Cosmology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Cosmology is the scientific study of the universe as a whole its origin, structure, dynamics, and ultimate fate. This course explores fundamental concepts such as the Big Bang theory, cosmic inflation, dark matter, dark energy, and the large-scale structure of the cosmos. Students will examine observational evidence, including the cosmic microwave background and the distribution of galaxies, as well as the mathematical models and physical laws that describe the universe's evolution. The course also discusses ongoing research, unresolved questions, and the philosophical implications of understanding the cosmos.
Recommended Textbook
HorizonsExploring the Universe 14th Edition by Michael
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20 Chapters
2483 Verified Questions
2483 Flashcards
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Page 2
A. Seeds
Chapter 1: Here and Now
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97 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) \(3.0 × 10^5\) times \(1.5 × 10^9\) is equal to
A)\(4.5 × 10^{45}\).
B)\(4.5 × 10^{14}\)
C)\(2.0 × 10^4\).
D)\(2.0 × 10^{14}\).
E)\(2.0 × 10^{45}\).
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is an incorrect ordering of the planets' distances from the Sun, from nearest to furthest
A)Mercury, Venus, Uranus, Neptune
B)Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn
C)Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Neptune
D)Earth, Venus, Jupiter, Uranus
Answer: D
Q3) Why would the English system of units be more useful if a foot contained 10 inches
Answer: Because our number system is base-10, having units based on 10 simplifies calculations. Fractions could be expressed in decimal notation. Prefixes could be used, such as milli-, centi-, kilo- to express lengths of varying orders of magnitudes.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: A Users Guide to the Sky
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you are standing at the Earth's north pole, which of the following would be located at the zenith
A)the nadir
B)the star Vega
C)the celestial equator
D)the north celestial pole
Answer: D
Q2) A third apparent visual magnitude star is brighter than a fifth apparent visual magnitude star.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) If you were standing on the Earth's equator, which of the following in the sky would pass through your zenith during the entire day (24 hours)
A)the north celestial pole
B)the south celestial pole
C)the celestial equator
D)the nadir
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cycles of the Sun and Moon
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Sample Questions
Q1) An evening or morning star is a planet.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) During a total lunar eclipse, which of the following are true I.The photosphere of the Sun is obscured by the Moon.II.The Moon is in Earth's umbra.III.The Moon is new.IV.The Moon is full.
A)I, III
B)II, IV
C)I, II, III
D)II, III
E)I, II, III, IV
Answer: B
Q3) Earth doesn't experience a solar eclipse every month because A)of unpredictable weather patterns.
B)the Moon always keeps its same side toward the Earth.
C)the Moon's orbit plane is not aligned with the Earth's orbit plane.
D)its sometimes nighttime when the eclipse occurs.
E)sometimes the Moon is too far away.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Origin of Modern Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once a theory has been tested thoroughly and is confidently believed by scientists, it becomes a ____________________.
Q2) Describe the differences between the Ptolemaic, Tychonian, and Copernican models of the universe.
Q3) If the force on a body is halved then the acceleration of the body A)increases by half B)increases by double C)decreases by half D)decreases by double
Q4) Compare the circular velocities of the satellites and/or moons of Mars and Earth, using Reasoning with Number 4-1 as your guide. Which has the higher velocity and by how much
Q5) What are Newton's three laws of motion
Q6) Kepler's second law of planetary motion states that the orbits of the planets are ellipses with the Sun at one focus. A)True B)False
Q7) How can tidal forces affect the rotation of celestial bodies and their orbital motion Hint: Consider Earth and the Moon.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Light and Telescopes
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Sample Questions
Q1) To keep a telescope fixed on a stellar target over time as Earth rotates, the telescope must have a/an _____________________.
Q2) The technique of connecting multiple telescopes together to combine the images from each telescope is known as A)aberration.
B)resolving power.
C)active optics.
D)adaptive optics.
E)interferometry.
Q3) The optical shape of segmented mirrors is controlled by computer-driven thrusters under the mirrors in what is called A)an achromatic lens.
B)active optics.
C)a Schmidt-Cassegrain design.
D)a Newtonian design.
E)interferometry.
Q4) What advantages does a large-diameter astronomical telescope have over a telescope of a smaller diameter
Q5) Explain why the majority of large modern telescopes are not refractors.
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Chapter 6: Atoms and Spectra
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hotter an object, the bluer it appears.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An excited atom lost an electron from the atom to its surroundings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Doppler effect is sensitive only to motion along the line of sight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The radiation emitted from a star has a maximum intensity at a wavelength of 500 nm. What is the temperature of this star
A)6,000 K
B)5,000 K
C)\(1.5 × 10^9\) K
D)500 K
E)10,000 K
Q5) The flow of energy is always from hot to cold and is called ___________.
Q6) Blue stars emit most of their energy at shorter wavelengths than red stars.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ is to the Sun as ____________ is to Earth.
