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This course explores the principles, techniques, and ethical considerations of counseling children and adolescents in diverse settings. Students will examine developmental, emotional, cognitive, and behavioral issues that commonly affect young people, and learn evidence-based counseling approaches tailored to their unique needs. The course emphasizes building rapport, using age-appropriate interventions, and collaborating with families, schools, and other professionals to promote healthy development and positive change. Through case studies, practical exercises, and theoretical discussion, students will develop the skills necessary to support and empower young clients facing a wide range of challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Abnormal Child and Adolescent Psychology 3rd Edition by Robert Weis
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16 Chapters
1265 Verified Questions
1265 Flashcards
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46098
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a challenge mentioned in your text when determining prevalence of mental disorders in children and adolescents?
A) There is no single agency that tracks the prevalence of mental disorders in children and adolescents.
B) There is no standard definition of what constitutes mental disorder.
C) Epidemiological studies use different methods to collect data, each of which yields a slightly different result.
D) Some people do not want to participate in lengthy surveys, or provide inaccurate information.
Answer: B
Q2) Explain and provide an example of equifinality.
Answer: Equifinality is a developmental pathway upon which different people can arrive at the same outcome via different initial circumstances.
Q3) What are the strengths and weaknesses of defining abnormality based on the child or adolescent's degree of impairment?
Answer: Strengths: Adequately takes into account the individual's distress.Weaknesses: Many mental disorders do not show overt impairment in functioning.
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the first emotions to be displayed by infants?
A) distress
B) pleasure
C) jealousy
D) anger
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a true way in which computed tomography (CT)differs from magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?
A) CT scanning involves taking multiple images of the brain, while MRI takes only a single 3D image.
B) CT scanning involves X-rays, while MRI involves radiofrequency energy.
C) CT scanning is not considered safe for children, while MRI is.
D) CT scanning was developed earlier than MRI was.
Answer: A
Q3) Temperament can be modulated by parents,something referred to as goodness-of-fit.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of a clinical interview?
A) It always takes multiple sessions to complete.
B) It usually involves the child and his or her parents and sometimes other individuals knowledgeable about the child's functioning.
C) It always occurs during the first session.
D) If parents and children are both interviewed, they are always interviewed separately.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of stigma of mental illness?
A) It can lead to self-fulfilling prophecies.
B) It can cause a sense of shame or degradation that decreases self-esteem and lowers self-worth.
C) It has been shown to increase the likelihood that families will seek psychological services so they can have excuses for their children's poor behavior.
D) It can be exacerbated by the way the media covers those with mental illness. Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the ethical principle of competence relate to psychology students who are involved in providing mental health care?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a central belief of family systems therapy?
A) The family is a system, with all members influencing all others.
B) A family is best understood from the context of the mother.
C) The entire family is the "client."
D) Changes in one family member will affect all members of the family.
Q3) Molly's therapist displays her genuine feelings during a therapy session; she doesn't remain disengaged or emotionally distant.This is known as ______.
A) unethical
B) transference
C) congruence
D) empathy
Q4) Psychologists ______.
A) may hold a master's degree
B) may prescribe medication
C) must complete a four- or five- year graduate program and a one-year internship
D) must receive postdoctoral training in assessment, therapy, or neuropsychology
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79 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marty has an intellectual disability.He has difficulty in a variety of domains and one of these is when bowling.He doesn't wait his turn and often bowls other bowlers' frames.This reflects difficulties in which domain?
A) conceptual
B) social
C) academic
D) practical
Q2) The label Intellectual Disability tells us about a person's etiology,symptoms,and likely outcome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following factors have been found to relate to markedly lower degrees of marital satisfaction and quality of life in parents?
A) severity of the child's disability
B) low support from the spouse
C) lower levels of family-related stress
D) using problem-focused techniques to deal with stress
Q4) How have the relative strengths of those with Down syndrome been capitalized on in teaching them to read?
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Q1) Are medications effective in helping children with autism spectrum disorder? For what symptoms (if any)are medications useful?
Q2) What is the evidence that the right fusiform gyrus is important to understanding social interactions in general and not just faces?
A) Individuals with ASD do not show any activation in the right fusiform gyrus.
B) Typically developing individuals show activation of the right fusiform gyrus when watching shapes behave in humanlike social ways, such as playing hide and seek.
