Corrections and Offender Rehabilitation Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Corrections and Offender Rehabilitation explores the theories, policies, and practices surrounding the correctional system and its impact on offenders. The course examines the history and evolution of corrections, including incarceration, probation, parole, and community-based alternatives. Key topics include rehabilitation models, treatment programs, risk assessment, reintegration, and the challenges faced by both offenders and correctional professionals. Students will analyze the effectiveness of various correctional strategies, the role of restorative justice, and contemporary issues such as overcrowding, recidivism, and the balance between public safety and offender rights. Through case studies and current research, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of how correctional systems aim to promote positive change and reduce criminal behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Behavior A Psychological Approach 10th Edition by Curtis R. Bartol
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Criminal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The narrow range of offenses that do not require criminal intent are called:
A) non-index crimes.
B) unintentional offenses.
C) Part II crimes.
D) status offenses.
E) strict liability offenses.
Answer: A
Q2) Most antisocial behaviors go undetected by law enforcement.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Psychological criminology recently shifted its focus to a more _____ and _____ approach to the study of criminal behavior.
A) forensic; scientific
B) trait-focused; instrumental
C) personality; biological
D) cognitive; developmental
E) sociological; psychiatric
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Developmental Risk Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several studies have found a strong association between animal cruelty and violent behavior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which statement is not true about language impairment and antisocial behavior?
A) It teaches children to think outside the box and problem-solve in socially appropriate ways.
B) It increases frustration levels in children who have difficulty expressing themselves.
C) It can lead to peer rejection and poor academic performance.
D) It can be a strong predictor of adult later criminal behavior.
E) It is evident in the background of a high percentage of children diagnosed with conduct disorders.
Answer: B
Q3) All criminal behavior has its origins in childhood.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Biological Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurological dysfunction due to faulty brain development is strongly linked to pathological violence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Most children display aggression in preschool and kindergarten but reduce these behaviors during early school years primarily due to:
A) socialization.
B) strict parental discipline.
C) developmental maturity.
D) fear.
E) psychological maturity.
Answer: A
Q3) Compare and contrast behavior and molecular genetics.
Answer: NOT ANSWERED
Q4) Lead exposure and maternal malnutrition are examples of environmental hazards. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Learning and
Situational Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the process of operant conditioning and give an example of how criminal behavior is acquired.
Q2) Under the frustration-induced theory of criminality, individuals who commit larceny during riots are motivated by revenge.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to Julian Rotter, whether a particular pattern of behavior will occur depends on:
A) operant conditioning.
B) classical conditioning.
C) our ability to control biological drives.
D) biological programming.
E) our expectancies and how much we value the outcome.
Q4) Increasing desired behavior by distributing rewards is:
A) discipline.
B) negative reinforcement.
C) punishment.
D) extinction.
E) positive reinforcement.
Q5) Describe Zimbardo's prison experimen
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Chapter 5: Human Aggression and Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following behaviors represents an example of passive-aggressive behavior?
A) Slapping someone
B) Refusing to speak to someone
C) Shouting at someone
D) Shooting someone
E) Robbing someone
Q2) During early stages of frustration or general arousal, cognitive processes appear to have little influence beyond the immediate appraisal that the situation is aversive. This description outlines a stage of what model of aggression and violence?
A) Cognitive expectancy theory
B) The neo-frustration-aggression model
C) The cognitive neoassociation model
D) The weapons effect model
E) The cognitive scripts model
Q3) Trayvon Martin and George Zimmerman are two high-profile victims of hostile aggression.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Juvenile Delinquency
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the five major categories of unlawful acts committed by delinquents?
A) Drug offenses
B) Unlawful acts against property
C) Sexual offenses
D) Status offenses
E) Offenses against the public order
Q2) Which status offense has substantially increased in recent years?
A) Running away.
B) Incorrigibility.
C) Underage drinking.
D) Truancy.
E) Cocaine use.
Q3) Psychological definitions of delinquency usually include:
A) conduct disorder and antisocial behavior.
B) habitual behavior and violent behavior.
C) cruelty to animals and fire setting.
D) status offenses and antisocial behavior.
E)antisocial personality disorder and habitual misbehavior.
Q4) Summarize the five characteristics of successful treatment programs.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Criminal Psychopathy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research indicates that the recidivism rate associated with psychopaths is very high.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Quay has said that psychopaths "know the words but not the music" in reference to their lack of real emotion. This is also known as:
A) tone deafness.
B) emotional vacuity.
C) pathological emotional deficiency.
D) semantic aphasia.
E) apraxia.
Q3) Which of the following behaviors is not characteristic of the psychopath?
A) Superficial charm
B) Extreme self-centeredness
C) Worry and anxiety about the future
D) Irresponsibility
E) Impulsivity
Q4) Suicidality is a common characteristic of older adult psychopaths.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Crime and Mental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) IST stands for:
A) invasive sexual treatment.
B) intrusive sexual treatment.
C) incompetent to stand trial.
D) incentive system targets.
E) intensive schizophrenic treatment.
Q2) How has the media affected public perception of mental disorder and violence? Include information on the history and prevalence of mental disorder and violence.
Q3) In the Brawner Rule, the "caveat paragraph" intends to exclude _____ from using the insanity defense.
A) defendants under the influence of alcohol at the time of the offense
B) psychopaths
C) defendants under the influence of drugs at the time of the offense
D) defendants who refuse to undergo psychiatric evaluation
E) developmentally disabled
Q4) Insanity is a legal term that refers to a defendant's state of mind at the time of the crime.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Homicide, Assault, and Family Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phenomenon that occurs when the mere presence of a gun or other weapon stimulates violence is called:
A) confirmation bias.
