Contract Law for Business Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Contract Law for Business explores the foundational principles and practical applications of contract law within a commercial context. This course examines the essential elements required for the formation of legally binding agreements, including offer, acceptance, consideration, and intention. Students will analyze common issues encountered in business contracts such as capacity, legality, breach of contract, remedies, and the interpretation of contract terms. Through real-world case studies and practical exercises, learners will develop the knowledge and skills needed to draft, analyze, and manage contracts effectively, equipping them to navigate legal risks and make informed business decisions.
Recommended Textbook
Business Law 10th Australian Edition by Andy Gibson
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31 Chapters
1386 Verified Questions
1386 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Legal Foundations
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Equity law:
A)provides a wider range of remedies than the common law.
B)complements the common law.
C)is based upon the concept of fairness.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) The Constitution gives the Federal Parliament absolute power to make laws to govern Australia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The law of Equity applies to all civil disputes.
B)The law of Equity only applies to criminal matters.
C)The law of Equity does not apply to all criminal matters.
D)The law of Equity does not apply to all civil disputes.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Legal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Privy Council reviews decisions appealed from the Supreme Court of Victoria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The role of the Jury is to decide matters of fact.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) The Jury decides questions of law while the Judge decides all questions of fact.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What is the monetary limit in the Queensland District Court in civil matters?
A)$750,000
B)$250,000
C)$50,000
D)$100,000
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: How Law Is Made: Precedentstatute Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maxim noscitur a sociis refers to the rule used to find a viable meaning for a broad general word.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following statements best reflects the translation of the term 'obiter dictum'?
A)'Let the decision stand.'
B)'A saying by the way.'
C)'The reason for deciding.'
D)'A matter which has been adjudicated upon.'
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following best describes a 'persuasive' precedent?
A)That part of a court's decision which is not binding upon other courts.
B)A previous decision of another court which is not binding but which can influence the court's decision.
C)A previous decision of another court higher within the same court hierarchy.
D)That part of a court's decision which is binding upon other courts.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Civil Liability: the Law of Torts and Negligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the defence of contributory negligence applies,civil liability legislation allows a court to reduce the amount of compensation by up to:
A)10%.
B)50%.
C)100%.
D)75%.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a factor a court will take into account when assessing the relevant standard of duty?
A)The seriousness of the consequences if an injury occurs.
B)The probability of the risk of injury.
C)The level of remorse expressed by the defendant.
D)The opportunities for,and cost of,eliminating the risk.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about the difference between tort law and criminal law?
A)An action in tort is taken by the victim,criminal action is taken by the state.
B)Tort law is private,criminal law is public law.
C)Tort law is a state matter,criminal law is a federal matter.
D)Tort law compensates,criminal law punishes.
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6
Chapter 5: Applications of Negligence to Business
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 'occupier' of a premises is best described as:
A)the person who has occupation or control of the premises.
B)the person who owns the premises.
C)the person who has entire control over the premises.
D)the person in possession of the premises.
Q2) A 'non-delegable' duty of care is:
A)less onerous than an ordinary duty of care.
B)as onerous as an ordinary duty of care.
C)an absolute duty to take reasonable care.
D)more onerous than an ordinary duty of care.
Q3) Describe the non-delegable duty of care concept.
Q4) What is meant by the term 'vicarious liability'?
Q5) It is easier to take action against a manufacturer of a defective product under consumer protection legislation than under the common law because:
A)it is quicker and cheaper.
B)there is no need to prove fault.
C)statute law takes precedence over the common law.
D)the manufacturer is strictly liable.
Q6) What is occupier's liability?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Introduction to Contracts
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 'happy hour' offering half price drinks between 6:00 and 7:00 every Friday is an example of a(n):
A)bilateral contract.
B)express contract.
C)implied contract.
D)unilateral contract.
Q2) E-contracts are regulated by:
A)the common law.
B)the Electronic Transactions Acts.
C)the Australian Consumer Law.
D)all of the above.
