Counseling and Psychopathology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles and practices of counseling in relation to the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of psychopathology. Students will gain an understanding of major psychological disorders, their symptomatology, and etiological factors, while developing skills in clinical interviewing, case conceptualization, and evidence-based intervention strategies. The course emphasizes ethical considerations, cultural competence, and the integration of theoretical perspectives to address diverse client needs. Through case studies, role-plays, and critical analysis, students will learn to apply counseling techniques in supporting individuals experiencing mental health challenges within various clinical and community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss one disadvantage of developing a classification system for mental disorders.
Answer: Multiple possible answers: 1. There is a loss of information when a classification scheme is applied to behavior, as will happen when any single word is used to convey something as complex as a mental disorder. 2. In addition, there may be some stigma attached to receiving a psychiatric diagnosis. 3. Stereotyping may occur, leading to incorrect assumptions about and expectations of an individual who has received a psychiatric diagnosis.
Q2) A psychologist reports a single case of a disorder, detailing the person's feelings and responses. This research strategy is
A) very strong and widely used in abnormal psychology.
B) rarely used in abnormal psychology because few people are willing to examine their own lives closely.
C) weak because it rarely provides information we can generalize to others with the disorder.
D) weak because it confuses correlational data with experimental data.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physicians of the Nancy School ________
A) opposed the use of hypnotism.
B) demonstrated the power of suggestion.
C) found that hypnotism was not effective in the treatment of any mental illnesses.
D) believed that hysteria was the result of brain degeneration.
Answer: B
Q2) The approaches to treatment of the mentally ill during the Middle Ages in Europe are best characterized as ________
A) superstitious.
B) humane.
C) medical.
D) scientific.
Answer: A
Q3) During the early twentieth century, ________
A) more asylums and mental hospitals were established.
B) most of the institutionalized mentally ill received moral therapy.
C) hospital stays tended to be brief.
D) mental hospitals housed very few people.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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145 Verified Questions
145 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ are conditions that increase the probability of a disorder but are neither necessary nor sufficient to cause it.
Answer: Contributory causes
Q2) Charlotte suffers from intense anxiety. How would Freud explain this anxiety? In your answer, describe the different parts of the personality from a Freudian perspective, and how these parts of personality interact to produce anxiety.
Answer: Freud suggests that behavior results from interaction of three subsystems in personality: id (source of instinctual drives, pleasure principle), ego (mediator between demands of id and external world), reality principle), and superego (conscience, internalization of societal morals and taboos). Inner (intrapsychic) conflicts arise when these three make incompatible demands on the individual. Freud suggests three types of anxiety: reality, neurotic, and moral anxiety. The ego handles anxiety either rationally or with ego-defense mechanisms.
Q3) _____________ are the conditions that guarantee the occurrence of a disorder.
Answer: Sufficient causes
Q4) The site of chemical communication in the brain is the __________ .
Answer: synapse
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Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computers are excellent devices for storing information on large numbers of people's characteristics and test score patterns. Whenever a person turns up with a specific test score pattern, the computer can print out an appropriate description. This illustrates ________
A) actuarial procedures.
B) content interpretation.
C) rational analysis.
D) factor analysis.
Q2) As is presented with Andrea C within the text, a typical MMPI-2 computer-based report has ________
A) one content-based scale.
B) ten content-based scales.
C) fifteen content-based scales.
D) one hundred content-based scales.
Q3) There are two general categories of psychological tests used in clinical practice. They are ________
A) intelligence tests and personality tests.
B) projective tests and sentence completion tests.
C) neuropsychological tests and standardized tests.
D) intelligence tests and rating scales.
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause stress-induced immunosuppression?
A) Serotonin
B) Adrenaline
C) GABA
D) Glucocorticoids
Q2) The impact of torture _________
A) is always a severe level of PTSD.
B) can vary depending on the type of torture used.
C) can vary depending on if the torture was perceived as uncontrollable or not.
D) depends on whether the person previously had another psychological disorder.
Q3) According to the text, a factor that does not make one stressor more serious than another includes________.
A) severity
B) chronicity
C) geographic region
D) how expected it is.
Q4) The biological cost of adapting to stress is called the __________.
Q5) How is the severity of stress measured?
Q6) Discuss the immune system's response to an attack.
Q7) What is stress-inoculation training?
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one of the five primary types of anxiety disorders recognized in the DSM-5?
A) hypochondriasis
B) agoraphobia
C) dissociative fugue
D) bipolar disorder
Q2) Which of the following is one of the five primary types of compulsive acts seen in individuals with OCD?