C) Typically developing individuals show activation of the right fusiform gyrus when reading stories about social interactions.
D) Individuals with ASD show activation in the right fusiform gyrus when processing objects that are behaving in humanlike social ways.
Q3) Which of the following have been approved by the FDA for children with ASD who exhibit challenging behaviors?
A) Strattera and Abilify
B) Abilify and Risperdal
C) Risperdal and Ritalin
D) Strattera and Concerta
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Q1) Supplemental,small-group instruction in an academic domain in which a child has exhibited low performance in curriculum-based assessment would be considered ______.
A) Tier I
B) Tier II
C) Tier III
D) Tier IV
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a component of the definition of specific learning disorder?
A) Skills in one academic domain must be lower than skills in another academic domain (for instance, they must score lower in reading than in math).
B) The child diagnosed must have a history of academic problems.
C) The deficits must interfere with academic achievement, work functioning, or everyday life activities.
D) The deficits must not be due to sociodemographic factors, such as inadequate instruction in school.
Q3) How might challenges in the representation of phonemes lead to speech sound disorder?
Q4) Describe how problems in auditory perception may result in language problems.
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Q1) Children with ADHD often seem to be focused on the here and now,rather than thinking about past experiences or future goals or consequences.This indicates an impairment in which executive function?
A) working memory
B) internalized speech
C) emotion regulation
D) creative problem solving
Q2) Your neighbor tells you her 6-year-old son has ADHD,combined presentation,and he's being rejected by peers.She's considering putting him on medication,in part to improve his peer relationships.What does the research have to say about this?
Q3) Comorbidity in those with ADHD ______.
A) is relatively uncommon for females.
B) is especially common among youths referred to mental health clinics
C) typically involves eating disorders
D) typically involves communication disorders
Q4) Why might the prevalence rate of the predominantly inattentive presentation of ADHD be higher in the community than in clinic populations?
Q5) What is the evidence that the dopamine system is involved in ADHD?
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Q1) Combining PSST and PMT ______.
A) seemed to produce a cancelling effect, with behavior no better than control children
B) did not provide any additional benefit to PSST alone
C) did not provide any additional benefit to PMT alone
D) produced better outcomes than either treatment alone
Q2) Setting a fire would fall into which category of conduct problems?
A) property violations
B) aggression
C) rule violations
D) oppositional-defiant behavior
Q3) Aggressive and delinquent behavior is most strongly associated with:
A) ODD
B) CD
C) low emotional arousal
D) high emotional reactivity
Q4) Childhood-onset CD is usually associated with worse outcomes than adolescent-onset CD.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Most medications prescribed to reduce pain fall into which class of substances?
A) hallucinogens
B) opioids
C) stimulants
D) sedatives, hypnotics, and anxiolytics
Q2) Results on the efficacy of CBT have indicated which of the following?
A) It is only effective for those with mild substance use problems.
B) It results in greater reductions in substance use than do other types of therapy.
C) The cognitive component is effective, but the behavioral component is not.
D) The behavioral component is effective, but the cognitive component is not.
Q3) Can someone be diagnosed with more than one substance use disorder?
A) Yes, but not simultaneously.
B) No, the diagnosis is made for the most severe substance use disorder.
C) Yes, people are diagnosed with a substance use disorder for each drug they abuse.
D) Yes, except if people abuse Alcohol and one or more other substances, they do not get an alcohol use disorder diagnosis.
Q4) What is the role of expectations in the enhanced reinforcement pathway?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seana is afraid of driving on the freeway,especially to unfamiliar places.She learns of an internship that sounds perfect for her future career goals,but it requires her to drive on the freeway to get there.Seana decides she can't go to the interview.This is an example of an anxiety that has an unusual degree of which of the following factors?
A) intensity
B) chronicity
C) degree of impairment
D) number of situations in which it occurs
Q2) Describe how agoraphobia might arise from panic disorder.How might it arise in those with no history of panic disorder?
Q3) Results of the Child-Adolescent Anxiety Multimodal Study (CAMS)indicated which of the following?
A) For selective mutism, SSRIs were the most effective treatment.
B) For GAD, SSRIs were as effective as CBT.
C) For SAD, social phobia, and GAD, the combination of Zoloft and CBT increased the likelihood of improvement compared to either treatment alone.
D) No treatment was found to be more effective than placebo.
