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Craniofacial Anatomy is a comprehensive course focusing on the detailed structural and functional organization of the human skull and face. Students will explore the bones, muscles, nerves, blood vessels, and soft tissues that form the craniofacial region, with an emphasis on developmental, clinical, and surgical perspectives. The course integrates embryological development, anatomical variation, and the relationships of craniofacial structures to systemic health. Through lectures, laboratory dissections, and clinical case studies, students will gain a thorough understanding of normal anatomy as well as common congenital and acquired anomalies affecting the craniofacial complex.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy of Orofacial Structures A Comprehensive Approach 8th Edition by Brand BS DDS
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Q1) Which structure is the MOST vascular in appearance?
A) Mucogingival junction
B) Alveolar mucosa
C) Labial frenum
D) Gingiva
Answer: B
Q2) A generally healthy man in his forties is curious about "little raised yellow spots" on his buccal mucosa.He has noticed them in the past but they do not seem to cause problems or become larger,so has not previously asked about them.These areas are MOST likely
A) vallate papillae
B) Kaposi's spots
C) Fordyce granules
D) measles
Answer: C
Q3) Beneath the incisive papilla is an injection site called the greater palatine foramen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The tooth surface facing the lip is called the mesial surface.The corresponding surface facing the cheek is called the distal surface.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: D
Q2) Cellular cementum has the ability to reproduce itself.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) How many surfaces does a posterior tooth have?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: D
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Q1) Posterior teeth have contact areas slightly buccal to the center of teeth.Lingual embrasures of posterior teeth are wider than buccal embrasures.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: A
Q2) The curvature of the CEJ is generally greater on the mesial surfaces.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Height of contour is the same as
A) embrasure
B) crest of curvature
C) alignment
D) proximal contact
E) width of tooth
Answer: B
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Q1) In the Universal system the number 31 represents the ________________.
Q2) In the deciduous dentition,tooth "K" refers to
A) maxillary left second molar
B) mandibular left second molar
C) mandibular right first molar
D) mandibular right canine
E) none of the above
Q3) A missing tooth is given a symbol in any of the classification systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the Palmer System,permanent central incisors are assigned the number
A) 1
B) 5
C) 8
D) 24
Q5) A 30-year-old can have a retained deciduous premolar.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Universal system code for the deciduous maxillary right central incisor is
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Q1) Which is the last permanent incisor to erupt?
A) Maxillary central
B) Maxillary lateral
C) Mandibular central
D) Mandibular lateral
Q2) The most common exception to the rule of eruption that mandibular teeth precede eruption of maxillary teeth is the maxillary first premolar because this tooth often precedes eruption of its mandibular counterpart.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) A tooth with two cusps,such as a maxillary premolar,was formed from two lobes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The crypt will become the tooth socket.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Occlusion must be evaluated bilaterally.An individual might have a Class I on one side and a Class III on the other side.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) When a maxillary canine contacts its opposing antagonist before any other teeth occlude,it is described as anterior coupling.When one tooth hits ever so slightly more than the others,premature contact is occurring.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true,the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false,the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) From a lateral view,most teeth show a slight inclination in which direction?
A) Mesial
B) Distal
C) Vertical
D) Lingual
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Q1) The MOST commonly missing permanent teeth are the maxillary premolars.The next teeth MOST likely to be missing are the permanent maxillary lateral incisors.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true,the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false,the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) A patient who has had four teeth extracted for orthodontia has true partial anodontia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Intrinsic factors that can contribute to dental anomalies include all of the following EXCEPT
A) mutations
B) heredity
C) metabolic dysfunction
D) nutritional deficiencies
Q4) Anomalies are caused by intrinsic factors only.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The gingival transseptal fibers extend from the cementum of one tooth to the alveolar process of adjacent teeth.The oblique gingival fibers are circular bands of connective tissue that surround teeth.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) On a radiograph,the alveolar bone that surrounds the tooth is called supraperiosteal bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The periodontium,composed of tissues that support teeth,includes which of the following structures (Select all that apply. )?
A) Attached gingiva
B) Cementum
C) Dentin
D) Alveolar bone
E) All of the above are part of the periodontium.
