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Counseling Psychology is a dynamic field focused on facilitating personal and interpersonal functioning across the lifespan. The course explores a variety of psychological theories, research methods, and practical approaches for helping individuals cope with emotional, social, vocational, educational, and developmental concerns. Emphasis is placed on building therapeutic relationships, applying culturally sensitive interventions, and developing effective communication and problem-solving skills. Students will engage in case studies, role-plays, and reflective exercises to deepen their understanding of the counselor's role and ethical responsibilities within diverse settings.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by
Jill M. Hooley
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Sample Questions
Q1) A significant positive correlation is found between variables x and y. Which of the following may be safely inferred?
A) x causes y
B) y causes x
C) as x increases, y increases
D) as x increases, y decreases
Answer: C
Q2) What is sampling and why is it important?
Answer: Sampling is the procedure used to select subjects to study. As it is not possible to study all of the population of interest, a subset of the population is selected. The sample studied needs to resemble the larger population on all relevant variables so that findings made when studying the sample can be generalized to the population. In other words, results obtained with a sample should provide accurate information about the larger population.
Q3) Discuss the limitations of self-report data.
Answer: Can be misleading, sometimes deliberately lie, misinterpret questions or try to present themselves more favorably or less favorably than is true.
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Q1) Medications for psychological disorders ________
A) were first used centuries ago.
B) were first used only recently.
C) still currently use some ancient ingredients, such as "mummy powder."
D) made the search for the causes of disorders more difficult.
Answer: A
Q2) The rationale behind deinstitutionalization was ________
A) a belief that physicians could better medicate and give physical treatment to patients in their own homes.
B) a concern that prolonged hospitalization could keep patients from being able to adjust to and function in the outside world.
C) a belief that most mental patients were faking and would cease to do so if they were not "rewarded" by allowing them to stay in the hospital.
D) a concern that mental hospitals were such unpleasant places that for mental patients, living on their own could only be better.
Answer: B
Q3) Who was Wilhelm Wundt?
Answer: The man who established the first experimental psychology laboratory.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which period of psychosexual development occurs when a child becomes preoccupied with the development of skills and activities?
A) Genital
B) Phallic
C) Latency
D) Pubertal
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following explanations for the relationship between SES and abnormal behavior is not supported by the existing data?
A) Low SES may cause abnormal behavior.
B) Abnormal behavior is more likely to go untreated in those of low SES.
C) Recovery from loss of a job may be more difficult for those exhibiting signs of mental illness.
D) High SES may cause abnormal behavior.
Answer: D
Q3) The ______________ perspective in psychology takes into account biological, sociological, and psychological factors associated with a person's behaviors.
Answer: biopsychosocial
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychological test results are often compared to each other to determine a midrange, or normal point. In order to accomplish this, test administration must be completely consistent from one person to the next. What is this process called?
A) Validity
B) Standardization
C) Reliability
D) T-score distribution
Q2) In DSM-5, criteria for Persistent Depressive Disorder combines criteria from Dysthymic Disorder and which other disorder?
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Chronic Major Depression
C) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
D) Specific Phobia
Q3) A key feature of the MMPI-2 is that ________
A) the clinical scales measure the same properties of personality organization as they always have.
B) the validity scales have been discarded.
C) it has merged the adult and adolescent forms into one.
D) it now includes open-ended questions to examine cognitive distortions.
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Q1) Why is there such a high likelihood of long-lasting psychological problems resulting from active combat experiences?
A) Research has revealed that those who enlist are more likely to be emotionally unstable.
B) When task-oriented coping strategies are ineffective, emotional breakdown is inevitable.
C) Combat situations present highly stressful situations for which there may be no truly effective coping mechanisms.
D) Basic training is ineffective at preparing new recruits for any of the challenges they will likely face.
Q2) Give some reasons why political activists who were tortured may be less affected by PTSD over the long term.
Q3) Estimates of the prevalence of PTSD _________
A) have not been made.
B) indicate that most people who experience a traumatic event develop PTSD.
C) demonstrate that it is more commonly seen in women.
D) find that it rarely exists as a comorbid condition.
Q4) What is a risk factor?
Q5) Describe two personality patterns associated with coronary heart disease.
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Q1) According to the psychoanalytic view, what makes generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) different from specific phobias?
A) Defense mechanisms are not functional in GAD.
B) Different defense mechanisms are employed by those with GAD and those with specific phobias.
C) The underlying conflict in GAD is between the ego and the superego, while it is between the id and ego in specific phobias.
D) Individuals with specific phobias suffer from self-hate and project this emotion on the feared stimulus.
Q2) What is necessary for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder?
Q3) Which of the following is a common type of obsession seen in OCD?
