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Cost Accounting is a course designed to provide students with an in-depth understanding of the methods and techniques used to identify, measure, analyze, and report cost information within organizations. Focusing on both manufacturing and service sectors, the course covers topics such as cost behavior, cost allocation, job and process costing, activity-based costing, budgeting, variance analysis, and standard costing. Through practical examples and case studies, students learn how cost information supports managerial planning, decision-making, and control, enabling them to evaluate performance, set prices, and implement effective cost management strategies.
Recommended Textbook
Financial and Managerial Accounting 10th Edition by Belverd E. Needles
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28 Chapters
4130 Verified Questions
4130 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A proper heading for the income statement could include "For the Year Ended December 31,20--."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The articles of incorporation may be found in the corporate charter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The day-by-day accumulation of interest is considered a transaction involving an exchange of value.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Which four types of transactions affect stockholders' equity,and how do they affect it?
Answer: Revenues and owner investments increase stockholders' equity,whereas expenses and dividends decrease stockholders' equity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Purchasing office supplies on account is an example of one way a company can take advantage of deferring a cash payment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following errors will not cause the debit and credit columns of the trial balance to be unequal?
A)A debit entry was recorded in the wrong account.
B)A debit was entered in an account as a credit.
C)The account balance was carried to the wrong column of the trial balance.
D)The balance of an account was incorrectly computed.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is the first step in the accounting cycle?
A)Prepare financial statements.
B)Analyze business transactions from source documents.
C)Prepare an adjusted trial balance.
D)Post the journal entries to the ledger.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adjusting entry would not include which of the following accounts?
A)Salaries Payable
B)Unearned Revenue
C)Interest Receivable
D)Cash
Answer: D
Q2) The intentional preparation of misleading financial statements is referred to as fraudulent financial reporting.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Net income + Expenses = Revenues.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) Accrual accounting is an application of the matching rule.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) Accounting information contains numerous estimates,classifications,summarizations,judgments,and allocations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Goodwill would appear in which balance sheet section?
A)Investments
B)Property,plant,and equipment
C)Current assets
D)Intangible assets
Q3) Relevance is comprised of all of the following except
A)Neutrality
B)Materiality
C)Predictive value
D)Confirmative value
Q4) Although a garbage can that costs $25 is a long-term asset,it can be expensed because the amount is immaterial and will not affect anyone's decision making.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) When freight-in is a relatively small amount,most companies include the cost in A)operating expenses.
B)cost of goods sold.
C)administrative expenses.
D)merchandise inventory.
Q2) A discount that buyers take for early payment of merchandise is called a
A)customer discount.
B)purchases discount.
C)sales discount.
D)trade discount.
Q3) A merchandiser will earn an operating income of exactly $0 when A)gross margin equals operating expenses.
B)net sales equals cost of goods sold.
C)cost of goods sold equals gross margin.
D)operating expenses equal net sales
Q4) Under the periodic inventory system,the amount for inventory on hand is accurate only on the balance sheet date.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how to compute the cost of goods available for sale.
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Q1) In general,in times of rising prices,using FIFO has a favorable effect on cash flows.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The matching of revenue with inventory costs is best achieved with the FIFO method.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A retail store has goods available for sale of $2 million at retail and $1,100,000 at cost,and ending inventory of $160,000 at retail.What is the estimated cost of ending inventory?
A)$128,000
B)$160,000
C)$110,000
D)$88,000
Q4) Inventory methods such as LIFO and FIFO deal more with cost flow than with goods flow.
A)True B)False
Q5) What is the chief objective of supply-chain management? How is it accomplished?
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Q1) Damaged goods that can be sold at a reduced price should be included in a company's merchandise inventory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On a balance sheet,what items normally are included in Cash?
Q3) Under the perpetual inventory system,inventory losses can be identified more easily than under the periodic inventory system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cash equivalents are usually listed as short-term investments on the balance sheet.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain management's responsibility as it pertains to internal control of a company.
Q6) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act has not stopped the occurrence of fraud,and additional guidance with regard to internal controls is expected to be issued.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under securitization,a company sells individual receivables with recourse at a large discount.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The higher the receivables turnover,the lower the days' sales uncollected.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A note receivable dated May 23 and due in 90 days would be due on
A)August 20.
