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Counseling Psychology is an academic and professional discipline that focuses on facilitating personal and interpersonal functioning across the lifespan. This course explores theories, research, and techniques central to counseling, emphasizing the development of effective helping relationships, multicultural competence, and ethical practice. Students will learn about the assessment and treatment of common psychological challenges, explore intervention strategies, and examine the importance of self-awareness and empathy in the counseling process. Practical skills, case studies, and contemporary issues are integrated to prepare learners for roles in various settings, including schools, community agencies, and private practice.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill
M. Hooley
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Q1) Describe the retrospective and prospective research designs. What are the benefits and problems of these designs?
Answer: Retrospective: Study people with a disorder by collecting information about their lives before they became sick. Problem is faulty and selective memory, bias on the part of the person and the researcher. Prospective: Find people with high risk of developing a disorder before they have it, measure variables ahead of time and track the person to see who develops the disorder. Problem: Can't know how many will develop the disorder; small sample size.
Q2) What did Seligman find by studying dogs exposed to uncontrollable shock?
A) Seligman demonstrated that dogs can get depressed.
B) Seligman found that the dogs became aggressive.
C) Seligman found that uncontrollable shock led the dogs to behave much like depressed humans.
D) Seligman found that the exposure to the shock altered the level of brain chemicals known to be involved in depression.
Answer: C
Q3) _______________are automatic beliefs concerning other people based on little information.
Answer: Stereotypes

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Q1) Which one of the following is credited with developing a classification system for mental disorders?
A) Dix
B) Pinel
C) Alzheimer
D) Kraepelin
Answer: D
Q2) The physicians of the Nancy School ________
A) opposed the use of hypnotism.
B) demonstrated the power of suggestion.
C) found that hypnotism was not effective in the treatment of any mental illnesses.
D) believed that hysteria was the result of brain degeneration.
Answer: B
Q3) What was the attitude about hospitalization of the mentally ill during the later decades of the twentieth century?
Answer: It is preferable to treat people in the community, and treatment should be deinstitutionalized, although it is not the perfect solution it was once thought to be.
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Q1) A protective factor is ________
A) an influence that modifies a person's response to environmental stressors.
B) an influence that modifies a person's response to genetic problems.
C) a distal causal factor for a mental disorder.
D) a biological makeup that makes people more resistant to stress.
Answer: A
Q2) Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression?
A) Intense psychotherapy
B) A prolonged vacation
C) A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
D) Family therapy and a change in her work environment
Answer: C
Q3) What do genes consist of?
A) Trisomes
B) Chromosomes
C) DNA
D) Proteins
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following would be an example of a projective technique?
A) A troubled teen is asked to select statements that she feels describe her.
B) An alcoholic is told to record the times at which she feels the greatest desire for a drink.
C) An elderly woman is asked to recall the day her father died.
D) A child is asked to draw her family.
Q2) Some psychological tests may not elicit valid information from a client who is part of a minority group. This may mean the psychological test has ________
A) a clinician bias.
B) a client bias.
C) a theoretical orientation bias.
D) a cultural bias.
Q3) A clinical psychologist notes that a client wears his clothes inside out, that his hair is matted, and there is dirt under his fingernails. This information is known as ________
A) clinical observation.
B) self-monitoring.
C) a dynamic formulation.
D) an observational decision tree.
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Q1) According to the text, a factor that does not make one stressor more serious than another includes________.
A) severity
B) chronicity
C) geographic region
D) how expected it is.
Q2) Which was not an effective treatment for stress-related disorders, according to your text?
A) Psychoanalysis
B) Emotional disclosure
C) Meditation
D) Biofeedback
Q3) Sudden cardiac death is ______ times higher in men with high levels of anxiety.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
Q4) A recent development in looking at personality in cardiovascular disease is the __________ personality, which includes insecurity and anxiety.
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Q1) According to the behavioral viewpoint, compulsions are repeated because
A) they act of engaging in the behavior is pleasurable.
B) they serve to reduce anxiety.
C) they are reflexive responses that can't be controlled.
D) they permit the expression of repressed urges.
Q2) From an evolutionary perspective, what concept explains the easy acquisition of a fear of spiders or snakes?
A) Vicarious conditioning
B) Defense mechanisms
C) Prepared learning
D) Behavioral inhibition
Q3) Most first panic attacks ________
A) follow some distressing event.
B) are uncued.
C) are followed by the development of panic disorder.
D) last more than an hour.
Q4) _____________ are persistent and strong fears triggered by specific objects or situations that are unreasonable.
Q5) How do cognitions help maintain phobias?
Q6) Koro is an acute fear that is likely to occur in places like ___________.
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Q1) A recurrent depressive episode _________
A) is preceded by one or more previous episodes.