A) Cleaning
B) Fear of contamination
C) Fear of danger
D) Scanning
Q3) Mowrer's two-process theory of avoidance learning provides a theoretical rationale for an effective treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder. What is this treatment?
A) Response activation therapy
B) Exposure prevention therapy
C) Response provocation therapy
D) Exposure therapy with response prevention
Q4) How do cognitions help maintain phobias?
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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joanne tends to blow up at people and then feel guilty. She worries a lot. She complains that she just doesn't really find anything exciting and life is boring. Joanne
A) shows evidence of neuroticism and low positive affectivity, and has a high risk of developing depression.
B) shows evidence of neuroticism and has a moderate risk of developing depression.
C) shows evidence of introversion, and has a mild risk of developing depression.
D) shows no evidence of any kind that would increase her risk for developing depression.
Q2) A hypomanic episode is best described as a _________
A) mild manic episode.
B) short manic episode.
C) manic episode characterized by inactivity.
D) manic episode followed by symptoms of a mild depression.
Q3) Childhood depression ________
A) has been clearly linked to genetic factors.
B) is more likely in children with a depressed parent.
C) has not been associated with parental depression. D) can usually be causally related to marital discord.
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) DID is a condition in which aspects of memory such as identity and consciousness are _________
A) overly integrated.
B) no longer integrated.
C) implicitly segregated.
D) shared by separate people.
Q2) Describe the three diagnostic criteria for excessive thoughts, feelings, or behavior related to somatic symptoms that the DSM-5 identifies for a diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder.
Q3) Which of the following is true of opposite sex alters in DID?
A) They are rare.
B) They are quite common.
C) When they do occur, they usually assume the role of host.
D) They occur most commonly when sexual abuse has occurred.
Q4) The disorder involving the experience of sudden loss of the sense of self is
A) depersonalization disorder.
B) psychogenic amnesia.
C) disidentity disorder.
D) derealization disorder.
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Watching commercials in which overweight women are depicted in negative ways causes ________
A) thin women to eat more.
B) overweight and obese women to eat more.
C) thin women to eat less.
D) overweight and obese women to eat less.
Q2) Which of the following accounts for more morbidity and mortality than all eating disorders combined?
A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Bulimia nervosa
C) Binge-eating disorder
D) Obesity
Q3) Generally speaking, people with a BMI below 18.5 are considered
Q4) What factors put males at risk for developing eating disorders?
Q5) What most clearly separates the anorexic from the bulimic?
Q6) Discuss the risk of suicide in anorexia and bulimia.
Q7) ____________is the most common form of eating disorder.
Page 11
Q8) What is leptin and how does it influence appetite and weight?
Q9) Why is dieting a risk factor for the development of eating disorders?
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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142 Verified Questions
142 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since there are substantial problems with reliability and validity of the diagnoses of personality disorders, ________
A) they are rarely used in clinical practice.
B) it is less likely that research on a disorder will be able to be replicated by other researchers.
C) they are considered by clinicians only as suggestions and do not have an impact on treatment decisions.
D) very little research or search for treatments is done.
Q2) What complicates the diagnosis of personality disorders?
Q3) Like many individuals with personality disorders, individuals with histrionic personality disorder are rarely able to maintain relationships over time. Why?
A) Their extreme distrust makes lasting relationships impossible.
B) Their self-reliance leads them to feel that they do not need anyone else.
C) Their exaggerated sense of self-importance is generally off-putting.
D) Their need for attention and manipulation is likely to drive others away.
Q4) What are the research findings on psychopathy and learning?
Q5) Discuss the two subtypes of narcissistic personality disorder and the possible causes posited for each subtype.
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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129 Verified Questions
129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hallucinogenic properties of LSD was discovered by accident in 1938 by
A) Sigmund Freud.
B) Albert Hofmann.
C) Timothy Leary.
D) Corey Monteith.
Q2) At low levels, alcohol's effect on the brain is ________; at higher levels, alcohol's effect is ________.
A) to inhibit glutamate (an excitatory neurotransmitter); release opium-like endorphins
B) too minimal to have an impact; massive and excitatory
C) depressive; excitatory
D) to activate the brain's "pleasure centers"; depress brain functioning
Q3) Name and describe the two phenomena that are seen when a person has a physiological need for a psychoactive substance.
Q4) What do all abused substances have in common? What are some inherited factors that might lead to an increased vulnerability to substance abuse?
Q5) Nutritional deficiencies are common in alcoholics. Provide two different reasons for this.
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following people best illustrates the most common type of pedophile?
A) Werner, who is sadistic and enjoys causing pain.
B) Frank, who is interpersonally unskilled and feels in control when dominating a child.
C) Norman, who is bisexual, but cannot respond sexually to adult men or women.
