Walters and Geyer (2004) compare their findings to?
Q4) Which demographic was significantly more influenced by techniques of neutralization?
A)women
B)men of color
C)men over 35
D)men under 35
Q5) What is corporate crime?
Q6) The approach that businesses should be left alone to do as they will is known as ______.
A)caveat emptor
B)laissez-faire
C)Machiavellianism
D)Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Q7) What did Congress do in the Administration Improvement Act in 1979?
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Q1) The Apalachin meeting provided further evidence for the existence of a ______ and coordinated crime syndicate.
A)international
B)statewide
C)national
D)countywide
Q2) Most of organized crime's income is derived from all the following goods and services not available in the legitimate market EXCEPT
A)prostitution
B)gambling
C)strip clubs
D)drugs
Q3) The Tammany Society began as a fraternal and patriotic society, bust soon evolved into a corrupt political machine associated with the ______ which ran New York well into the twentieth century.
A)democratic party
B)independent party
C)republican party
Q4) Compare and contrast witness immunity and the witness protection program.
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