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Craniofacial Anomalies and Speech Disorders
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the relationship between craniofacial anomalies such as cleft lip and palate, craniosynostosis, and other congenital or acquired facial differences and associated speech disorders. Students will gain an understanding of embryological development, diagnosis, and classification of craniofacial conditions, alongside their impact on resonance, articulation, voice, and overall communication. The course emphasizes multidisciplinary assessment and intervention strategies, including surgical, dental, and therapeutic treatment options, with a focus on culturally sensitive and evidence-based practices for individuals with craniofacial anomalies.
Recommended Textbook Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Effects on Speech and Resonance 3rd Edition by Ann W.
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24 Chapters
372 Verified Questions
372 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70043
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the turbinates is the largest?
A)Superior turbinate
B)Anterior turbinate
C)Middle turbinate
D)Inferior turbinate
E)Lateral turbinate
Answer: D
Q2) Where is the Passavant's ridge located?
A)Hard palate
B)Posterior pharyngeal wall
C)Nose
D)Tongue
E)Upper lip
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Clefts of the Lip and Palate
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Pierre Robin sequence, what prevents the tongue from dropping down so that palatal closure can occur?
A)Cleft palate
B)Narrow palate
C)Microcephaly
D)Glossoptosis
E)Micrognathia
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following describes a cleft muscle of Veau?
A)The palatoglossus is attached to the velum
B)The levator veli palatini and the palatopharyngeus muscles are inserted into the posterior border of the hard palate
C)The levator veli palatini and the palatopharyngeus muscles are inserted into the midline of the velum
D)The levator veli palatini muscles are inserted into the posterior border of the hard palate
E)There is discontinuity of the orbicularis oris muscle
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Genetics Evaluation and Common
Craniofacial
Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is failure of the brain to divide into two separate hemispheres called?
A)Hydrocephaly
B)Macrocephaly
C)Holoprosencephaly
D)Microcephaly
E)Unicephaly
Answer: C
Q2) Cleft palate rather than cleft lip) is more likely to be associated with which of the following?
A)Deformations
B)Malformations
C)Disruptions
D)Associations
E)Other congenital anomalies
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Genetics and Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following changes in genes does not result in craniofacial anomalies?
A)Deletion of one or more nucleotides
B)Changing the regulation of gene expression
C)Insertion of one or more nucleotides
D)Polymorphism
E)Change in the function of a protein
Q2) In a case in which two individuals who are heterozygous carriers of an autosomal recessive condition have a child, what is the probability that the child is a carrier of a single copy of the mutation?
A)50%
B)25%
C)100%
D)0%
E)75%
Q3) Which of the following is not a rule of inheritance that Mendel described?
A)All alleles are dominant
B)Variations of genes are referred to as alleles
C)We get one gene from each parent
D)Alleles segregate from each other at meiosis
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Chapter 5: Feeding Problems of Infantswith Clefts or
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Feeding problems are most likely to occur when the infant presents with which of the following?
A)Bilateral cleft lip
B)Incomplete cleft of the soft palate
C)Complete cleft of the palate
D)Glossoptosis
E)c and d
Q2) Which of the following are essential for normal feeding?
A)Nipple compression
B)Generation of positive pressure suction
C)Generation of negative pressure suction
D)a and b
E)a and c
Q3) What is the most effective feeding positioning to decrease nasopharyngeal regurgitation during feeding?
A)Supine
B)Semi-reclined
C)Fully reclined
D)Upright
E)Prone
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Chapter 6: Developmental Aspects:speech, Language, and Cognition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a big factor for normal language and cognitive development?
A)Intelligence
B)Attending skills
C)Vision
D)Education of the parents
E)Hearing
Q2) Infants associate the physical movement of sound production with auditory results through which of the following?
A)Cooing and babbling system
B)Taking turns and external stimulation
C)Tactile-kinesthetic and auditory feedback loop
D)Speech stimulation of the caregivers
E)Contrasting voiced and voiceless phonemes
Q3) What is the most important requirement for speech and language learning?
