Craniofacial Anomalies and Speech Disorders
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the anatomical, physiological, and developmental aspects of craniofacial anomalies and their impact on speech and communication. Students will examine various congenital and acquired craniofacial conditions, such as cleft lip and palate, and how these anomalies affect speech production, resonance, articulation, and overall communication development. The course emphasizes diagnostic techniques, multidisciplinary approaches to management, and evidence-based intervention strategies for addressing speech disorders associated with craniofacial anomalies. Case studies and clinical guidelines are integrated to provide practical insight into assessment and therapeutic processes for affected individuals.
Recommended Textbook Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Effects on Speech and Resonance 3rd Edition by Ann W.
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372 Verified Questions
372 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) Where are the palatine tonsils located?
A)Between the faucial pillars
B)Behind the choanae
C)Above the velum
D)In the nasopharynx
E)At the base of the tongue
Answer: A
Q2) The lateral pharyngeal walls move in which direction to contribute to velopharyngeal closure?
A)Medially
B)Laterally
C)Posteriorly
D)Anteriorly
E)Superiorly
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Clefts of the Lip and Palate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause a wide, bell-shaped cleft palate?
A)Chromosomal disorders
B)Genetic disorders
C)Environmental teratogens
D)Inadequate folic acid
E)Mechanical interference in utero
Answer: E
Q2) Which muscle inserts abnormally into the hard palate when there is a complete cleft palate?
A)Levator veli palatini
B)Tensor veli palatini
C)Palatoglossus
D)Palatopharyngeus
E)Superior constrictor
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: The Genetics Evaluation and Common
Craniofacial
Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is failure of the brain to divide into two separate hemispheres called?
A)Hydrocephaly
B)Macrocephaly
C)Holoprosencephaly
D)Microcephaly
E)Unicephaly
Answer: C
Q2) Cleft palate rather than cleft lip) is more likely to be associated with which of the following?
A)Deformations
B)Malformations
C)Disruptions
D)Associations
E)Other congenital anomalies
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Genetics and Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes traits that manifest only when mutations are present in both copies of a gene?
A)Dominant traits
B)Recessive traits
C)Heterogeneous traits
D)Homogenous traits
E)Autosomal dominant traits
Q2) What is the possibility that their offspring will be carriers of the condition?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q3) Which of the following would be considered a threshold trait associated with multifactorial inheritance?
A)Height
B)Intelligence
C)Blood pressure
D)Cleft palate
E)Weight
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Chapter 5: Feeding Problems of Infantswith Clefts or
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Around what age is an infant ready to transition from a bottle to a cup?
A)4 to 6 months
B)8 to 9 months
C)10 to 12 months
D)12 to 13 months
E)15 to 18 months
Q2) Feeding problems are most likely to occur when the infant presents with which of the following?
A)Bilateral cleft lip
B)Incomplete cleft of the soft palate
C)Complete cleft of the palate
D)Glossoptosis
E)c and d
Q3) Which of the following describes the pacing strategy?
A)Providing oral feeding at defined intervals during a 24-hour period
B)Decreasing the rate of intake during feeding by imposing periodic pauses during feeding
C)Alternating feeding and burping at a predetermined schedule
D)Providing assistive squeezing at a certain rate per minute
Page 7
E)Burping the infant every minute, regardless of oral intake
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Chapter 6: Developmental Aspects:speech, Language, and Cognition
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Q1) Which of the following is not a big factor for normal language and cognitive development?
A)Intelligence
B)Attending skills
C)Vision
D)Education of the parents
E)Hearing
Q2) Children with a history of cleft palate only, especially those who have other congenital anomalies, are at most risk for which of the following?
A)Hearing impairment
B)Developmental and intellectual deficits
C)Sensory integration disorders
D)Autism
E)Cerebral palsy
Q3) What is the most important requirement for speech and language learning?
A)Environmental stimulation
B)Motivation
C)Intelligence
D)Adequate hearing
E)Normal oral structure
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Chapter 7: Resonance Disorders Andvelopharyngeal
Dysfunction Vpd
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Q1) Hyponasality most affects the production of which type of sounds?
A)High vowels
B)Stop consonants
C)Nasal consonants
D)Fricative consonants
E)Low vowels
Q2) A nasal rustle sometimes called turbulence) usually occurs due to which of the following?
A)A small velopharyngeal gap
B)A large velopharyngeal gap
C)An oronasal fistula
D)Nasal emission with a deviated septum
E)Nasal obstruction
Q3) What class of sounds is more often distorted by nasal emission?
A)Voiced fricatives
B)Voiceless fricatives
C)Voiced plosives
D)Voiceless plosives
E)Vowels
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Chapter 8: Facial, Oral and Pharyngeal Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What syndrome causes facial nerve paralysis?
A)Crouzon syndrome
B)Down syndrome
C)Moebius syndrome
D)Treacher Collins syndrome
E)Orofaciodigital syndrome
Q2) Macroglossia is characteristic of which of the following syndromes?
