Counseling in Forensic Settings
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Counseling in Forensic Settings explores the unique challenges and strategies involved in providing mental health services within legal and correctional environments. The course examines the role of counselors working with diverse populations, including offenders, victims, and law enforcement personnel, while addressing ethical, legal, and multicultural issues. Students will gain an understanding of evidence-based assessment and intervention methods, risk assessment, crisis intervention, and the impact of the justice system on mental health. Emphasis is placed on developing practical skills for effective communication, case management, and collaboration with multidisciplinary teams in courts, correctional facilities, and community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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30 Chapters
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Chapter 1: A: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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Q1) Which of the following theorists is most closely associated with labelling theories of crime?
A)Merton
B)Becker
C)Sutherland
D)Bowlby
E)Bandura
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following was not identified by Hess (1987,1999)as a dimension along which law and psychology differ?
A)latitude
B)principles
C)criteria
D)purpose
E)epistemology
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 1: B: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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Q1) What are the Mohan criteria? Outline the four criteria and identify a potential problem with them.
Answer: a.The Mohan criteria are the Canadian criteria which outline factors that should be considered when determining the admissibility of expert testimony in court.The four criteria are:
-The evidence must be relevant.
-The evidence must be necessary for assisting the trier of fact (i.e.,it goes beyond the common understanding of court).
-The evidence must not violate any rules of exclusion (i.e.,it must not relate to whether a witness is telling the truth).
-The testimony must be provided by a qualified expert.
b.These criteria are potentially problematic as they are highly subject to the discretion of the judge and judges can sometimes be wrong (e.g.,the judge determines if the evidence actually goes beyond the common understanding of the jury).
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Chapter 2: A: Police Psychology
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Q1) Results from Duxbury and Higgins (2012)study of police stress in Canada indicate that
A)police officers in Canada experience much less stress relative to police in other countries.
B)psychological services within Canadian police forces are under-utilized by officers who really need them.
C)occupational stressors are the leading cause of stress among Canadian police officers.
D)public stressors cause more stress for police officers relative to both occupational and organizational stressors.
E)Police officers experience significant difficulty balancing their work and home life. Answer: E
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Chapter 2: B: Police Psychology
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Q1) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q2) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Q3) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
Q4) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
Q5) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
Q6) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
Q7) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
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Chapter 3: A: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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Q1) Officer Parneau has recently completed a training course in investigative interviewing,and has implemented these techniques in her policing.She now seeks to use more open-ended questions in her interrogations,and to ultimately obtain complete and accurate information about the crime,rather than simply a confession.What model of interrogation is Officer Parneau using?
A)QA model
B)Reid model
C)Inquisition model
D)Kassin model
E)PEACE model
Q2) One of the major goals of a police interrogation in North America is to:
A)build rapport with the suspect
B)identify whether the suspect can understand their legal rights
C)clear other unsolved cases
D)threaten the suspect with harsh sanctions
E)secure a confession from the suspect
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Chapter 3: B: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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Q1) List the two primary goals of a police interrogation.In addition,describe the three types of false confessions that can result from North American-style police interrogation techniques,making it very clear how they differ from one another.
Q2) Define criminal profiling in general terms and provide four main goals of criminal profiling.
Q3) What does the acronym for the PEACE model of interrogation stand for? Briefly describe the primary goal of this model,and provide one example of how Canadian police officers are not adhering o the principles advocated by the PEACE model.
Q4) State four general criticisms of criminal profiling.
Q5) What is the equation specified by Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990)that describes the process of criminal profiling? Define or explain each component of the equation.
Q6) Distinguish between a retracted confession and a disputed confession.
Q7) Define what is meant by minimization and maximization techniques and provide one example of each technique.
Q8) Distinguish between deductive criminal profiling and inductive criminal profiling.Identify a problem associated with each method.
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Chapter 4: A: Deception
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Q1) Dr.Parsons conducted a study comparing a group of individuals diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder to a group of individuals believed to be faking post-traumatic stress disorder in order to obtain worker's compensation.What type of study design is Dr.Parsons using to investigate malingering?