A) Fear of contamination
B) Counting over and over
C) Hand washing
D) Double checking locked doors
Q4) One of the best behavioral treatments for specific phobias is __________ therapy.
Q5) What do the results of panic provocation agents tell us about panic disorder?
Q6) How do "safety behaviors" contribute to the persistence of panic disorder?
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Q1) Distinguish between cyclothymic disorder, bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder. How are these disorders alike and how are they different?
Q2) Jacob and Matt both flunk their math test. Jacob says to his friends that there is no point in his continuing in the course because, although Jacob feels highly about himself, he suspects that the teacher just doesn't like him. Matt says he is going to drop the course because he is just stupid in math. According to the reformulated learned helplessness theory, ________
A) Matt is more likely to become depressed than Jacob.
B) Matt is more likely to feel helpless than Jacob.
C) Jacob is more likely to become depressed than Matt.
D) Jacob is more likely to feel helpless than Matt.
Q3) Childhood suicide _________
A) is very rare.
B) has been declining since the early 1950s.
C) is the third most common cause of death in the United States for 15 to19 year-olds
D) has been increasing since the early 1950s.
Q4) The first category of antidepressant medications is __________.
Q5) Major depressive episode is also known as __________.
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Q1) Assuming a new identity in a new place is characteristic of ________
A) depersonalization disorder.
B) all forms of dissociative amnesia.
C) dissociative fugue.
D) dissociative identity disorder.
Q2) Although Charlie remembered most of the main issues of the meeting, he had no recollection of the decision to eliminate the department that he headed. Which disorder would be in effect?
A) Dissociative disorder
B) Conversion disorder
C) Factitious disorder
D) Somatic symptom disorder
Q3) Which of the following is an explanation for the increased prevalence of DID?
A) Increased public awareness of DID.
B) The increased incidence of verbal abuse.
C) Changes in the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.
D) Therapists can seek greater insurance reimbursement for DID patients.
Q4) Unlike the DSM-IV, the DSM-5 includes the description of an external spirit, power, or deity possessing an individual; this is referred to as ______________.
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Q1) Bariatric surgery is one option for people who are morbidly obese (more than 100 pounds overweight). After bariatric surgery, average weight loss is about ________ pounds.
A) 98 to 110
B) 88 to 101
C) 76 to 94
D) 44 to 88
Q2) Families of people with anorexia ________
A) do not have any characteristic features.
B) tend to provide few rules and limits.
C) exhibit tendencies towards perfectionism.
D) emphasize individuality.
Q3) Family therapy for anorexia appears to be most effective when it is used to treat
A) adolescents.
B) adults.
C) men.
D) those with comorbid depressive and/or anxiety symptoms.
Q4) ____________is the most common form of eating disorder.
Q5) How does the set-point impact eating disorders?
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Q1) Some people always think that everyone is looking at them and talking about them, wishing to be like them. This self-focused view of the world would be expected in someone with ________ personality disorder.
A) borderline
B) histrionic
C) narcissistic
D) paranoid
Q2) What core belief might explain the behavior of the individual with dependent personality disorder?
A) "I am helpless."
B) "I don't know who I am without you."
C) "Unless I make people laugh, they will not like me."
D) "Others exist to benefit me."
Q3) Which of the following seems to have the most impact in decreasing criminal activities among people with psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder?
A) Cognitive behavioral treatment
B) Medication
C) Growing older
D) Nothing has any impact
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Q1) James has two alcoholic parents. Research suggests that his risk for alcoholism is
A) nearly 100 percent.
B) greater than if he had one alcoholic parent.
C) no greater than if he had one alcoholic parent.
D) about 10 percent higher than if he had no alcoholic parents.
Q2) Why do substances such as alcohol and cocaine develop an overpowering hold on people, sometimes after only a few uses?
Q3) One limitation on the findings of genetic influences on alcoholism is that ________
A) not enough research has been done using twins.
B) there are so many cultural differences in the use of alcohol that it blurs the genetic differences.
C) there have not been enough studies of the majority of children of alcoholics (those who do not become alcoholics).
D) there has been too much of a focus on the study of the nonalcoholic children of alcoholics.
Q4) What is the evidence for and against genetics in alcoholism?
Q5) A processed derivative of cocaine hydrochloride is __________.
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Q1) The first phase of the human sexual response is ________
A) arousal.
B) desire.
C) orgasm.
D) resolution.
Q2) Which of the following best fits the subset of rapists known as "date rapists"?
A) A 19-year-old white male university student from a wealthy family
B) A 45-year-old black man who works for a cable company
C) A 30-year-old Asian man who lives with his parents
D) A 67-year-old Hispanic man who is married with teenage children
Q3) According to abstinence theory, which of the following is necessary for health?