Q3) British and Australian courts over the centuries have been willing to extend and modify the rules of contract law to apply them to new technologies such as the telephone and facsimile.Why do you think that the application of contract law to online transactions required the passing of specific Electronic Transactions legislation?
Q4) A valid contract is one which can be enforced by both parties.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How is a quasi-contract formed?
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Chapter 7: Agreement Between the Parties
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33 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In relation to contract law an invitation to treat is best described as:
A)an offer to accept an offer.
B)an offer.
C)an offer to offer an offer.
D)an offer to consider offers.
Q2) If an offer is made by facsimile and no method of acceptance is specified by the offeror,which of the following methods of acceptance would NOT be effective?
A)Email.
B)Telephone.
C)Facsimile.
D)Post.
Q3) According to the postal rule:
A)an acceptance will only be effective if it is sent by post.
B)revocation of an offer is effective as soon as it is posted.
C)offer and acceptance are only effective when received.
D)an acceptance will be effective if it is sent by post or a faster method.
Q4) If an offer and acceptance cannot be identified,there can never be a contract.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the scenarios in which an offer may be terminated?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Intention to Create Legal Relations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which type of agreement is the onus on the defendant to show that legal relations were not intended?
A)Domestic agreements.
B)Social agreements.
C)Commercial agreements.
D)Voluntary agreements.
Q2) In which of the following cases did the court decide that an agreement to purchase two restaurants was contractually binding?
A)Ermogenous v Greek Orthodox Community of SA Inc [2002] HCA 8.
B)Jones v.Vernon's Pools Ltd [1938] 2 All ER 626.
C)Masters v Cameron [1954] HCA 72.
D)Helmos Enterprises Pty Ltd v Jaylor Pty Ltd [2005] NSWCA 235.
Q3) It is assumed that a contract of employment is intended between volunteers and charitable organisations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the courts' rationale for presuming that agreements made between parties in a commercial context are intended to be legally binding? Is this a fair presumption?
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Consideration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best example of executed consideration?
A)A pays B $10.00 today in return for B giving A a book today.
B)A promises to pay B $10.00 tomorrow in return for B giving A a book tomorrow.
C)A promises to pay B $10.00 tomorrow in return for B giving A a book yesterday.
D)All of the above.
Q2) Estoppel is based on an assumption of fact or law.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The claim for higher wages was successful in Hartley v Ponsonby (1871)119 ER 1471 because:
A)there was a commercial benefit to the defendant.
B)performance went beyond what was originally promised.
C)the promisor derived an additional benefit.
D)completion as originally promised saved the defendant additional cost.
Q4) Estoppel was rejected Easts Van Villages v Minister Administering the National Parks and Wildlife [2001] NSWSC 559 because:
A)The plaintiff had not suffered any detriment.
B)The defendant's statement was not unambiguous.
C)Estoppel was not rejected.
D)The parties had equal bargaining power.
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Chapter 10: Capacity of the Parties
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Sample Questions
Q1) A contract with a minor in which the minor has a right to repudiate is called:
A)a good contract.
B)a void contract.
C)a valid contract.
D)a voidable contract.
Q2) Why was the plaintiff unsuccessful in obtaining payment in Bojczuk v Gregorcewicz [1961] SASR 128?
A)A loan is a commercial transaction.
B)The loan was a benefit but not a necessary.
C)The loan was a necessary.
D)The defendant already had a good job.
Q3) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered a 'necessary' for a 17-year-old unemployed university student?
A)A meal at a university refectory.
B)A 6-month lease of a flat near the university.
C)A business shirt from a department store.
D)A laptop computer.
Q4) Do all persons,natural and legal,have full contractual capacity to enter into contracts?
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Chapter 11: Genuine Consent
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Sample Questions
Q1) A contract can be rendered void solely by a mistake of law.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following situations appears to involve 'unconscionability'?
A)A woman gave all of her property to the religious order of which she was a member.
B)A man induced another to sign a contract by telling him that if he did not,he would report his son to the police for committing a criminal offence.
C)A property developer promised their accountant a share in a business venture in return for a reduction in their bill.
D)An elderly Italian couple sign a mortgage in favour of a bank guaranteeing their son's debts;the bank manager knows the couple are unaware of the son's financial difficulties.
