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This course provides an in-depth exploration of the structure, function, and processes of courts within the criminal justice system. Students will examine the roles of key courtroom actors, including judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys, and juries, as well as the procedural steps from arrest to sentencing. Emphasis is placed on constitutional rights, procedural safeguards, and the interpretation of legal principles governing criminal cases. Through analysis of landmark cases and current issues, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how criminal procedure seeks to balance the rights of individuals with the needs of public safety and justice.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Criminal Justice 7th Edition by Larry J. Siegel
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14 Chapters
840 Verified Questions
840 Flashcards
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60 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The crime control perspective views the justice system as a means of caring for and treating people who cannot manage themselves.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following crimes would be placed in the top layer (layer 1) of the criminal justice "wedding cake"?
A)A noted celebrity is arrested for shooting her bodyguard.
B)A burglary occurs at a local tavern.
C)An individual is arrested for public drunkenness.
D)A first time offender assaults a friend.
Answer: A
Q3) Decriminalization, deinstitutionalization, and pretrial diversion are favored by those adhering to the ____________________ perspective.
Answer: nonintervention
Q4) Most criminal cases are processed through the entire formal justice system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________________ view of crime suggests that moral entrepreneurs define crime.
Answer: Interactionist
Q2) What percent of high school students carry guns at least some of the time?
A)10
B)20
C)30
D)40
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following crimes is not included on the list of Part I index crimes documented in the Uniform Crime Reports?
A)Criminal homicide
B)Motor vehicle theft
C)Simple assault
D)Arson
Answer: C
Q4) Modern ____________________ theories of crime believe that elements of the environment interact with biological factors to control and influence behavior.
Answer: biosocial
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the "stand your ground" justification defense?
A)Most self-defense statutes require a duty to retreat before reacting to a threat with physical violence.
B)The "castle exception" does not require an obligation to retreat within an individual's residence before fighting back.
C)"Stand your ground" laws allow average citizens to use deadly force when they reasonably believe that their homes or vehicles have been illegally invaded.
D)All of the above are true regarding the "stand your ground" justification defense. Answer: D
Q2) An immediate relationship must always exist between the act and the actor's intent for a crime to occur.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) The Durham Rule is associated with the ____________________ defense. Answer: insanity
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Q1) What office was created in 1326 under the watch system of policing to assist the shire reeve in controlling the county?
A)Sheriff
B)Constable
C)Bobbie
D)Justice of the peace
Q2) Discuss some of the events that occurred between 1960 and 1990 that continue to influence modern policing.
Q3) Elaborate on the English roots of policing, with a discussion of how this history has influenced the structure, duties, and functions of modern U.S. policing.
Q4) What was one of August Vollmer's greatest contributions to police professionalism?
A)Instituted university training for young officers
B)Established the first formal police academy in the U.S.
C)Was the first President of the IACP
D)Created the first SWAT team
Q5) Secret Service is a branch of teh Department of ____________________.
Q6) The ____________________ are responsible for fugitive investigations.
Q7) Discuss the functions of four major federal law enforcement agencies.
Page 6
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Q1) Which of the following is a method of improving patrol?
A)Aggressive patrol
B)Targeting specific crimes
C)Making more arrests
D)All of these
Q2) Community policing is often exemplified by which of the following models?
A)Broken windows
B)Shattered promises
C)Urban decay
D)Urban blight
Q3) College degrees may have little direct impact on promotion potentials for police officers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does the Hollywood version of policing differ from reality? Can you think of some movies and television programs which most accurately portray the police?
Q5) ____________________ are groups of police officers who enforce morality-based laws such as prostitution.
Q6) Designated police patrol areas are called ____________________.
Page 7
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Q1) The ____________________ style of policing views the investigation and apprehension of serious crime as the most important aspect of policing.
Q2) What U.S. Supreme Court decision set forth the "reasonable officer" standard for police use of deadly force?
A)Williams v. New York
B)Graham v. Connor
C)Sherman v. California
D)Tennessee v. Garner
Q3) Using a juvenile assault as an example, compare and contrast the four major styles of police work. Explain how these styles influence police discretion.
Q4) Which of the following is not one of the six core beliefs at the heart of the police culture?
A)Loyalty to colleagues counts above all else.
B)The war against crime cannot be won without bending the rules.
C)No one else understands the nature of police work.
D)All of the above are core beliefs in the police culture.
Q5) Identify and describe the factors that have been related to police shootings.
Q6) Describe how the role of police is of concern to the public.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss, using examples, the major prosecutorial tasks of a prosecutor.
Q2) Today, the Sixth Amendment right to counsel and the ____ and ____ Amendments guarantee of due process of law have been judicially interpreted together to provide the defendant with counsel by the state in all types of criminal proceedings.
A)Fourth, Fifth
B)Fifth, Fourteenth
C)Sixth, Eighth
D)First, Seventh
Q3) The federal court system is organized around a ____________________ hierarchy of court jurisdiction.