A)known-groups
B)simulation
C)case study
D)cross-sequential
E)cross-sectional
Q2) When using an ERP to detect deception,guilty suspects should respond to crime-relevant events and details with a large __________ relative to noncrime-relevant events.
A)P300 response
B)N100 response
C)increase in blood flow
D)rise in facial temperature
E)activation of the frontal lobe
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Chapter 4: B: Deception
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Q1) Rogers (1990)describes three explanatory models of malingering.Name and define these three models.Which model is most highly supported?
Q2) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
Q3) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering? List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
Q4) Your text identifies several cues of malingered psychosis.Identify three cues associated with hallucinations and three cues associated with delusions.
Q5) What concern has been raised regarding use of brain-imaging evidence in court? Discuss research that has examined this concern.
Q6) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
Q7) Describe the four phases of a Comparison Question Test (CQT).Make sure you identify the purpose of each phase.
Q8) Provide two verbal and two nonverbal cues (variables)demonstrated to be reliable indicators of deception.
Q9) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
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Chapter 5: A: Eyewitness Testimony
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Q1) Dr.Sander wants to conduct an experiment to examine whether memory is better for events that are witnessed versus events one is directly involved in (i.e.,the victim).He sets up a staged event where participants arrive in groups of three to his study (one is a confederate),are asked to take out their wallets to show their photo ID,followed by the confederate who steals one participant's wallet and runs off down the hall.Both participants (the witness and the victim)are questioned by campus security separately about what happened,and asked to identify the suspect out of a photo lineup. In this example,the independent variable is:
A)What the confederate stole from the participant
B)Whether the memory is reported by a victim or a witness
C)How the participants were interviewed about the "crime"
D)Whether there were differences in correct or false identifications
E)How much information the participants reported
Q2) What is another term for the misinformation effect?
A)post-event information effect
B)free narrative effect
C)direct question recall
D)open-ended recall
E)closed ended recall effect
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Chapter 5: B: Eyewitness Testimony
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Q1) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q2) Distinguish between recall versus recognition tests of memory as dependent variables in research.Describe how recall and recognition responses made by witnesses can be examined.
Q3) Distinguish between a simultaneous and a sequential lineup.
Q4) List the correct decisions associated with both target-present and target-absent lineups.Also,list the potential errors that can be made in the lineup identification process and whether these errors are known or unknown to the police.
Q5) What is the cross-race effect? Describe the three common explanations as to why the cross-race effect occurs.
Q6) On the basis of the research you have read in the textbook,list five recommendations that you would make to police forces regarding how they should conduct police lineups.
Q7) Describe the three major types of biases that have been found to increase false positives in lineup identifications.
Q8) List the five reasons why photo lineups are more common than live lineups.
Q9) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
Page 12
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Chapter 6: A: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was reported by Dube et al.(2005)to be twice as likely in men and women reporting child sexual abuse histories relative to those without such a history?
A)Spousal abuse
B)Substance abuse disorders
C)Depression
D)Neurological disorders
E)Suicide attempts
Q2) In the study conducted by Pozzulo and Lindsay (1998),it was found that,in contrast to a simultaneous lineup,a sequential lineup tended to __________ the gap for __________ between children and adults.
A)decrease/false positives
B)decrease/false negatives
C)increase/false positives
D)increase/false negatives
E)not affect/false positives
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Chapter 6: B: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Q1) Name and briefly explain the first five steps of the Step-Wise Interview.
Q2) List four risk factors associated with physical abuse and four risk factors associated with sexual abuse.
Q3) Describe the changes made to the competency inquiry with the enactment of Bill C-2 (2006).
Q4) Describe the four categories of child maltreatment defined by the Child Maltreatment Section (CMS)of Health Canada.
Q5) Discuss the prevailing view regarding child witnesses from the 1600-1900s.Identify the four factors outlined by Ceci and Bruck (1993)that led to the renewed interest in child witnesses.
Q6) Name and briefly describe the two directions that have been taken to understand children's greater propensity toward suggestibility when recalling events (Bruck & Ceci,1999).
Q7) What is Criterion-Based Content Analysis (CBCA)? Specify the assumption that underlies the CBCA and identify two potential problems with this method.