A)Environmental stimulation
B)Motivation
C)Intelligence
D)Adequate hearing
E)Normal oral structure
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Chapter 7: Resonance Disorders Andvelopharyngeal
Dysfunction Vpd
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of resonance disorder occurs due to abnormal of the oral and nasal cavities during speech?
A)Hyponasality
B)Hypernasality
C)Nasal air emission
D)Mixed resonance
E)Cul-de-sac resonance
Q2) Nasal emission is never audible on which of the following types of speech sounds?
A)Affricates
B)Vowels
C)Fricatives
D)Plosives
Q3) Which compensatory production for velopharyngeal insufficiency is often co-articulated with /b/?
A)Pharyngeal fricative
B)Pharyngeal plosive
C)Palatal dorsal production
D)Nasal fricative
E)Glottal stop
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Facial, Oral and Pharyngeal Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What syndrome causes facial nerve paralysis?
A)Crouzon syndrome
B)Down syndrome
C)Moebius syndrome
D)Treacher Collins syndrome
E)Orofaciodigital syndrome
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to cause speech problems?
A)Macroglossia
B)Microglossia
C)Macrostomia
D)Ankyloglossia
E)Microsomia
Q3) Which is the condition where the lingual frenulum is congenitally short and attaches to the anterior tongue tip?
A)Microfrenum
B)Microglossia
C)Ankyloglossia
D)Lobulated tongue
E)Microsomia
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Chapter 9: Dental Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of buccal crossbite?
A)Occurs when the lingual cusps of all the maxillary posterior teeth are buccal to the mandibular teeth
B)Involves any combination of teeth distal to the canines and usually occurs because the maxilla is too narrow
C)Occurs when one or more maxillary teeth are positioned buccally such that the maxillary lingual cusps reside buccal to the mandibular cusps
D)All of the above
E)None of the above
Q2) At about what age does an infant's first tooth primary lower incisors) begin to erupt?
A)4 months
B)6 months
C)8 months
D)10 months
E)12 months
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11
Chapter 10: Psychosocial Aspects Ofcleft Lippalate and
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes "stigma" for individuals with craniofacial anomalies?
A)The deviation from cultural standards of beauty
B)Deliberate negative intent by unaffected people
C)Compensatory activities of unaffected individuals, such as being unusually indulgent or helpful
D)Extra awareness of the affected individuals by those who are unaffected
E)All of the above
Q2) A psychologist can help children with craniofacial anomalies address which of the following?
A)Nonadherence to treatment recommendations
B)Coping with visible treatments, such as distraction or reverse face mask
C)Fear of surgery
D)Anxiety during dental visits
E)All of the above
Q3) Which syndrome includes a risk of psychosis as the child becomes a teenager?
A)Moebius syndrome
B)Velocardiofacial syndrome
C)CHARGE syndrome
D)Apert syndrome
E)Treacher Collins syndrome
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Speech and Resonance Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What phoneme is best to use when testing for hypernasality?
A)/m/
B)/p/
C)/b/
D)/n/
E)/ /
Q2) Phoneme specific hypernasality will most likely occur in which of the following words?
A)Heat
B)Cat
C)Sit
D)Pay
E)Met
Q3) If you use the nasal cul-de-sac test and you hear a difference on production of a vowel, this confirms the diagnosis of which of the following?
A)Hypernasality
B)Hyponasality
C)Cul-de-sac resonance
D)Nasal emission
E)Normal resonance
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Chapter 12: Orofacial Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can cause the velum to "tent up" in an inverted V shape during phonation?
A)Levator veli palatini muscles inserting into the aponeurosis
B)Paralysis of the posterior part of the velum
C)Levator veli palatini muscles inserting onto the hard palate
D)Paralysis of the levator veli palatini muscles
E)Palatopharyngeus muscle inserting abnormally into the velum
Q2) What is the term for too little spacing between the eyes?