B)August 21.
C)August 23.
D)August 22.
Q4) Notes receivable due within 90 days and cash are examples of short-term financial assets.
A)True B)False
Q5) The holder of a note adjusts for accrued interest by debiting Interest Receivable and crediting Interest Income.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expenditure to lengthen the useful life of a company vehicle would require a
A)credit to Company Vehicles.
B)debit to Repair and Maintenance Expense.
C)debit to Depreciation Expense.
D)debit to Accumulated Depreciation.
Q2) Which of the following accounting principles best justifies accelerated depreciation accounting?
A)Materiality
B)Matching
C)Full disclosure
D)Consistency
Q3) If a company's free cash flow is $66,000,net cash flows from operating activities total
$133,000,purchases of plant assets total $61,000,and the payment of dividends was $20,000,what amount was obtained from the sale of plant assets?
A)$7,000
B)$14,000
C)$28,000
D)Impossible to determine from the facts given.
Q4) What is goodwill and when may it be recorded?
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Q1) A commitment is a legal obligation that meets the technical requirements for recognition as a liability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A business accepts a 12 percent,$94,000 note due in three years.Assuming simple interest,how much will the business receive when the note falls due?
A)$105,280
B)$127,840
C)$116,560
D)$94,000
Q3) Liabilities generally arise from expected future transactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A contingent liability should be entered into the accounting records if it is both probable and reasonably estimable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify and briefly discuss the three approaches for determining fair value identified by the FASB.
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Q1) If bonds are retired by an issuer by purchase on the open market at a price below the bonds' carrying value,a loss will result.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A bond agreement is referred to as the bond indenture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A bond indenture is
A)a bond that is secured by specific assets of the issuing corporation.
B)the agreement between the issuing corporation and the bondholders.
C)a bond that is unsecured.
D)a bond that has past due interest payments.
Q4) Peng Corporation has been authorized to issue bonds with interest payment dates of March 1 and September 1.If the bonds are sold at face amount on April 1,the amount of cash to be received by the issuer is equal to the face amount of the bonds
A)minus the interest accrued from March 1 to April 1.
B)plus the interest accrued from April 1 to September 1.
C)minus the interest accrued from April 1 to September 1.
D)plus the interest accrued from March 1 to April 1.
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Sample Questions
Q1) To evaluate the amount of dividends they receive,investors use the ratio called A)Price/Earnings ratio
B)Return on Equity
C)Dividend yield ratio
D)Current ratio
Q2) A corporation's board of directors may influence dividend policies,but the company's senior management has sole authority to declare dividends.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An advantage of the corporate form is the separation of ownership and control. A)True
B)False
Q4) How is book value per share interpreted for an investor who owns one share of a company's stock? Is book value equal to the amount this stockholder would receive if the company were sold or liquidated? Why or why not?
Q5) Treasury stock is reported as an asset on the balance sheet because treasury shares may be sold later.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Payment of dividends would be reflected as a cash outflow in the investing activities section of the statement of cash flows.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cash flows to sales is a measure of how much operating cash flows did each dollar of sales generate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cash equivalents do not include
A)U.S.Treasury bills.
B)money market accounts.
C)marketable securities.
D)commercial paper.
Q4) A decrease in plant assets shown in the investing activities section of the statement of cash flows would be presented based on the amount of the resulting gain or loss incurred.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which accounts are analyzed to determine cash flows from financing activities?
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Q1) In a common-size income statement,each item is expressed as a percentage of net income.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sleepy Monk Coffee Company operates a chain of retail coffee shops and also sells its signature roasted coffee to local resorts.Which of the following accounting estimates would be most important for Sleepy Monk Coffee Company?
A)Uncollectible accounts receivable.
B)Warranty claims.
C)Depreciable lives for its operating assets.
D)Sales returns.
Q3) Vertical analysis of comparative financial statements includes the
A)development of common-size statements.
B)calculation of dollar amount changes and percentage changes from the previous to the current year.
C)use of an index number.
D)All of these choices.
Q4) Briefly explain a "big bath" including when it occurs and why it occurs.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Minor materials and other production supplies that cannot be conveniently traced to specific products are accounted for as indirect materials.
A)True B)False
Q2) Accounting rules applicable to management accounting are the same as those used for financial accounting.