A)Asteroseismology, geology
B)Helioseismology, seismology
C)Seismology, volcanology
D)Astrology, astrobiology
Q2) Energy flows from hot to cold and thus from the core to the surface of the Sun.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Solar flares have no known effect on Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nuclear reactors use nuclear _____________ to generate energy whereas the Sun uses nuclear ____________ to generate energy.
Q5) Lithium has less binding energy than _____________, thus the neutrons and protons are easier to unbind from the nucleus.
A)helium
B)nitrogen
C)carbon
D)all of the other choices
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Chapter 8: The Family of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best sample of the true numbers of the different types of stars consists of
A)stars that appear brightest in the sky to an observer on Earth.
B)all of the stars within our solar system.
C)all the stars within a given distance from Earth.
Q2) Polaris is 10 times larger than Capella A and both are the same color. How much brighter or dimmer is Polaris to Capella
A)10× brighter
B)10× dimmer
C)100× brighter
D)100× dimmer
Q3) ________ dwarfs are M dwarfs on the main sequence whereas _________ dwarfs are hot, dim, and not on the main sequence.
Q4) Why do molecular bands only occur in the spectra of the coolest stars
Q5) If a star is twice as hot as the Sun and only half the Sun's diameter, it will be less luminous than the Sun.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What measurements are needed to determine the orbital motion of a spectroscopic binary star
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Formation and Structure of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a method of energy transport
A)convection
B)radiation
C)conduction
D)All of the other choices are correct.
Q2) How long a star can stay on the main sequence depends upon its size.
A)True
B)False
Q3) While on the main sequence a star's primary energy source comes from
A)nuclear fusion.
B)nuclear fission.
C)gravitational potential energy.
D)magnetic fields.
Q4) The thermal motions of the atoms in a gas cloud can make it collapse to form a protostar.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why are reflection nebulae blue in color
Q6) Most stars generate their energy by the thermonuclear fusion of ____________________ to form ____________________.
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Chapter 10: The Deaths of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ____________________ supernova is caused by the collapse of a massive star that has lost its outer envelope of hydrogen.
Q2) A Type Ia supernova is believed to occur when
A)the core of a massive star collapses.
B)hydrogen detonation occurs.
C)a white dwarf exceeds the Chandrasekhar limit.
D)the cores of massive stars collapse.
E)neutrinos in a massive star become degenerate and form a shock wave that explodes the star.
Q3) The Crab nebula is
A)a planetary nebula.
B)a Bok globule.
C)an open cluster.
D)an absorption nebula.
E)a supernova remnant.
Q4) What properties of degenerate matter are important to the structure of stars Why
Q5) The helium core flash is a very short time event.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If the Sun and stars are supported by gas pressure, what supports a white dwarf
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Neutron Stars and Black Holes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A star on the main sequence has 7 solar masses. The star will evolve into a ____________ and its core will be supported by ______________.
A)white dwarf, electron degeneracy pressure
B)neutron star, neutron degeneracy pressure
C)black hole, no pressure (i.e., it will not be supported)
D)white dwarf, neutron star, or black hole; electron degeneracy, neutron degeneracy, and no pressure, respectively.
Q2) What happens when a core's density exceeds that which electron degeneracy pressure can support
A)The core collapses to a black hole.
B)The core collapses to a neutron star.
C)The core collapses to a white dwarf.
D)The core collapses to a neutron star or a black hole.
Q3) The slowing of clocks in strongly curved space time is known as
A)gravitational radiation.
B)time dilation.
C)gravitational curvature.
D)gravitational redshift.
E)hyperspace drag.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Milky Way Galaxy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Astronomers before Shapely underestimated the size of the Milky Way galaxy because they lacked telescopes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What evidence do we have that the center of our galaxy contains magnetic fields
Q3) Younger stars have more heavy elements because
A)old stars destroy heavy elements as they age.
B)young stars burn their nuclear fuels faster.
C)the heavy elements were made in previous generations of stars.
D)heavy elements haven't had time to settle to the core of these younger stars.
E)All of the other choices are correct.
Q4) You observe a variable star and find its period to be about 6 days and its MV to be -3.4. Which object best describes the system or type of system you are observing using the above graph
A)RR Lyrae
B)Type II Cepheids
C)Type I Cepheids
D)Delta Cephei
Q5) ____________________ are groups of 100,000 to 1,000,000 population II stars firmly bound by gravity.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Galaxies: Normal and Active
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151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The galaxy shown above in visual wavelengths is an example of a/an _________-type.
A)lenticular (e.g., S0)
B)spiral
C)elliptical
D)irregular
Q2) What observational evidence do we have that quasars are the centers of very distant galaxies
Q3) Seyfert galaxies are spiral galaxies with active cores.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When two galaxies collide, they pass through each other and their stars almost never collide.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why should we expect quasars to be small How small should we expect them to be
Q6) Quasar redshifts are usually larger than the redshifts of the visible galaxies.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Merging of galaxies is known as ____________.