Q4) The drug court movement began in New York.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In what 1972 cases did the Court rule that an attorney must be provided in all criminal cases where the penalty includes imprisonment?
A)Gideon v. Wainwright
B)Strickland v. Washington
C)Burger v. Kemp
D)Argersinger v. Hamlin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The defendant's right to an impartial trial and jury under the Fifth and Sixth Amendments often runs into direct conflict with the _____ Amendment's guarantee of the press and public access.
A)First
B)Second
C)Sourth
D)Fourteenth
Q2) What is another term for an indictment issued by a grand jury?
A)True bill
B)No bill
C)Nolo contendere
D)Nolle prosequi
Q3) Some scholars contend that bail is problematic because it:
A)is a weak incentive to show up to court.
B)creates fear and coercion in the defendant.
C)is discriminatory to the poor.
D)is not guaranteed under the law.
Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of jury nullification.
Q5) A ____________________ is issued if the grand jury fails to find that probable cause to prosecute exists.
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Q1) The use of ____________________ factors such as offender age is a direct violation of the constitution.
Q2) In 2007, which state was the first to abolish the death penalty by law since 1972?
A)Maine
B)New Jersey
C)Illinois
D)North Dakota
Q3) A sentencing target of eight to twenty-five years in prison is an example of a determinate sentence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which punishment philosophy holds that criminal sentences should be proportional to the seriousness of the criminal act?
A)Just desert
B)General deterrence
C)Incapacitation
D)Restitution
Q5) Elaborate on the arguments for and against capital punishment.
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Q1) The probation officer has little say in the planning of a probationer's treatment program.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Restorative justice seeks to include all parties- the offender, victim, and communityin the justice process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare and contrast three intermediate sanctions in terms of their structure and effectiveness.
Q4) What happens when probation is revoked?
A)The probation contract is terminated and the original sentence is imposed
B)The judgment is deferred until such time as the defendant is rehabilitated
C)The suspended sentence is held in abeyance and the defendant is subject to mandatory participation in a pretrial diversion program
D)The probation contract is extended and a prison term is imposed
Q5) There are roughly 4 million adults under federal, state, or local probation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What group formed the Philadelphia Society for Alleviating the Miseries of Public Prisons?
A)Buddhists
B)Catholics
C)Quakers
D)Mormons
Q2) Explain the influence of Quakers on the development of America's prisons.
Q3) Inmates in prison forest camps fight forest fires and complete reforestation work.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a factor that helps contribute to swelling prison populations?
A)Failure of community release programs
B)Mandatory sentencing laws
C)Conviction rates
D)All of these
Q5) The rehabilitation movement of the 1960s was guided by the medical model.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following factors has been linked to recidivism?
A)A history of physical and sexual abuse
B)Maintenance of criminal peer association
C)Harboring of aggressive feelings
D)All of the above have been linked to recidivism.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false about the effectiveness of parole?
A)More than half of incarcerated offenders return to prison shortly after their release.
B)Rearrest of offenders is most common in the first six months after release.
C)60 percent of parolees return to prison within three years of their release.
D)The failure rate of parolees has dramatically decreased over the past ten years.
Q3) Which case forced corrections department to upgrade prison medical facilities?
A)Procunier v. Martinez
B)Nolan v. Fitzpatrick
C)Newman v. Alabama
D)Bounds v. Smith
Q4) Female inmates often form groups called ____________________ to cope with prison life.
Q5) Elaborate three substantive rights granted to prisoners by the courts.
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Q1) Summarize the arguments for and against retaining the juvenile court. Discuss the potential ramifications of the demise of the juvenile court.
Q2) Most juvenile aftercare involves:
A)Parole
B)Probation
C)Community service
D)Counseling
Q3) What was considered to be the main concern of the early juvenile court movement in America?
A)The protection of society
B)Furtherance of the best interests of the child
C)Protection of due process guarantees
D)Adherence to strict legal doctrine
Q4) What are the major factors influencing the decision to waive a juvenile into adult court?
Q5) Federal courts have ruled that bail is guaranteed to juveniles.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An adjudication is also called a(n) ____________________ hearing.
Page 15
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Q1) ____ involves hacking secure computer networks at the enemy's most sensitive military bases, defense contractors, and aerospace companies in order to steal important data or to access their defenses.
A)Cyber terrorism
B)Cyber espionage
C)Cyber bullying
D)Cyber stalking
Q2) Which of the following types of cyber crime was not discussed in the text?
A)Cyber terrorism
B)Phishing
C)Etailing
D)Chiseling
Q3) ____ terrorists use violence to frighten those in power and their supporters in order to replace the existing government with a regime that holds acceptable political or religious views.
A)Revolutionary
B)Political
C)Nationalist
D)Retributive
Q4) Elaborate three types of contemporary terrorism.
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