A)True B)False
Q3) A manager should focus on the purpose of a report while preparing it.
A)True B)False
Q4) Job #178 consists of 500 units and has total of direct materials,$48,000;direct labor,$58,000;and overhead,$35,000.
a.What is the unit product cost?
b.What are the prime costs per unit?
c.What are the conversion costs per unit?
Q5) All product costs are expensed in the period in which they are paid in cash. A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a service organization using a job order costing system,actual overhead will be the same as applied overhead.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes a difference between job order and process costing systems?
A)In job order costing systems,overhead costs are treated as product costs,whereas in process costing systems,overhead costs are treated as period costs.
B)Job order costing systems do not assign costs to production,whereas process costing systems do.
C)In job order costing systems,costs are traced to a specific job order,whereas in process costing systems,costs are traced to work cells and then assigned to products manufactured.
D)In a job order costing system,selling costs are treated as period costs,whereas they are treated as product costs in a process costing system.
Q3) Explain the similarities and differences between job order costing and process costing.Focus on the characteristics of each system.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coffeeberry Company manufactures a variety of coffee and utilizes a process costing system.The following information was provided by the accounting department as of May 31,2014:
a.Units started during the month of May totaled 40,000.
b.Units partially complete as of May 31 equaled 8,600.
c.Ending work in process inventory as of May 31,2014,was 75 percent complete.
d.Direct materials are added at the beginning of the process,and conversion costs are incurred uniformly throughout the process.
e.No units were in process on May 1,2014.
Using the information provided,compute the equivalent units of production for direct materials and conversion costs for the month ended May 31,2014,assuming a FIFO costing flow.
Q2) The equivalent units of production for direct materials and conversion costs,respectively,of Bakersfield were
A)6,200 for direct materials and 6,360 for conversion costs.
B)5,400 for direct materials and 6,520 for conversion costs.
C)6,200 for direct materials and 5,960 for conversion costs.
D)7,000 for direct materials and 6,520 for conversion costs.
Q3) Mention the two cost allocation methods used in a process costing system.
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Q1) The initial step in achieving the efficiency of a just-in-time system is to
A)redesign the plant layout.
B)replace laborers with machines.
C)stop ordering materials for inventory.
D)identify products that are not profitable.
Q2) Activity-based costing is the tool used in an ABM environment to assign activity costs to cost objects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For a small coffee cafe,which of the following is a nonvalue-adding activity?
A)Importing coffee beans
B)Purchasing ingredients
C)Accounting for materials and conversion costs
D)Operating the drive-through window
Q4) Full product cost includes both nonproduction costs and production costs required to satisfy customers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do managers measure an activity's performance?
Q6) When using a just-in-time system,what qualities should be a supplier posses? Page 20
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Q1) Costs that change,in total,in direct proportion to changes in productive output,or activity,are called variable costs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If fixed costs are $180,000,variable costs are $38 per unit,and the product sells for $70,the breakeven point in sales dollars is $5,625.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All variable costs except manufacturing costs are subtracted from sales to determine the total contribution margin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For every unit that a company produces and sells above the breakeven point,its profitability is improved (ignoring taxes)by the unit's
A)gross margin.
B)selling price minus fixed cost.
C)variable cost.
D)contribution margin.
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Q1) Total cash receipts for August of Lee Carter will be
A)$12,500.
B)$60,000.
C)$47,500.
D)$72,500.
Q2) Hang12 manufactures surfboards.During the upcoming quarter,it expects to sell 4,100 surfboards,after which it plans to have 500 surfboards remaining in inventory.If it currently has 200 surfboards on hand,how many surfboards will Hang12 have to produce for the upcoming quarter?
A)4,400
B)3,800
C)4,100
D)3,400
Q3) The main difference in the master budget process for manufacturing,retail,and service organizations is found in the kinds of operating budgets prepared by the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe three benefits budgeting provides to an organization's success.
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Q1) What is the direct labor variance between the actual results and the flexible budget?