A)Hypotelorism
B)Hypertelorism
C)Facial cleft
D)Macro-optical focus
E)Micro-optical focus
Q3) When do tonsils create a concern for speech production?
A)When they extend beyond the faucial pillars
B)When they are absent
C)When they are asymmetrical
D)When they are size 2 on the rating scale
E)When they are visible
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Chapter 14: Nasometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nasalance score be for a prolonged /s/ when produced by a normal speaker?
A)0%
B)About 5%
C)About 10%
D)About 15%
E)About 20%
Q2) Which of the following is not true about interpretation of nasalance?
A)Normal oral resonance is typically under 20 percentage points.
B)If lingual-alveolars and bilabials are significantly higher than velars, this could be due to an oronasal fistula.
C)Articulation errors can affect the nasalance score.
D)The higher the contour is on the screen, the more hyponasality to expect.
E)The nasalance score can be in the normal range with mild nasal emission.
Q3) What does a low nasalance score typically indicate?
A)Nasal emission
B)Nasal rustle
C)Hypernasality
D)Hyponasality
E)Cul-de-sac resonance
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Chapter 15: Speech Aerodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following causes the rapid displacement of the vocal folds during speech?
A)Hypopharyngeal airflow
B)Subglottic air pressure
C)Vocal fold vibration
D)Decrease in air pressure
E)Phonation
Q2) Which procedure measures airway resistance in the nasal cavity?
A)Nasometry
B)Manometry
C)Rhinomanometry
D)Polysomnography
E)Nasendoscopy
Q3) Which of the following cannot be determined by aerodynamic methods?
A)Timing aspects of velopharyngeal function
B)Extent of nasal emission
C)Patency of the nasal airways during breathing
D)Estimates velopharyngeal orifice size
E)Severity of hypernasality
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Page 16
Chapter 16: Videofluoroscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which view used for videofluoroscopy is most similar to the orientation of nasopharyngoscopy?
A)Towne's view
B)Oblique view
C)AP view
D)Base view
E)Lateral view
Q2) Which view shows most of the port?
A)Lateral view
B)Frontal view
C)Base view
D)Oblique view
E)Towne's view
Q3) Which view is typically done without barium?
A)Lateral view
B)Frontal view
C)Base view
D)Oblique view
E)Towne's view
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Page 17
Chapter 17: Nasopharyngoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) When doing nasopharyngoscopy procedure, what is the narrowest part of the passage to the nasopharynx?
A)The entrance to the nasal vestibule
B)Just under the inferior turbinate
C)Just under the middle turbinate
D)Just in front of the choana
E)The superior meatus
Q2) For surgical planning, what is the most important finding through nasopharyngoscopy?
A)Size of the opening
B)Shape of the opening
C)Location of the opening
D)Timing of closure
E)Pattern of closure
Q3) Which of the following suggests the presence of a small velopharyngeal opening?
A)Bubbling of secretions
B)Irregularity of the posterior part of the velum
C)Irregular adenoid tissue
D)A small black circle
E)Visible airflow through the valve
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Chapter 18: Surgical Management of Clefts and Velopharyngeal
Insufficiencyincompetence VPI
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common surgical procedure for correction of velopharyngeal insufficiency?
A)Palatoplasty
B)Pharyngeal flap
C)Abbe flap
D)Palatal lift
E)Intravelar veloplasty
Q2) With regard to the timing of cleft lip repair, the "rule of 10s" includes which of the following?
A)10 months old and 10 pounds
B)10 weeks of age and 10 pounds
C)10 grams of hemoglobin
D)b and c
E)a and b
Q3) Why is the alveolar arch cleft left unrepaired until the age of 6 or 7?
A)It is technically difficult to close at an earlier age.
B)It allows anterior facial growth without restriction.
C)It does not affect speech or feeding.
D)Early closure can cause a risk of dental abnormalities.
Page 19
E)The alveolar cleft will eventually close on its own.
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Chapter 19: Orthognathic Surgery for Craniofacial
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a potential postoperative complication of maxillary advancement surgery?