A)Velocardiofacial syndrome
B)Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
C)Bell's Palsy
D)Van der Woude syndrome
E)Stickler's syndrome
Q3) What muscle is responsible for middle ear function?
A)Levator veli palatini
B)Musculus uvulae
C)Palatopharyngeous
D)Tensor veli palatini
E)Palatatoglossus
F)Superior constrictor
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Chapter 9: Dental Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sounds are most likely to be affected by an anterior crossbite?
A)Labiodentals
B)Interdental sounds
C)Velars
D)Bilabials
E)Sibilants
Q2) How many teeth do children have? How many teeth do adults have?
A)24; 32
B)18; 26
C)20; 32
D)18; 32
E)20; 28
Q3) What is the term for the permanent teeth that replace the baby teeth?
A)Deciduous teeth
B)Incisor teeth
C)Succedaneous teeth
D)Wisdom teeth
E)Canine teeth
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11
Chapter 10: Psychosocial Aspects Ofcleft Lippalate and
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the birth of a child with a craniofacial anomaly more stressful than the birth of an unaffected baby?
A)There are many extra demands on parents because of medical appointments and feeding difficulties.
B)There are unspoken parental fears that the baby may die.
C)There is a higher incidence of psychiatric disorders among parents of affected children.
D)There is a resulting change in the parents' plans for future reproduction.
E)All of the above
Q2) Which syndrome includes a risk of psychosis as the child becomes a teenager?
A)Moebius syndrome
B)Velocardiofacial syndrome
C)CHARGE syndrome
D)Apert syndrome
E)Treacher Collins syndrome
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Speech and Resonance Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you use the nasal cul-de-sac test and you hear a difference on production of a vowel, this confirms the diagnosis of which of the following?
A)Hypernasality
B)Hyponasality
C)Cul-de-sac resonance
D)Nasal emission
E)Normal resonance
Q2) If the child demonstrates nasal emission on /p/ and /t/, but not on /k/, what is the probable cause?
A)VPI only
B)The fistula only
C)VPI and the fistula
D)Misarticulation causing nasal emission
Q3) What phoneme is best to use when testing for hypernasality?
A)/m/
B)/p/
C)/b/
D)/n/
E)/ /
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Orofacial Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which word contains the vowel that is the best to use for an intraoral examination?
A)Hot
B)Hat
C)Heat
D)Hit
E)Hut
Q2) What does a white line in the middle of the velum indicate?
A)An overt submucous cleft
B)An occult submucous cleft
C)An inadequate cleft palate repair
D)A normal velum
E)Velar diastasis
Q3) What can cause the velum to "tent up" in an inverted V shape during phonation?
A)Levator veli palatini muscles inserting into the aponeurosis
B)Paralysis of the posterior part of the velum
C)Levator veli palatini muscles inserting onto the hard palate
D)Paralysis of the levator veli palatini muscles
E)Palatopharyngeus muscle inserting abnormally into the velum
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Chapter 14: Nasometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important statistic that is obtained through nasometry?
A)Threshold percentage
B)Maximum percentage
C)Mean nasalance score
D)Fundamental frequency
E)Range
Q2) In normal speech, what is the primary determinant of the nasalance score?
A)Type of the vowels in the passage
B)Type of oral consonants in the passage
C)Percentage of high- versus low-pressure sounds in the passage
D)Person's dialect
E)Person's volume
Q3) What does a low nasalance score typically indicate?
A)Nasal emission
B)Nasal rustle
C)Hypernasality
D)Hyponasality
E)Cul-de-sac resonance
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15
Chapter 15: Speech Aerodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a pneumotachograph measure?
A)Volume of airflow
B)Rate of airflow
C)Air pressure
D)Nasal air resistance
E)Acoustics of airflow
Q2) Which of the following should always be considered when assessing the status of the nasal airway in children?
A)Size of the child
B)Weight of the child
C)Age of the child
D)Opening to the nasal vestibule
E)History of allergies
Q3) Aerodynamic techniques do not provide information about which of the following?
A)Intraoral air pressure level
B)Rates of nasal air emission
C)Estimates of VP orifice size during consonant production
D)Estimates of VP orifice size during vowel production
E)Measurements of nasal airway resistance
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Page 16
Chapter 16: Videofluoroscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not easily viewed through videofluoroscopy?
A)Relationship between the posterior pharyngeal wall and velum
B)Length of the velum and its upward movement
C)Pharyngeal flap or sphincter pharyngoplasty
D)Posterior wall of the pharynx during closure
E)Movement of the tongue
Q2) What is needed to adequately image a three-dimensional volume structure adequately?
A)Include three mutually perpendicular planes
B)Increase the level of radiation for better resolution
C)Include the base plane to see the entire port
D)Do a 360º rotation
E)b and c
Q3) On the base view, a black horizontal line during closure indicates which of the following?
A)Passavant's ridge
B)Adenoid pad
C)Coronal pattern
D)Sagittal pattern
E)Circular pattern
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Chapter 17: Nasopharyngoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) When doing nasopharyngoscopy procedure, what is the narrowest part of the passage to the nasopharynx?