Q4) In what ways can anxiety be positive,helpful,or adaptive?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sexualized behaviors is more common in children who have experienced sexual abuse than in those who have not?
A) toddlers engaging in self-stimulation
B) preschoolers looking at adults while naked or undressing
C) kindergartners asking parents sex-related questions
D) young school-age children showing sexual play with dolls
Q2) Cognitive restructuring for adolescents who have experienced sexual abuse is based on the finding that many of these youths report negative thoughts about which of the following?
A) themselves, others, and the world
B) the past, the present, and the future
C) themselves, their parents, and their siblings
D) their peers, their teachers, and their academic future
Q3) Insitutitions in which children without parents or primary caregivers are placed often share the following characteristics EXCEPT which of the following?
A) high child-to-caregiver ratios
B) caregivers neglecting children's physical health
C) caregivers providing little warmth, sensitivity, and responsiveness
D) high caregiver turnover

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Sample Questions
Q1) A model of depression to explain its higher prevalence in girls centers around excessive empathy,excessive compliance,and problems with emotion regulation.If a boy exhibited all three of these factors,would he too be at higher risk for depression? Why or why not?
Q2) The results of the National Comorbidity Survey have indicated which of the following?
A) Many more youths plan suicide than actually attempt it.
B) About 10 times as many youths have suicidal ideation than actually plan suicide.
C) More youths attempt suicide than plan it because some youths attempt suicide without a plan.
D) The number of adolescents with a lifetime history of suicidal ideation is almost exactly the same as the number with a lifetime history of depression.
Q3) Automatic cognitions about threat and personal vulnerability are most common in depressed youths.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the evidence for the monoamine hypothesis?
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46111
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Q1) Communication enhancement training in family-focused therapy typically entails which of the following?
A) increasing expressed emotion
B) enhancing sharing of positive feelings and making positive requests
C) not voicing negative or potentially offensive emotions or requests
D) making sure emotion is part of every interaction
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a component of child- and family-focused CBT?
A) teaching children to recognize and regulate strong emotions
B) teaching parents to manage stress
C) teaching parents to set firm limits
D) providing parents and children social skills training
Q3) Billy keeps running around the classroom.Though the teacher tells him to sit down,Billy says he can't because he has to chase the magical butterflies-if he catches one,he'll become king.This symptom is most consistent with which of the following?
A) oppositional defiant disorder
B) conduct disorder
C) ADHD
D) bipolar disorder
Q4) What is the evidence that genetics does not entirely account for schizophrenia?
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46112
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a cause of children's sensory food aversion?
A) hypersensitivity to texture
B) hypersensitivity to certain tastes
C) classical conditioning that provokes a fear or disgust reaction in the presence of certain foods
D) positive reinforcement for tantrumming by withdrawing the food
Q2) Which of the following is the approach prescribed by the DSM-5 to determine whether a girl suspected of anorexia nervosa is indeed significantly underweight?
A) She can be considered significantly underweight if she is less than 100 pounds.
B) She can be considered underweight if her BMI is below 17.
C) She can be considered underweight if her BMI is below the 5th percentile for other girls her age.
D) A diagnosis of anorexia nervosa would be categorically excluded if she were above the 5th percentile for weight when compared with other girls her age.
Q3) How is peer pressure used constructively in group therapy for anorexia nervosa?
Q4) Describe the relationship between social anxiety and eating disorders.
Q5) It what ways might bingeing be reinforced?
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Q1) Mina is attempting to use planned ignoring to help her son Matthew fall asleep on his own.But after 20 minutes of crying,Mina can't take it anymore.She goes into the room,nurses and rocks Matthew,and then leaves again.What are likely to be the effects of Mina's actions?
A) Matthew will likely go to sleep and the next night he will not cry at bedtime.
B) In future similar situations, Matthew is likely to cry because he was reinforced for doing so.
C) In future similar situations, Mina will likely have more resolve and not enter the room when Matthew cries for an extended period of time.
D) Mina will likely not try planned ignoring again.
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between sleepwalking and sleep terrors?
A) Only sleep terrors typically involve screaming.
B) Only sleep terrors occur during non-REM sleep.
C) Only sleep terrors have relatively brief durations; sleepwalking typically lasts an hour or more.
D) Only sleep terrors are associated with no memory of the event.
Q3) How might parental characteristics contribute to sleep problems in their children?
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