B) stimulus provocation.
C) weapons effect.
D) weapons focus.
E) iatrogenic effect.
Q2) Research on family violence indicates:
A) participants in family violence were themselves childhood victims of family violence.
B) no clear or consistent evidence that individuals who violently attack family members were themselves childhood victims of family violence.
C) spouse batterers have a history of being physically and sexually abused as children.
D) none of the above.
E) all of the above.
Q3) Incidence refers to the total number of cases per year.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Multiple Murder, School, and Workplace
Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The weapon of choice in product tampering is:
A) razor blades.
B) metal.
C) glass.
D) cyanide.
E) syringes.
Q2) The term reconstructive psychological evaluation is synonymous with:
A) criminal profiling.
B) identity assessment.
C) psychological autopsy.
D) postmortem profiling.
E) none of the above.
Q3) Research by Fox and Levin found that most mass killings are motivated by: A) profit.
B) fear.
C) power.
D) anger.
E) revenge.
Q4) Discuss the differences in motive, victim selection and method of killing between male and female serial killers.
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Chapter 11: Psychology of Terrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not included in Marsella's (2004) definition of terrorism?
A) It is a recent phenomenon.
B) It involves the use of force or violence.
C) It is performed by individuals or groups.
D) Its intention is to instill fear.
E) It is used as a means of coercing individuals or groups to change social positions.
Q2) Which process, identified by Ervin Staub, occurs when a group or culture is selected by another group or culture as a scapegoat or an ideological enemy?
A) Relative deprivation
B) Targeted selection
C) Targeted scapegoating
D) Cultural deprivation
E) Cultural devaluation
Q3) Lone wolf terrorists are more likely to be mentally disturbed than other terrorists.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Sexual Assault
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a provision of the Adam Walsh Child Protection Act?
A) Establishment of a national database system for reporting by states
B) Increased penalties for sex trafficking of children
C) Tier 3 offenders must update their location every three months for the rest of their lives.
D) Tier 1 and Tier 2 must update their location every three months for 3 years.
E) Failure to register and update whereabouts is a federal felony.
Q2) Most rapists are between 35-45 years old.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many mental health clinicians do not consider sex offenders to be clinically mentally disordered.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What does research tell us about resistance and rape.
Q5) Contrast the Massachusetts Treatment Center's original classification of rapists with its most recently revised version.
Q6) How did Groth classify child molesters? Describe all of his classifications.
Q7) Explain the Knight and Knight-Sims three-path model.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sexual Assault of Children and Youth and Other
Sexual Offenses
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Q1) Clinical studies have found that _____ may have been an integral part in the development of both normal and deviant sexual behavior.
A) an embarrassing early sexual experience
B) masturbatory conditioning
C) adequate communication skills with members of the opposite sex
D) poor relationship with parent of the opposite sex
E) sexual fantasy
Q2) While fetishism is not itself a criminal offense, the desire for fetishes often leads to:
A) rape.
B) voyeurism.
C) burglary.
D) robbery.
E) homicide.
Q3) The term pedophilia is derived from the:
A) Spanish word for children.
B) Latin word for love of feet.
C) Greek word for child lover.
D) French word for paraphilia.
E) Italian word for abhorrent behavior.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Property and Public Order Crime
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Sample Questions
Q1) The irresistible impulse to steal unneeded objects is referred to as kleptomania.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain why children in foster care may be easy targets for identity theft.
Q3) What is the essential difference between occupational crime and corporate crime?
A) Occupational crime involves large sums of money; whereas corporate crime involves smaller amounts of money.
B) In occupational crime, the individual benefits; whereas in corporate crime, the corporation benefits from the crime.
C) Corporate crime is illegal, occupational crime is legal.
D) The perpetrator of corporate crime almost always is wealthy, which is not so in occupational crime.
E) All of the above.
Q4) Burglaries are more likely to occur in January and February, after the holidays.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe two reasons that the crimes in this Chapter differ from crimes mentioned in previous Chapters of the text.
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Chapter 15: Violent Economic Crime and Crimes of Initimidation
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Q1) It is generally acknowledged that approximately ______ percent of the fires set by juveniles are reported.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30
E) 60
Q2) Describe the six primary motives for arson. What additional category was suggested by Douglas et al.?
Q3) A robbery in which the main weapon used is one's own body rather than guns, knives, or other weapons is called _____ robbery.
A) street
B) strong-arm
C) assault robbery
D) tertiary
E) kinesthetic
Q4) Who was George Metesky? What was he responsible for? What does he have in common with Theodore Kaczynski?
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Q5) Describe the differences between instrumental and expressive hostage taking.
Chapter 16: Substance Abuse, Alcohol, and Crime
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, heavy drug users:
A) are polydrug users.
B) are not involved in criminal activity.
C) are usually women.
D) do not use alcohol.
E) become drug sellers.
Q2) A condition where persistent use of a drug significantly diminishes the effects of a drug. This condition is called:
A) dependence.
B) tolerance.
C) habituation.
D) accommodation.
E) addiction.
Q3) The Arrestees Drug Abuse Monitoring Program (ADAM) collects data through:
A) urinalysis of arrestees and self-report data.
B) autopsies.
C) local and federal police reports.
D) the Federal Bureau of Prisons.
E) prisons and treatment centers.
Q4) Discuss the relationship between alcohol and crime.
Page 18
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