A)The entrance to the nasal vestibule
B)Just under the inferior turbinate
C)Just under the middle turbinate
D)Just in front of the choana
E)The superior meatus
Q2) Where should you insert the scope when evaluating velopharyngeal function?
A)Inferior meatus because it will come out on top of the velum
B)Inferior meatus because it is the largest and therefore causes the least discomfort
C)Superior meatus because it will allow visualization from the highest point of the nasopharynx
D)Middle meatus because it allows a view from above
E)Superior meatus because its smaller size will keep the scope from "wiggling" around too much
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Chapter 18: Surgical Management of Clefts and Velopharyngeal
Insufficiencyincompetence VPI
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with a history of cleft palate and surgical repair often demonstrate which of the following?
A)Midface retrusion
B)Class III malocclusion
C)Class II malocclusion
D)a and b
E)a and c
Q2) What is a common surgical procedure for correction of velopharyngeal insufficiency?
A)Palatoplasty
B)Pharyngeal flap
C)Abbe flap
D)Palatal lift
E)Intravelar veloplasty
Q3) When is a cheiloplasty usually performed?
A)Right after birth
B)3 to 4 weeks
C)5 to 6 weeks
D)10 to 12 weeks
E)16 to 18 weeks To view all questions and flashcards with
Chapter 19: Orthognathic Surgery for Craniofacial
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not addressed routinely by either the cheiloplasty or the palatoplasty?
A)Velum
B)Oronasal fistula
C)Philtral ridges
D)Alveolus
E)Incisive foramen
Q2) Which is not a method of mandibular reconstruction?
A)Distraction osteogenesis
B)Le Fort I
C)Rib graft reconstruction
D)Free tissue microsurgical reconstruction
E)Mandibular osteotomies
Q3) What is a potential postoperative complication of maxillary advancement surgery?
A)Airway obstruction
B)Velopharyngeal insufficiency
C)Loss of teeth
D)Hyponasality
E)Anterior open bite
Page 20
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Chapter 20: Prosthetic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which situations is it most appropriate to consider the use a speech appliance?
A)When there is severe velopharyngeal insufficiency
B)When the patient has primarily obligatory speech distortions
C)When the child is not stimulable for a reduction in nasality with a change in placement
D)When surgical correction is not an option
E)When the cleft of the palate is very wide
Q2) What is the most appropriate prosthetic choice for the patient who has had ablative surgery for oral cancer?
A)Palatal lift
B)Head gear
C)Speech bulb obturator
D)Quad helix device
E)Dentures
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Chapter 21: Speech Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The yawn technique is used to correct which of the following?
A)Glottal stops
B)Lateral sibilants
C)Substitution of /l
D)Posterior nasal fricatives
E)Pharyngeal plosives
Q2) Pushing under the child's chin may help the child to achieve appropriate placement for which group of sounds?
A)Sibilants
B)Lingual-alveolars and /l/
C)Velars and /r/
D)Plosives
E)Fricatives
Q3) What is the preferred method of treatment for velopharyngeal insufficiency?
A)Surgical intervention
B)A prosthetic device
C)Articulation placement therapy
D)Velopharyngeal exercises
E)Depends on the cause
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Page 22
Chapter 22: The Team Approach
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Sample Questions
Q1) The team's primary contact person for the family is usually which of the following?
A)Primary care physician
B)Pediatrician
C)Family doctor
D)Managing surgeon
E)Team coordinator
Q2) Most of the managed care organizations exist as which of the following?
A)For-profit corporations
B)Not-for-profit organizations
C)Third-party administrators
D)Preferred providers PPOs.
E)Government-run providers
Q3) One standard requirement for meeting the ACPA standards is that each Cleft Palate Team must have which of the following:
A)Coordinator
B)Geneticist
C)Psychologist
D)Pulmonologist
E)Medical records specialist
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Cleft Care in Developing Countries
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Q1) In 1997, the International Task Force on Volunteer Cleft Missions outlined recommendations for volunteer cleft missions based on which of the following?
A)Mission objectives
B)Organization
C)Personal health and liability
D)Funding
E)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The prevalence of clefts varies with ethnic background.
B)The prevalence of clefts varies with socioeconomic status.
C)The prevalence of clefts is not affected by malnutrition.
D)a and b
E)b and c
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24
Chapter 24: Velopharyngeal Dysfunction and Speech Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient evaluation finds that she has a combination of hyponasality and inconsistent nasal emission.Irregular adenoids are suspected as a cause.What is the best way to evaluate that?
A)Nasometry
B)Nasopharyngoscopy
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Aerodynamic measures
E)An Intraoral examination
Q2) What procedure is best for identifying an occult submucous cleft?
A)A visual inspection of the velum
B)Palpation of the velum
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Nasopharyngoscopy
E)Nasometry
Q3) Which syndrome is most likely to include hearing loss?
A)Apert syndrome
B)Treacher Collins syndrome
C)Velocardiofacial syndrome
D)Down syndrome
E)Beckwidth-Weidemann syndrome
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