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Chapter 14: Modern Cosmology
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inflationary theory of the Universe may explain why the background radiation is so isotropic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cosmological principle states that the Universe is I.expanding.
II.accelerating.
III.homogeneous
IV.isotropic.
A)I and II
B)III and IV
C)I and III
D)II and IV
E)I, II, III, and IV
Q3) The Hubble time is
A)the time it takes a galaxy moving at 1000 km/s to move 1 Mpc.
B)the time it takes the galaxy to double its size.
C)the time since recombination occurred.
D)the time remaining before the Universe stops expanding and begins to contract.
E)an estimate of the age of the Universe based on the Hubble constant.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All planets in the solar system orbit counterclockwise as seen from the north.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Comets are rocky bodies that orbit the Sun beyond the orbit of Neptune.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Radiation pressure: light streaming from the Sun's photosphere pushed against the particles of the solar nebula. Large bits of matter like planetesimals and planets were not affected, but low-mass specks of dust and individual atoms and molecules were pushed outward and eventually driven from the system.
Q4) The ___________ hypothesis of the formation of the solar system uses sudden events that drastically alter the form of the early solar system.
Q5) How does the solar nebula theory explain the present densities and chemical compositions of the planets
Q6) Outside the ice line the temperatures are too warm for ices to condense.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Sweeping up of space debris by the planets.
Q8) Jovian worlds that orbit close to their host stars are called ____________.
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Chapter 16: Earth and Moon: Bases for Comparative Planetology
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the Moon, the maria have fewer craters than the highlands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ____________________ of Earth is composed of rocks at high density that behave as a plastic.
Q3) ____________________ is responsible for absorbing ultraviolet radiation in Earth's upper atmosphere.
Q4) Earth's magnetic field has reversed itself.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is carbon dioxide important in maintaining a greenhouse effect
Q6) ____________________ are great lava flows covering 17% of the lunar surface.
Q7) Ozone is a pollutant of city air caused by auto emissions. Therefore ozone is bad for Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q8) The central part of Earth's core is solid. A)True
B)False Page 18
Q9) What property do greenhouse gases have that allow them to warm a planet
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Chapter 17: Mercury, Venus, and Mars
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ is a very long and deep canyon on Mars.
A)Valles Marineris
B)Ishtar Terra
C)Tharsis Bulge
D)Lobate Scarp
E)Phobos
Q2) The atmosphere of Mars primarily consists of ____________________.
Q3) Which terrestrial planet has the highest-pressure (thickest) atmosphere
A)Mercury
B)Venus
C)Earth
D)Mars
Q4) The moons of Mars are believed to be
A)composed primarily of iron and nickel.
B)composed primarily of frozen gases of water and carbon dioxide.
C)orbiting Mars in a direction opposite to the direction that Mars rotates.
D)formed from material ejected from Olympus Mons and other large volcanoes on Mars.
E)captured asteroids.
Q5) Why did the atmosphere of Venus develop differently from that of Earth
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Chapter 18: The Outer Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it believed that the rings of Saturn could not have formed just as the planet itself formed
A)Over time the solar wind should have blown away the particles in the rings.
B)The particles in the rings should fall into the planet in a short period of time.
C)The rings are made of ice particles which would have been vaporized by the heat released as Saturn formed.
D)The outer planets do not have enough mass to hold on to the rings.
Q2) Both Jupiter and Saturn
A)have liquid metallic hydrogen in their interiors.
B)have rings.
C)emit more energy than they absorb from the Sun.
D)have belt and zone circulation.
E)All of the other choices are correct.
Q3) The rings around Uranus and Neptune are confined by shepherd satellites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The rings of Uranus were discovered by the Voyager 2 spacecraft.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Meteorites, Asteroids, and Comets
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________ is a disk-shaped cloud of icy bodies believed to extend from about 40 AU (the orbit of Pluto) out to 100 AU. It is believed that most short-period comets originate from this region.
A)Oort cloud
B)Widmanstätten cloud
C)Apollo-Amor
D)Kirkwood region
E)Kuiper belt
Q2) One currently accepted theory suggests that the bodies in the Oort cloud formed A)near the present orbits of the terrestrial planets and were then ejected by them. B)near the present orbits of the Jovian planets and were then ejected by them. C)right there in the Oort cloud very far from the Sun.
Q3) Carbonaceous chondrites have been heated to high temperature at least once since they formed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Iron meteorites are rare to observe as meteoroids near Earth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Astrobiology: Life on Other Worlds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Life emerged from the oceans 400 million years ago.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genetic information is stored in DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cells are tiny bags of carbon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first complex multicellular life forms with appendages, etc., appeared on Earth about 0.5 billion years ago during the
A)Jurassic Period.
B)Mississippian Period.
C)Cambrian Period.
D)Precambrian Period.
E)Neolithic Period.
Q5) The Miller experiment succeeded in creating ____________.
Q6) Describe three things that limit travel between stars.
Q7) The unit of heredity is the ____________.
Q8) ____________ are composed of bacterial mats and sediment layers.
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