Q8) A number of changes were made to improve courtroom accommodations for child witnesses in Canada.List four of these changes.
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Chapter 7: A: Juries: Fact Finders
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Q1) In Canadian murder trials,the defence and Crown are each allowed ___ peremptory challenges.
A)6
B)10
C)12
D)16
E)20
Q2) What is the term used to describe a jury that ignores the law when reaching a verdict?
A)jury nullification
B)jury resistance
C)jury tampering
D)jury invalidation
E)jury conscience
Q3) What is a key characteristic of jury simulation studies?
A)Archival material is used.
B)Variables of interest are manipulated.
C)Individuals who have served on juries in the past typically participate.
D)Mock trials are usually longer than real trials.
E)There is high external validity.
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Chapter 7: B: Juries: Fact Finders
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Q1) List four functions of a jury.
Q2) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q3) In the context of jury decision making,identify two defendant characteristics that are most likely to result in guilty verdicts,and briefly explain each.
Q4) In the context of jury decision making,distinguish between the terms polarization,leniency bias,and black sheep effect.
Q5) Besides the method of placing a ban on pretrial publicity,name and explain two other methods that courts can employ to increase the likelihood of jury impartiality.
Q6) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
Q7) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
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Page 16
Chapter 8: A: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Q1) Jerome is being accused of assaulting a man,and while he understands that what he did was wrong,he doesn't understand why he is in court and the consequences of the court proceedings.He also is having a difficult time talking with his council and participating in his own defence as he believes his lawyer is really working "for the other side" and that the judge has it out for him.Upon evaluation,Jerome would likely be considered
A)Insane
B)NCRMD
C)Unfit to stand trial
D)Sane
E)Fit to stand trial
Q2) As currently specified in the Canadian Criminal Code,a defendant is unfit to stand trial if he or she is:
A)unable to plead to the indictment
B)unwilling to testify in his or her own defence
C)hostile toward members of his or her defence team
D)unable,on account of a mental disorder,to understand the possible consequences of the proceedings
E)suffering from schizophrenia
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Page 17
Chapter 8: B: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Q1) Peter is on trial for sexual assault.He claims he was in a blackout state due to consumption of two bottles of whisky.Based on the information in your text on intoxication and automatism,what type of disposition would Peter most likely get from a judge and why?
Q2) You have been hired by a Canadian lawyer to assess a defendant for competency to stand trial.As a first step,you have decided to conduct a competency screener.Describe the screener that you will use and justify your choice.
Q3) Distinguish between noninsane automatism and insane automatism.Discuss what dispositions are associated with each,and what circumstances have been recognized by Canadian courts in cases of noninsane automatism.
Q4) What changes to how defendants found NCRMD are dealt with were proposed in Bill C-54 early in 2013?
Q5) What is the name of the current insanity defence in Canada? According to the Canadian Criminal Code,what are the criteria for insanity? Assuming you are the Crown prosecutor,identify two situations in which you may raise the issue of insanity.
Q6) What are the three dispositions that can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
Q7) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
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Chapter 9: A: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Q1) Rob is illiterate and English is his second language.When he is sentenced to incarceration,he is given treatment that requires him to read treatment-related books written in English before each of his counselling sessions.This is a violation of what principle of effective correctional treatment?
A)the need principle
B)the risk principle
C)the responsivity principle
D)the rehabilitative principle
E)the specificity principle
Q2) According to the study by Gendreau et al.(2001),which examined the effectiveness of community-based sanctions and incarceration,the only two sanctions that were found to decrease recidivism were:
A)prison and electronic monitoring
B)restitution and supervision programs
C)fines and electronic monitoring
D)restitution and fines
E)prison and supervision programs
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Chapter 9: B: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Q1) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q2) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
Q3) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q4) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q5) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
Q6) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
Q7) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
Q8) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
Q9) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
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Chapter 10: A: Risk Assessment
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Q1) In predicting violent acts,a ______________ is an incorrect prediction in which a person is predicted to be nonviolent but acts violently.
A)false positive
B)base rate
C)true positive
D)false negative
E)true negative
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the connection between clinical risk factors and violence?