A) Healthy food.
B) Intellectual stimulation.
C) Exercising 7 days a week.
D) Sexual intercourse 3 to 5 times per week.
Q4) _____________is discomfort with one's sex-relevant physical characteristics.
Q5) How was masturbation viewed during the times when degeneracy theory and abstinence theory were popular?
Q6) Discuss two ways in which sex offenses are treated. How effective is treatment for these offenses?
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Q1) How common are delusions in schizophrenia?
A) They are experienced by approximately 50 percent of schizophrenics.
B) Delusions are an essential feature of schizophrenia; the presence of delusions is required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
C) Over 90 percent of those with schizophrenia experience delusions.
D) While hallucinations are a common occurrence in schizophrenia, delusions are rare.
Q2) Negative symptoms are ________
A) those that are harmful.
B) more disturbing to the patient than positive symptoms.
C) a common side effect of antipsychotic medications.
D) characterized as an absence or deficit of normal behaviors.
Q3) People with schizophrenia may have difficulty with the form of thought-in other words, their thoughts do not make sense. The observable sign of this is ________
A) a delusion.
B) a hallucination.
C) disorganized speech.
D) disorganized behavior.
Q4) ____________ impairment is regarded as a core feature of schizophrenia.
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Q1) What has greatly reduced the number of HIV patients with neurocognitive deficits?
A) APOE-E4 allele therapy
B) ACh inhibitors
C) Antiretroviral drug therapy
D) Better support systems
Q2) What is delirium?
Q3) An individual with neuropsychological damage ________
A) will almost always evidence moderate to severe psychopathology, including hallucinations and delusions.
B) may or may not have psychopathological symptoms.
C) usually manifests symptoms of psychopathology that are the opposite of the person's predisorder personality.
D) will develop psychopathological symptoms only when areas of the frontal cortex have been damaged.
Q4) The most common cause of delirium is ________
A) disease.
B) drugs.
C) electrolytic imbalance.
D) stroke.
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Q1) Research on the families of children with conduct disorder suggests that ________
A) antisocial behavioral patterns may be learned.
B) environmental factors are rarely involved in disorders of childhood onset.
C) genetics do not play a role in the development of antisocial tendencies.
D) parental substance abuse is the greatest risk factor for early-onset conduct disorder.
Q2) Shortly after birth, Darren's head began to grow. A shunt was placed in his skull to drain fluid. He has seizures, trouble seeing, and has mild intellectual deficits. Darren's most likely diagnosis is ________
A) microcephaly.
B) phenylketonuria.
C) Turner's syndrome.
D) hydrocephaly.
Q3) Children born with phenylketonuria, ________
A) lack the amino acid phenylalanine.
B) lack a liver enzyme needed to break down the amino acid phenylalanine.
C) have a disorder of lipoid metabolism.
D) are unable to metabolize the lipoid phenylalanine.
Q4) __________________ is(are) the most common of the childhood anxiety disorders.
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Q1) Which of the following would be the most likely candidate for ECT?
A) A 22-year-old schizophrenic
B) A middle-aged depressed woman who has just begun taking antidepressants
C) A pregnant 25 year-old who is severely depressed
D) A 30-year-old man who has generalized anxiety disorder
Q2) Traditional behavioral couples therapy ________
A) uses training in communication skills and adaptive problem-solving to increase caring behaviors in couples.
B) tries to involve spouses in the treatment of people with severe mental disorders to prevent relapse after they are released from the hospital.
C) treats the couple together for any problems that only one of them has, because the couple is seen as a "system" that influences each other.
D) uses training in relaxation skills and imagery to reduce anxiety in couples.
Q3) In Beck's cognitive therapy, an early "homework" assignment would be ________
A) learning to relax.
B) listing one's beliefs about one's competencies.
C) recording one's automatic thoughts and any associated emotional reactions.
D) intentionally facing situations that one believes are emotionally overwhelming.
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Q1) Once a person is committed to a mental hospital ________
A) he or she must establish their sanity before they can be released.
B) he or she must participate in whatever treatment is prescribed.
C) the hospital must report to the court as to whether or not continued confinement is necessary.
D) the court establishes the minimum treatment necessary as indicated by testimony from two examiners.
Q2) Which of the following is a requirement for psychosocial health?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Having sound moral judgment
C) Having a realistic view of oneself
D) Being a member of a religious organization
Q3) Combined prevention programs that educate about drugs and teach skills needed to refuse alcohol and drug use demands ________
A) are more successful than one single approach.
B) are rarely as successful as family-based programs.
C) are most effective when targeted at college students.
D) are not as successful as classroom education.
Q4) What are aftercare programs? Who is least likely to benefit from such programs?
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