D) Ben, who has low self-esteem and fantasizes about being dominated by others in sexual relationships.
Q2) Among psychoanalysts in the 1930s and 1940s, homosexuality was first seen as ________ but later was seen as ________.
A) a form of criminal behavior; defense against heterosexual urges
B) a severe form of psychological disability; a normal variant of sexual behavior
C) a result of highly pathological parent-child relationships; a conscious effort to gain attention
D) a variation of sexual function; a pathological escape from heterosexuality
Q3) Describe the Sambian people's beliefs about sex. How does this illustrate the impact of culture on sexual attitudes and practices?
Q4) Name and describe the four phases of the human sexual response.
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sterling believes that the TV special that was on last night was shown to tell her that she should break up with her boyfriend. She is absolutely certain this is true and plans to do it. This type of belief is an example of a ________
A) thought broadcasting delusion.
B) delusion of reference.
C) made feelings delusion.
D) thought insertion delusion.
Q2) The individual diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder ________
A) has a mild case of schizophrenia combined with signs of a mood disorder.
B) usually exhibits symptoms of schizophrenia that last for at least a month but less than 6 months.
C) is likely to take actions based on their delusions.
D) experiences a schizophrenia-like psychosis that lasts for less than a month.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
A) Julia heard voices that told her she was evil.
B) Karen no longer socialized with her friends.
C) Ellen suspected that her husband had poisoned her food.
D) Georgia's speech sounded normal, but made no sense.
Q4) What is schizoaffective disorder?
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The median time to death for a person diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease is ________ years from the time of first clinical contact.
A) 5.7
B) 13.2
C) 2.1
D) 19
Q2) What are the factors that have an impact on the outcome for children with traumatic brain injury?
Q3) The disturbances associated with delirium tend to develop over a ___________ period of time.
Q4) Vascular dementia is less common than Alzheimer's disease because ________ A) it develops later in life.
B) the patient is vulnerable to sudden death from stroke or cardiovascular disease. C) it can be cured.
D) spontaneous remission is common.
Q5) Damage to the frontal areas of the brain is likely to have what sort of effects?
Q6) What is vascular dementia?
Q7) Why are cognitive disorders included in abnormal psychology?
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence (Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In evaluating the presence of mental health problems in children, one needs to consider that children do not have as ________ and ____________ view of the world as adults do.
Q2) By definition, learning disorders ________
A) are not due to a physical defect.
B) reflect a developmental delay.
C) are present before the age of 5.
D) cannot be treated medically.
Q3) Microcephaly and macrocephaly have what in common?
A) They involve alterations in head size and shape.
B) They are due to recessive genes.
C) They are caused by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the cranium.
D) They are associated with older parental age.
Q4) Coprolalia ________
A) is a vocal tic involving yelling obscenities.
B) frequently accompanies encopresis.
C) is a common side effect of medications used in the treatment of childhood depression.
D) is a rare pervasive developmental disorder.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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137 Verified Questions
137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the process and purpose of Freudian dream analysis.
Q2) What do lithium carbonate, carbamazepine (Tegretol), and valproate (Depakote) have in common?
A) They are benzodiazepines.
B) They are used in the treatment of anxiety disorders.
C) They are atypical antipsychotic drugs.
D) They are used in the treatment of bipolar disorder.
Q3) An analysis of psychodynamically oriented psychotherapy found that ________
A) there is great promise in it for borderline personality disorder.
B) results of this therapy are largely unsuccessful.
C) those that stress traditional psychoanalytic principles have the highest degree of success.
D) the interpersonal forms of treatment are among the least useful.
Q4) The conventional antipsychotic drugs have a problematic side effect involving abnormal movement. This side effect is called ________
A) agranulocytosis.
B) monoamine oxidase.
C) tardive dyskinesia.
D) atypical neuroleptics.
Q5) What is rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)? What kind of therapy is REBT?
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which person is aftercare likely to be helpful because the person will fit the services typically offered?
A) Bart, who has a lengthy criminal record
B) Helen, who has developed posttraumatic stress disorder after being attacked
C) Ned, who has had several schizophrenic episodes
D) Vera, who has few psychological problems but who frequently moves from place to place
Q2) The history of abnormal psychology makes it clear that ________
A) the field can be profoundly changed and improved through individual effort.
B) international efforts in dealing with mental disorders are doomed to failure because there is no agreement on the definition of "disorder."
C) more domestic and fewer international efforts are needed.
D) we are no further today in understanding mental disorders than we were in the time of Pinel, Dix, and Beers.
Q3) What is one of the best predictors of future violence?
A) Compliance with treatment
B) Past history of violence
C) Family support
D) Employment history
Page 20
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