B) suggests that chronic major depression has developed.
C) typically lasts two to three weeks.
D) is characteristic of all forms of bipolar disorder.
Q2) Distinguish between cyclothymic disorder, bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder. How are these disorders alike and how are they different?
Q3) Beck's negative cognitive triad involves feeling negatively about ________
A) helplessness, hopelessness, and sorrow.
B) one's self, one's experiences, and one's future.
C) one's past, one's present, and one's future.
D) one's family, one's self, and one's friends.
Q4) Which of the following neurochemical profiles has been associated with manic episodes?
A) High serotonin, high norepinephrine, high dopamine
B) Low serotonin, high norepinephrine, high dopamine
C) Low serotonin, low norepinephrine, high dopamine
D) Low serotonin, high norepinephrine, low dopamine
Q5) What changes in sleep are seen in depression?
Q6) What are the warning signs of student suicide in college or university?
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Q1) How is a conversion seizure different from an epileptic seizure?
A) A conversion seizure does not resemble an epileptic seizure on an EEG.
B) Patients show more confusion after a conversion seizure.
C) Patients have no loss of memory after an epileptic seizure.
D) Patients do not lose bowel or bladder control after an epileptic seizure.
Q2) Which of the following best explains why conversion disorder is a less common diagnosis today than it was historically?
A) Advances in the psychiatric profession have decreased the prevalence of all disorders linked to traumatic events.
B) Those once diagnosed with conversion disorder are now more likely to be diagnosed with PTSD.
C) Today's psychiatrists tend to view this diagnosis as one that lacks reliability and validity, thus they are hesitant to even consider it as a diagnostic option.
D) Advances in the medical field have made patients more sophisticated about medical and psychological disorders.
Q3) How do people with somatic symptom disorder typically relate to physicians?
Q4) Discuss two of the causal factors of somatic symptom disorder.
Q5) What is the difference between malingering and factitious disorder?
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Q1) Which of the following has been identified as a risk factor for eating disorders in men?
A) Heterosexuality
B) Bicycling
C) Homosexuality
D) Painting
Q2) Which of the following is likely to put whites at higher risk of developing an eating disorder than non-whites?
A) Body dissatisfaction
B) Living in an industrialized society
C) Fear of stomach bloating
D) Desire to please the family
Q3) What is the prognosis for anorexia nervosa?
A) Relapse rates are high, but recovery can often happen in the long run.
B) Most people improve fairly quickly and don't relapse.
C) Anorexia has an excellent recovery rate, but the other disorders don't.
D) The prognosis is extremely poor, with few recovering from it.
Q4) Discuss the risk of suicide in anorexia and bulimia.
Q5) What most clearly separates the anorexic from the bulimic?
Q6) What is leptin and how does it influence appetite and weight?
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Q1) What is the main distinguishing factor between borderline and histrionic personality disorders?
Q2) Which of the following best explains why it is such a challenge to treat personality disorders?
A) They develop early in life.
B) The diagnostic criteria for these disorders is highly subjective.
C) Comorbid diagnoses are the norm, not the exception.
D) By definition, they are enduring patterns of thought and behavior.
Q3) Cluster __________ Personality disorders include avoidant and dependent personality disorders.
Q4) Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of paranoid personality disorder?
A) Introversion and openness to feelings
B) Excitement seeking and neuroticism
C) Antagonism and neuroticism
D) Fantasy proneness and tough mindedness
Q5) The __________-factor model has been the most influential in integrating research on personality disorders.
Q6) Describe and differentiate between the Cluster A personality disorders.
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Q1) Substance abuse usually involves an excessive use of a substance, while __________ usually involves a marked physiological need for the substance.
Q2) What evidence is there that the legal definition of alcohol intoxication (a blood alcohol content of 0.08) should be changed?
A) Most alcohol-related accidents occur at much lower blood alcohol levels.
B) Most alcohol-related accidents occur at much higher blood alcohol levels.
C) Few people show any impairment at this blood alcohol level.
D) Judgment becomes impaired long before this blood alcohol level is reached.
Q3) Rates of alcoholism among Asian populations are ________ than among European peoples. This fact may be related to ________.
A) higher; genetic differences in the sensitivity of the MCLP
B) higher; genetic differences in the ability to metabolize alcohol
C) lower; religious differences in the acceptability of alcohol
D) lower; a mutant enzyme that leads to hypersensitive reactions to alcohol
Q4) Opium and heroin ________
A) were originally used by physicians as pain relievers.
B) have always been two of the most abused illegal drugs.
C) induce euphoria but do not reduce pain.
D) control pain only if they are used to cause unconsciousness.
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Q1) Concern about childhood sexual abuse has increased in the past decade due to
A) evidence that it is increasing in frequency.