A)Forensic psychiatric patients with a history of suicide attempts and self-injurious behaviour are more likely to engage in violence than other patients.
B)Most people with mental disorders are not violent.
C)Psychosis can increase the odds of violence but this is dependent on study designs,what is measured,and timing of symptoms.
D)A relation has been found between substance use and violence.
E)all of the above
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Chapter 10: B: Risk Assessment
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Q1) What was the main issue raised in the Baxstrom and Dixon cases/studies? What are the two key findings to emerge from this research?
Q2) Within the context of violence prediction,distinguish between a static risk factor,a dynamic risk factor,and a protective factor.Provide an example of each.
Q3) What is actuarial risk assessment? Provide two advantages and two disadvantages associated with this method.What new method of risk assessment was developed in an attempt to address certain limitations associated with the actuarial approach?
Q4) What is desistance and why is age related to declines in criminal offending? What interpersonal moderators also have been proposed to aid in the transition between criminal offending and desistance?
Q5) Name at least four ways in which female offenders differ from male offenders.
Q6) Describe the coping-relapse model of criminal recidivism proposed by Zamble and Quinsey (1997),including the four levels of the model that can lead to criminal behaviour.
Q7) What are the three types of judgment errors or biases that clinicians make when assessing risk?
Q8) Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process.
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Chapter 11: A: Psychopaths
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Q1) The tendency for mental health experts to be biased toward those who hire them refers to:
A)Expert bias
B)Adversarial allegiance
C)The hired gun approach
D)The Mr.Big technique
E)Juror bias
Q2) Gerald is classified as a sexual offender and is considered to be a part of the sex offender group that has been found to have the lowest psychopathy scores.What type of sex offender is Gerald?
A)Sexual homicide offender
B)Mixed sexual offender
C)Child molester
D)Rapist
E)Exhibitionist
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23
Chapter 11: B: Psychopaths
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Q1) Name and describe the most widely used assessment tool for measuring psychopathic traits in adults.
Q2) Define psychopathy,Antisocial Personality Disorder,and sociopathy and give three examples of differences between these disorders.
Q3) Name and describe different study designs used involving twins and siblings when trying to isolate the effect of genes or environment on psychopathic traits.
Q4) List the five recommendations identified by Quayle (2008)to use when interviewing a psychopathic suspect.
Q5) Explain who Clifford Olson is and why he is famous.What changes have been made to Canadian legislation as a result of his request?
Q6) Explain why most researchers believe psychopaths cannot be treated.Describe one well-known study that lends support for this notion.
Q7) Explain how psychopaths differ from nonpsychopaths and more specifically how psychopaths' use of violence differs from nonpychopathic offenders.
Q8) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
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Page 24
Chapter 12: A: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Q1) Observations of aggression and violence amongst a youth's parents,peers,and siblings has been found to lead to greater aggressive tendencies in the youth,especially if the observed aggression was rewarded.This pattern of findings is consistent with what theory of youth antisocial behaviour?
A)Biological theory
B)Genetic theory
C)Social learning theory
D)Cognitive theory
E)Attention theory
Q2) Which of the following risk assessment measures is not used with young offenders in Canada?
A)HCR-20
B)ORAMS
C)SAVRY
D)VRAG
E)ACDI
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Chapter 12: B: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Q1) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective.
Q2) Describe primary,secondary,and tertiary intervention strategies.Describe an example of each strategy.
Q3) Name the three childhood psychiatric disorders that occur with frequency in young offenders.Provide two characteristics of each.
Q4) Three childhood psychiatric diagnoses occur with some frequency in young offenders.Identify the three disorders,describe each,and discuss the relationship between these disorders (i.e.,is diagnosis with one type likely to result in the diagnosis with another?).
Q5) Describe the difference between internalizing problems and externalizing problems.Provide examples of each and identify which is more difficult to treat.
Q6) What is the difference between reactive aggression and proactive aggression? Which is related to an earlier onset of problems?
Q7) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
Q8) Compare the key changes to the youth criminal justice system associated with the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA),the Young Offenders Act (YOA)and the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA).