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Q1) Pulpal walls
A)Phenomenon of permanent molars moving mesially after eruption
B)Causes tooth mobility
C)Lined with dentin
D)Tooth over-erupts in an attempt to "find" its antagonist
E)Small opening into pulp cavity at tip of root
Q2) If a mandibular first molar is lost,the mandibular second molar will
A) develop decay
B) supra-erupt
C) drift mesially
D) drift distally
E) None of the above
Q3) The walls of the pulp chamber are formed by dentin and enamel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sealants are most effective in preventing decay in
A) interproximal areas
B) uneven enamel
C) buccal and lingual grooves
D) occlusal pits
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Q1) On anterior teeth,the curvature of the CEJ is the same on mesial and distal surfaces.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which are the smallest teeth?
A) Maxillary lateral incisors
B) Maxillary third molars
C) Mandibular central incisors
D) Mandibular lateral incisors
Q3) Root bifurcations may be present on maxillary premolars but not on mandibular premolars because maxillary premolars have two roots whereas mandibular premolars have only one root.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q4) Canines have a single cusp.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Each of the following teeth frequently has two roots EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Maxillary first premolar
B) Maxillary second premolar
C) Mandibular first molar
D) Mandibular second molar
Q2) Root canal therapy in third molars is considered very unpredictable because the tooth is located so far distally in the mouth.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) Each of the following is a characteristic of the periodontal ligament EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Capable of regeneration
B) Capable of compression
C) Provides tension
D) Provides support
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Q1) Which of the following are characteristic of one or both mandibular incisors (Select all that apply. )?
A) All contact areas are in incisal third.
B) Rounded distoincisal angle
C) Smooth,shallow lingual surface
D) Slender roots
Q2) Which of the following are commonly found on roots of maxillary incisors?
A) Proximal grooves
B) Evidence of division
C) Bifurcation
D) Indentation
E) None of the above
Q3) Maxillary central incisors usually develop normally.Two anomalies that sometimes occur are a longer root or a shorter crown.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Q1) The canine fossa is a depression in the maxillae below the infraorbital foramen.The canine eminence,located on the lingual surface of maxillary canines,separates the mesial and distal lingual fossae.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The canines are especially efficient at pulverizing food because their double-cuspal arrangement provides assistance to the molars.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) The cusp tip of the mandibular canine is located more labially than the cusp tip of the maxillary canine.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The lingual surface of premolars is formed from how many lobes?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Not all premolars are formed from the same number of lobes.
Q2) Which selection best describes the roots of the maxillary first premolar?
A) Two roots,one mesial and one distal
B) Two roots,one buccal and one lingual
C) Fused roots
D) One root only
Q3) Which of the following are true of both maxillary first premolars and maxillary second premolars (Select all that apply. )?
A) Both have two cusps.
B) Both have two roots.
C) Both are formed from four developmental lobes.
D) Both have two pulp horns.
Q4) Bicuspid means the same thing as premolars.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All of the following terms are characteristic of maxillary third molars EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Congenitally missing
B) Impacted
C) Erupt between 18 and 25 years
D) Show variations of the crown or roots
Q2) Compared with first molars,third molars most often have
A) more roots
B) longer roots
C) closer roots
D) less defined roots
Q3) Maxillary molars have an oblique ridge.The oblique ridge is a marginal ridge.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q4) Accessional is another term for nonsuccedaneous.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which deciduous root has two canals?
A) Maxillary lateral incisor
B) Maxillary second molar,mesiobuccal root
C) Mandibular canine
D) Mandibular second molar,mesial root
Q2) Teeth that erupt between 16 and 22 months of age are the deciduous
A) lateral incisors
B) canines
C) first molars
D) second molars
Q3) The largest cusp on the deciduous maxillary second molar is the mesiolingual cusp.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Maxillary first molar
A)Facial
B)No mamelons are visible.
C)Roots are almost twice the length of crowns.
D)Resembles the permanent mandibular first molar
E)Primary tooth that bears least resemblance to another tooth
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Q1) Transitional epithelium
A)A "drinking in"
B)Acts as a scavenger
C)Responsible for energy production
D)Considered ductless
E)Single-celled respiratory glands
F)Form small ducts within glands
G)Has a duct system
H)Found in urinary system
I)Fluid-carrying vessels
J)Epithelial cells that increase digestive absorption
Q2) The protective wall of all cells is called the cell membrane.The fluid within the cell membrane is called plasma.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The amnion is formed from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which ethnic group is most likely to have a combined cleft lip and palate?
A) Caucasians
B) Asians
C) African Americans
D) There is very little differentiation by ethnicity.