A)$10 (U)
B)$10 (F)
C)$60 (U)
D)$60 (F)
Q2) A manager can improve the economic value of an investment center by increasing sales.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Managers at all levels are evaluated in terms of their ability to manage their areas of responsibility in keeping with organizational goals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tying compensation incentives to performance targets decreases the likelihood that the goals of responsibility centers,managers,and the entire organization will be well coordinated.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Comparing "what did happen" with "what should have happened" aids in the performance evaluation of a company.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A flexible budget is a summary of expected costs for a range of activity levels and is geared to changes in the level of productive output.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The standard overhead cost is the sum of the estimates of variable and fixed overhead costs in the next accounting period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compute the fixed overhead budget variance.
A)$5,000 (F)
B)$5,000 (U)
C)$10,000 (F)
D)$15,000 (F)
Q5) Differentiate between the variable overhead spending variance and the variance overhead efficiency variance.
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Q1) Conducting post completion audits to determine if short-run outcomes were achieved falls under the evaluation stage of the management process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are qualitative factors that may be used by decision makers except
A)social issues.
B)tax implications.
C)timeliness.
D)competition.
Q3) Examples of relevant fixed costs for a special order decision are the purchase of additional machinery,an increase in supervisory help,and an increase in insurance premiums required by a specific order.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fixed costs that are traceable to the segments are called common costs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What information does a manager need to gather for a make-or-buy decision?
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Q1) Which of the following evaluation methods ignores the time value of money?
A)The accounting rate-of-return and discounted cash flow methods
B)The net present value and discounted cash flow methods
C)The payback period and net present value methods
D)The accounting rate-of-return and payback period methods
Q2) Why is the book value of equipment irrelevant when considering the replacement of equipment?
Q3) The proposals with the highest ranking are funded first in capital investment decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The future value of a cash flow is always larger than the present value of that cash flow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The company's minimum rate of return is also referred to as its profit margin.
A)True B)False
Q6) Upon completion of a capital investment project,what management functions related to it remain to be done?
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Q1) An internal issue to be considered when setting a price is
A)whether there is a sole source or heavy competition.
B)total demand for the product or service.
C)the quality of material and labor.
D)the number of competing products or services.
Q2) In a competitive market,prices can be reduced to gain market share by displacing the sales of competing companies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When gross margin pricing is used,the markup percentage includes
A)desired profits plus total selling,general,and administrative expenses.
B)only the desired profit factor.
C)total costs and expenses.
D)desired profits plus total fixed production costs plus total selling,general,and administrative expenses.
Q4) A cost-based price is a good starting point,but once a cost-based price has been determined what other factors should be considered before finalizing a selling price?
Q5) Explain how target costing differs from traditional cost-based pricing methods.
Q6) What are the four pricing rules managers must follow to stay in business?
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Q1) The costs of nonconformance are made up of
A)prevention costs and appraisal costs.
B)internal failure costs and external failure costs.
C)vendor performance and customer satisfaction.
D)product design and production performance.
Q2) A Japanese award given to honor individuals or groups who have contributed to the development and dissemination of total quality control is the
A)EFQM Excellence Award.
B)Deming Prize.
C)Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award.
D)ISO 9000 Award.
Q3) The costs of quality are made up of
A)prevention costs and appraisal costs.
B)internal failure costs and external failure costs.
C)costs of conformance and costs of nonconformance.
D)product design and production performance.
Q4) The sale and shipment of a product marks the end of performance measurement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three steps managers take to create a TQM environment?
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Q1) After selling all the assets and paying the liabilities in a liquidation of a partnership,the partners share any remaining cash according to the stated ratios.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Partnership liquidation is not the same as partnership dissolution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a new partner is admitted,the old partnership agreement is still in effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The division of income is one area in which a partnership differs from a corporation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following does not result in the dissolution of a partnership?
A)Death of a partner
B)Admission of a new partner
C)Withdrawal of a partner
D)Sale of partnership assets
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Q1) Gains and losses on the sale of investments appear as adjustments within the financing activities section of the statement of cash flows.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the United States,insider trading is considered
A)unethical,but not illegal.
B)neither unethical nor illegal.
C)both unethical and illegal.
D)illegal,but not unethical.
Q3) Unrealized Loss (Gain)on Short-Term Investments is a contra-asset account that will appear on the balance sheet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a corporation owns more than 50 percent of the voting stock in another corporation,it usually should report its investment by using (the) A)equity method.
B)cost adjusted to market method.
C)book value method.
D)consolidated financial statements.
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