B) changes in laws requiring that any suspicion of abuse must be reported to the authorities.
C) the recognition that such abuse may lead to other problems later in life.
D) improved techniques for determining the accuracy of recovered memories.
Q2) ____________is the paraphilia in which the person has recurrent urges to observe an unsuspecting person who is naked.
Q3) According to abstinence theory, which of the following is necessary for health?
A) Healthy food.
B) Intellectual stimulation.
C) Exercising 7 days a week.
D) Sexual intercourse 3 to 5 times per week.
Q4) Incest ________
A) is an accepted practice in many cultures.
B) commonly occurs in most animal species.
C) has only occurred among first cousins.
D) was once used to protect the royal blood in Egypt.
Q5) Why are almost all people with paraphilias male?
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Q1) What is a delusion? What type of delusions are most common in schizophrenia?
Q2) Individuals with delusional disorder differ from those with schizophrenia in that ________
A) they behave relatively normally other than the delusions.
B) their delusions are not well-formed.
C) they know their delusions are delusions.
D) they rarely act on their delusions.
Q3) Negative symptoms are ________
A) those that are harmful.
B) more disturbing to the patient than positive symptoms.
C) a common side effect of antipsychotic medications.
D) characterized as an absence or deficit of normal behaviors.
Q4) The most important neurotransmitter implicated in schizophrenia is _________.
Q5) On average about _________ schizophrenia brain and __________ healthy control brains are donated to the tissue brain bank maintained by the National Institute of Mental Health each year.
A) 50, 100
B) 90, 130
C) 9, 13
D) 100, 50

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Q1) Research for which potential treatment for Alzheimer's disease had to be discontinued due to dangerous side effects?
A) Memantine, which may regulate activity of the neurotransmitter glutamate.
B) ACh inhibitors that improve cognitive functioning.
C) Donepezil placebo inhibitors
D) Vaccines that might clear away any accumulated plaques.
Q2) Vascular dementia is less common than Alzheimer's disease because ________
A) it develops later in life.
B) the patient is vulnerable to sudden death from stroke or cardiovascular disease.
C) it can be cured.
D) spontaneous remission is common.
Q3) What is vascular dementia?
Q4) Which of the following statements about the brain is true?
A) The skull could support as much as 3 tons of weight.
B) The brain is protected only by the skull.
C) The human brain typically weights about 5 pounds.
D) Brain damage rarely results in cognitive changes.
Q5) What evidence is there that genes are involved in Alzheimer's disease (AD)?
Q6) What does the case of Phineas Gage suggest about traumatic brain injury?
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Q1) The development of conduct disorder in adolescence ________
A) predicts the development of other psychopathology in adulthood.
B) rarely occurs.
C) commonly occurs in teens who suffer from ADHD.
D) is not associated with lasting behavioral problems as much as early-onset conduct disorder
Q2) As a camp counselor, you are surprised when you hear that one of your young campers takes a hormone replacement drug intranasally to treat a psychological disorder. The disorder is most likely ________
A) enuresis.
B) autism.
C) somnambulism.
D) encopresis.
Q3) An asymmetry in brain development has been hypothesized to be a cause of
A) ADHD.
B) autism.
C) learning disabilities.
D) selective mutism.
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Q4) __________________ is(are) the most common of the childhood anxiety disorders.

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Q1) What are the main objectives of client-centered therapy?
Q2) Dr. Patel says this about his goals in therapy: "I want my patients to become aware of their repressed memories from childhood and come to terms with them in the light of adult realities." Dr. Patel most likely prefers ________ therapy.
A) flooding
B) gestalt
C) psychodynamic
D) cognitive
Q3) An example of an atypical antipsychotic not considered as a first choice treatment is ________
A) haldol
B) clozapine
C) risperidone
D) zyprexa
Q4) A token economy is ________
A) a form of imaginal exposure therapy.
B) a type of in vivo exposure therapy.
C) a type of contingency management.
D) a form of modeling therapy.
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Q1) A group of professional educators and counselors met to discuss prevention efforts in a neighborhood school district. Which of the following would be the most effective way to prevent adolescent alcohol and other drug use?
A) Classroom education
B) Mass media
C) Internet approach
D) Multicomponent program
Q2) What do the National Association for Mental Health, The ARC, and Mental Health America have in common?
A) They provide training for psychologists and psychiatrists.
B) They are government-funded organizations that do research on mental disorders and related problems.
C) They try to improve services and educate the government and public about various problems.
D) They increase awareness of work-related stress and its impact on mental health.
Q3) The ruling that came to be known as "duty to warn" was also called the __________ decision.
Q4) What factors increase the risk of violence in someone with mental illness?
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