Q2) The hyoid arch is pharyngeal arch number
A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q3) Development of a cleft palate occurs between the 7th and the 11th week.If it occurs early,only the soft palate or uvula will be affected.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The trigeminal nerve innervates the first pharyngeal arch.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Enamel organ originates from the
A) endoderm
B) ectoderm
C) mesoderm
D) ameloblasts
Q2) The cells between the dental papilla and the outer enamel epithelium (OEE)compose the stellate reticulum.Originating from deep layers of the oral epithelium,cells of the stellate reticulum are mesenchymal in origin.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The successional lamina forms all permanent teeth EXCEPT for one type.Which type is the EXCEPTION?
A) Incisors
B) Canines
C) Premolars
D) Molars
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Q1) The reduced enamel epithelium secretes the primary enamel cuticle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the mineralization stage of enamel rod calcification approximately half of the hydroxyapatite crystals are deposited because the remaining half are deposited during the maturation stage.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) Hundreds of odontoblasts are damaged when restoration is prepared and placed within a tooth.Sclerotic dentin forms in response to the trauma.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Q1) Each of the following are classified as alveolodental fibers EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Alveolar crest fibers
B) Horizontal fibers
C) Circular gingival fibers
D) Oblique fibers
E) Apical fibers
Q2) Which of the following indicates occlusal trauma?
A) A thickened lamina dura
B) A layer of spongy bone
C) Pointed (or pyramidal-shaped)interproximal alveolar bone
D) Sharpey's fibers in the alveolar bone
Q3) Root formation begins at the cementoenamel junction (CEJ)and proceeds to the root apex.During this process,the epithelial root sheath becomes the epithelial diaphragm.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Q1) During the eruptive stage the reduced enamel epithelium fuses with the dental follicle to create an eruptive force.The eruptive stage continues until the erupting teeth meet the opposing arch.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Which structure acts as a "shock absorber" during the eruption process?
A) Alveolar bone
B) Dental pulp
C) Cementum
D) Periodontal ligament
E) All of the above
Q3) Each of the following has a role in tooth eruption EXCEPT for one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Root elongation
B) Periodontal ligament
C) Vascular pressures
D) Alveolar bone
E) All have a role in tooth eruption.
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Q1) The length of connective tissue ridges and pegs that project into surface epithelium determines how movable the epithelium is.The connective tissue is attached to underlying bone in all areas.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Healthy gingiva is usually
A) smooth
B) glossy
C) slightly blunted
D) stippled
E) All of the above
Q3) Epithelial cells are generally pink in color because they reflect the surrounding gingival tissues.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Q1) Muscles that elevate the posterior part of the tongue and pull it slightly backward are categorized as
A) superior longitudinal
B) inferior longitudinal
C) transverse
D) genioglossus
E) palatoglossus
Q2) Microscopically the papillae that appear to rest in troughs and have many tiny taste buds are
A) fungiform
B) filiforma
C) foliate
D) circumvallate
Q3) Which muscle group runs anterior to posterior and lies near the ventral surface of the tongue?
A) Superior longitudinal group
B) Inferior longitudinal group
C) Transverse group
D) Vertical group
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Q1) Which structure is the MOST likely to break down starches into long-chain sugars?
A) Mucous acini
B) Serous acini
C) Seromucous acini
D) Connective tissue
E) Salivary ducts
Q2) Merocrine secretion is the process utilized by salivary acini to move saliva into the duct system.While mucous and serous acini utilize only the merocrine process,seromucous acini also employ a process involving immunoglobulins and lysozymes.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The squid like appearance of a myoepithelial cell is due to
A) cellular projections
B) vasodilation
C) intralobular ducts
D) interlobular ducts
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Q1) The midline that shows fusion of the hard palate is called the A) anterior nasal spine
B) median palatine suture
C) mylohyoid line
D) interparietal suture
Q2) The coronoid process is involved in the temporomandibular (TMJ)articulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the body of the sphenoid is a depression called the hypophyseal fossa.The master gland,the thyroid,lies in this fossa.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The cribriform plate is the passageway for olfactory nerves from the nasal cavity to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Normal eruption of __________ may be inhibited if there is insufficient growth in the mandible.
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Q1) The __________ ethmoid sinuses are located within the ethmoid bulla.
Q2) Both the anterior and middle ethmoid sinuses are located in the meatus of the superior nasal concha.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lateral margin of the external nose is known as an ala.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The lateral walls of the nasal cavity are formed by the inferior concha(e).The point where the ethmoid bone and the maxillae meet in the lateral wall is called the superior nasal concha.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q5) The most posterior-superior part of the nasal cavity is
A) where the ethmoid meets the sphenoid bone.