Q9) Provide three criticisms of the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA). Page 26
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Chapter 13: A: Intimate Partner Violence
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Q1) Which of the following is not a component of social learning theory?
A)patriarchy
B)observational learning
C)instigators of aggression
D)regulators of aggression
E)origins of aggression
Q2) Which of the following scales was included in the revised version of the Conflict Tactics Scale,but not present in the original scale?
A)Sexual coercion scale
B)Physical assault scale
C)Negotiation scale
D)Psychological scale
E)Injury scale
Q3) Which type of male batterer is most likely to exhibit jealousy?
A)the family-only batterer
B)the dysphoric/borderline batterer
C)the generally violent/antisocial batterer
D)the psychopathic batterer
E)the antisocial batterer
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Page 28
Chapter 13: B: Intimate Partner Violence
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Q1) Name and briefly describe the levels that influence intimate violence in the nested ecological model proposed by Dutton (1995).Provide one example for each level.
Q2) The National Family Violence Prevention Programs developed by the Correctional Service of Canada contain 6 components.Name and briefly describe each of these,and discuss which component has been associated with the best treatment outcomes in research.
Q3) Name and briefly describe the three-phase cycle of abuse proposed by Lenore Walker (1979).Discuss what happens at each phase.
Q4) The Conflict Tactics Scale (CTS; Straus,1979)and the updated CTS2 (Straus et al.,1996),a scale used to measure domestic assault,has been criticized on many grounds.List the four criticisms specified in your text.
Q5) Holtzworth-Munroe and Stuart (1994)developed a typology of male batterers based on the severity of violence,generality of violence,and personality disorder characteristics.Name and define each of the three types of batterers.
Q6) Name and briefly describe the three components included in Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory of intimate violence.
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Chapter 14: A: Sexual Offenders
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Q1) In a study by Olver,Stockdale,and Wormith (2011),treatment attrition in sexual offenders is related to all of the following variables except:
A)Denial
B)Negative treatment attitudes
C)Number of prior offences
D)Level of motivation
E)Affective disorders
Q2) According to the classification system devised by Wijkman,Bijleveld,and Hendriks (2011),the majority of female sexual offenders fit into which of the following categories?
A)Male-accompanied group
B)Generalist group
C)Once-only group
D)Teacher/love group
E)Specialist group
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Chapter 14: B: Sexual Offenders
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Q1) According to Finkelhor's (1984)theory of child molesting,what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?
Q2) Describe the two main components of relapse prevention programs aimed at sexual offenders.In addition,distinguish between the terms lapse,relapse,and abstinence violation effect in the context of relapse prevention programs.
Q3) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text,including facts that challenge these false beliefs.
Q4) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests,as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.
Q5) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
Q6) List the four types of female sexual offenders identified by Atkinson (1996).Describe each in terms of their offending behaviour and their backgrounds.
Q7) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
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Chapter 15: A: Homicidal Offenders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40529
Sample Questions
Q1) According to social learning theorists,aggression also is influenced by indirect rewards that include all of the following except:
A)Mass media
B)Peer group
C)Family circle
D)Observing others
E)Genetic influences
Q2) Jared believes that he is going to lose his job,his family will be unable to afford to live their current lifestyle,doesn't see another way out,and doesn't want his family to suffer.After a particularly bad day at work,he goes home,kills his wife and 3 children,and then shoots himself.What type of murderer would Jared most accurately be classified as?
A)Instrumental killer
B)Despondent non-hostile killer
C)Reactive killer
D)Hostile accusatory killer
E)Goal oriented killer
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Chapter 15: B: Homicidal Offenders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40530
Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
Q2) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers.Describe the four major types of serial murderers and their motivations.
Q3) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
Q4) List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006)between female and male serial murderers.
Q5) Identify the two types of familicide murderers described by Wilson,Daly,and Daniele (1995),and discuss the features of both.
Q6) Identify the three categories of juvenile homicide offenders outlined by Cornell,Benedek,and Benedek (1987)and describe the circumstances of their offending.Which type is the most common among youth killers?
Q7) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
Q8) What are the four main types of homicide recognized by Canadian criminal law? Discuss the features of each including the definitions and penalties.
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