A)Airway obstruction
B)Velopharyngeal insufficiency
C)Loss of teeth
D)Hyponasality
E)Anterior open bite
Q2) Children with clefts may initially have a fairly normal occlusal relationship, but they usually develop which type of occlusion with growth?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class III
D)Open bite
E)Occlusal cant
Q3) What is a potential postoperative benefit of a Le Fort I maxillary advancement?
A)Correction of compensatory errors
B)Correction of obligatory distortions
C)Correction of hypernasality
D)Improvement of the airway
E)b and d
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Chapter 20: Prosthetic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When working directly with the prosthodontist to modify an appliance for best results, what procedure is most effective to use?
A)Perceptual assessment
B)Nasopharyngoscopy
C)Nasometry
D)Intraoral examination
E)Videofluoroscopy
Q2) When is it not appropriate to use prosthetic management?
A)For patients with a history of cleft who have a delay for surgery due to medical issues
B)For patients who have undergone a successful cleft repair without complications or residual effects
C)For patients with persistent velopharyngeal insufficiency or incompetence after unsuccessful surgeries
D)For patients with other structural disorders not related to cleft palate
E)For patients who have cancer affecting the maxilla or velum
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Chapter 21: Speech Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The yawn technique is used to correct which of the following?
A)Glottal stops
B)Lateral sibilants
C)Substitution of /l
D)Posterior nasal fricatives
E)Pharyngeal plosives
Q2) Speech therapy is effective for which of the following?
A)Hypernasality due to VPI
B)Compensatory productions secondary to VPI
C)Obligatory errors secondary to VPI
D)Nasal emission due to VPI
E)Nasal rustle due to VPI
Q3) Which of the following is appropriate for correction of compensatory errors following correction of VPI?
A)Blowing exercises
B)Sucking exercises
C)Velopharyngeal exercises
D)Articulation placement procedures
E)Surgical correction
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Page 22
Chapter 22: The Team Approach
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on ACPA recommendations, which professionals must be on a Cleft Palate Team as a very minimum?
A)Plastic surgeon, ENT, pedodontist
B)Surgeon, dental professional, speech-language pathologist
C)Plastic surgeon, ENT, speech-language pathologist
D)Plastic surgeon, oral surgeon, speech-language pathologist
E)Dental professional, orthodontist, plastic surgeon
Q2) The team's primary contact person for the family is usually which of the following?
A)Primary care physician
B)Pediatrician
C)Family doctor
D)Managing surgeon
E)Team coordinator
Q3) Most of the managed care organizations exist as which of the following?
A)For-profit corporations
B)Not-for-profit organizations
C)Third-party administrators
D)Preferred providers PPOs.
E)Government-run providers
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Cleft Care in Developing Countries
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Q1) What is the primary role of the speech-language pathologist on a cleft palate surgical mission?
A)To evaluate patients for VPI
B)To determine which patients are appropriate for palate repair
C)To work with the dental professional to develop speech appliances
D)To provide speech therapy
E)To counsel the family and teach others
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The prevalence of clefts does not vary with geography.
B)Poverty is the only reason children in developing countries do not have access to care.
C)Interpreters should be given some written "scripts" prior to the evaluations.
D)The main mission of international organizations is to provide direct surgical care to affected children.
E)c and d
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Chapter 24: Velopharyngeal Dysfunction and Speech Disorders
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Q1) Upon examination, the child demonstrates the use of nasal phonemes and glottal stops for all speech sounds.What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A)A trial period of speech therapy
B)A prosthetic device on a trial basis
C)Referral to an ENT for evaluation
D)Referral to a cleft palate team
Q2) Which syndrome is most likely to include hearing loss?
A)Apert syndrome
B)Treacher Collins syndrome
C)Velocardiofacial syndrome
D)Down syndrome
E)Beckwidth-Weidemann syndrome
Q3) What procedure is best for identifying an occult submucous cleft?
A)A visual inspection of the velum
B)Palpation of the velum
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Nasopharyngoscopy
E)Nasometry
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