B) the choana.
C) the superior nasal concha.
D) the ethmoid bulla.

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Q1) The shape of the hyoid bone resembles a A) circle
B) straight line
C) triangle
D) horseshoe
Q2) Muscles of mastication are innervated by the fifth cranial nerve because they develop from the first (mandibular)pharyngeal arch.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) Which muscle originates in the upper sternum and inserts into the thyroid cartilage?
A) Sternohyoid
B) Sternothyroid
C) Thyrohyoid
D) Sternocleidomastoid
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Q1) The articular disk is loosely attached to the condyle and the mandibular fossa.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The TMJ has three distinct types of movement.They are rotational,gliding,and subluxating.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Referred pain is pain perceived at a location other than the site of the painful stimulus.Pain of this nature almost always originates in a nearby structure.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The temporomandibular joint (TMJ)has one synovial cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following are true of the buccinator muscle (Select all that apply. )?
A) It is probably the most important muscle of the mouth.
B) It has no role in mastication.
C) It originates from the pterygomandibular raphe.
D) It originates from the buccal alveolar bone of maxillary molars.
E) It makes up the musculature of the cheek.
Q2) Muscle that originates from the pterygoid hamulus to the medial surface of the mandible at the posterior end of the mylohyoid line is the
A) buccinator
B) levator labii superioris
C) depressor labii inferioris
D) orbicularis oris
Q3) Which muscle opens and closes the nostrils?
A) Nasalis
B) Naris
C) Dilator naris
D) Compressor naris
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Q1) Although the palatopharyngeal muscle elevates the pharynx,it also acts upon the soft palate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During speech the soft palate moves both forward and backward.The backward movement is accomplished by the levator veli palatini.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Each of the following is true about the uvula EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) It is a tubercle located within the soft palate.
B) It is formed by two small bands of muscle.
C) It originates from the posterior end of the hard palate.
D) When contracted its muscle shortens and broadens.
E) The uvula is innervated by the 10th and 11th cranial nerves.
Q4) The soft palate consists of three pairs of muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describe venous drainage from the external jugular veins (Select all that apply. )?
A) The external jugular veins empty into the subclavian veins.
B) The subclavian veins are in the neck.
C) The brachiocephalic veins flow into the superior vena cava.
D) From the superior vena cava blood flows into the heart.
Q2) The right atrioventricular valve is also known as the tricuspid valve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The common carotid artery runs within the carotid sheath along with the internal jugular vein.The vagus nerve lies immediately beneath the carotid sheath.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The pterygopalatine artery supplies the soft palate area.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The palatine glands are responsible for taste perception because they contain special taste-enhancing cells.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) Which of the following is a function of saliva (Select all that apply. )?
A) Lubrication of the oral mucosa
B) Production of enamel
C) Assisting in speech
D) Breakdown of starches
E) Aids in swallowing
Q3) The submandibular gland is called a mixed gland because it includes both serous and epithelial cells.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct,but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct,but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Q1) Which nerve goes up into the orbit and exits to supply the skin of the cheek and temple?
A) Descending palatine
B) Zygomatic
C) Infraorbital
D) Sphenopalatine
Q2) Motor supply to the tensor veli palatini comes from the trigeminal nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the craniofacial outflow.A term commonly used to describe the sympathetic nervous system is the "fight-or-flight mechanism."
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The olfactory nerve has sensory and motor functions.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The maxillary premolars are drained by the submental nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A fascial infection of the submental space would spread to which space?
A) Posterior mediastinum
B) Sublingual
C) Retropharyngeal
D) Parapharyngeal
Q3) The mandibular third molars drain into the upper deep cervical nodes.These nodes drain into the retropharyngeal nodes located behind the throat wall.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The mandibular incisors are drained by which nodes?
A) Submental
B) Submandibular
C) Lower deep cervical
D) Upper deep cervical
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Q1) The regional nerve block affects a much larger area and more teeth because it affects larger nerves.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true;the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false;the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Which block can cause a hematoma? (Select all that apply. )
A) Anterior superior alveolar nerve block
B) Posterior superior alveolar nerve block
C) Infraorbital nerve block
D) Gow-Gates nerve block
Q3) The greater palatine nerve block anesthetizes all of the following EXCEPT one.Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Anterior hard palate
B) The posterior lateral hard palate
C) Palatal gingiva
D) Periodontium of the maxillary posterior teeth
Q4) There are five maxillary nerve blocks delivered from the facial side.
A)True
B)False
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