Q3) Which of the following statements is the best description of 'unconscionability'?
A)The improper use of fraudulent information.
B)The improper use of violence or of threats of violence to induce a contract.
C)The improper use of a position of influence or power to induce a contract.
D)The improper use of a superior bargaining position to induce a contract.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Is the Contract Legal
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A term in a contract that attempts to exclude the implied terms of the Australian Consumer Law is void and unenforceable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the factors that determine whether a restraint of trade is reasonable.
Q3) In which of the following cases did the court decide that the contract was valid but illegal as performed?
A)St John Shipping Corporation v Joseph Rank Ltd [1957] 1 QB 267.
B)Pham v.Doan [2005] NSWSC 201.
C)Anderson Ltd v Daniel [1924] 1 KB 138.
D)Yango Pastoral Company Pty Ltd v First Chicago Australia Ltd [1978] HCA 42.
Q4) Why were the contracts enforced by the court in the case of: Yango Pastoral Company Pty Ltd v First Chicago Australia Ltd [1978] HCA 42?
A)The prohibition was in the public interest.
B)The prohibition related to the operation of the business rather than formation of the contract.
C)The plaintiffs were responsible for the breach.
D)The illegal behaviour was only incidental to performance of the contract.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Terms of the Contract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Australian Consumer Law creates guarantees that change depending on the type of manufacturer warranty.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why was the dry cleaning company held to be liable in Curtis v Chemical Cleaning & Dyeing Co [1951] 1 KB 805?
A)Because the contract so provided.
B)Because the exemption clause in the contract was illegal.
C)Because exemption clauses are not enforceable.
D)Because the purpose of the exemption clause in the contract was misrepresented by the shop assistant.
Q3) Why was the plaintiff bound by the exclusion clause in the case of: L'Estrange v Graucob Ltd [1934] 2 KB 394?
A)Because the clause applied to the damage that occurred.
B)Because the clause was explained to them.
C)Because the clause was contained in a written document signed by the plaintiff.
D)Because of previous dealings between the parties.
Q4) Explain how the courts decide between a mere representation and a term.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Rights and Liabilities of the Parties,discharge and Remedies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is the best description of discharge by novation?
A)One party leads the other to reasonably believe that strict performance will not be insisted upon.
B)A new agreement is substituted for the old by the parties.
C)Both parties abandon their original agreement while it is still executory.
D)A party who has already performed their obligation agrees to relieve the other party from performing their obligation in return for their doing something different.
Q2) Which of the following is the best description of 'privity of contract'?
A)A third party is entitled to bring an action to enforce a contract to which they are not a party if they have the consent of one of the parties to do so.
B)The parties to the contract are under an obligation not to disclose the details of the contract to third parties.
C)Only the persons who are parties to the contract can acquire rights and incur liabilities under it.
D)The parties to the contract are only obliged to comply with the terms of the agreement and are not obliged to do any more than this.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Remedies in Contract
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Sample Questions
Q1) To recover special damages under the rule in Hadley v Baxendale (1854)9 Ex 341 the plaintiff must make known to the other party the special circumstances at the time the contract is entered into.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In Commonwealth of Australia v Amann Aviation Pty Ltd (1991)104 ALR 1,the court ordered the Commonwealth to:
A)pay exemplary damages.
B)mitigate the loss suffered by Amman.
C)pay damages for expectation and reliance losses.
D)perform the contract.
Q3) Which of the following statements is the best description of 'liquidated' damages?
A)An amount not fixed in the contract and left for the court to determine.
B)An amount awarded to compensate the innocent party for the loss suffered as a result of the breach of contract.
C)An amount based upon a genuine pre-estimate of actual loss flowing from the breach of contract.
D)An amount awarded to punish the party in breach of the contract.
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Chapter 16: Statutory Consumer Guarantees and the Australian Consumer Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a vendor sells goods by description to a consumer,the vendor impliedly guarantees that the goods will correspond with the description given.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a consumer guarantee in relation to the supply of services to a consumer?
A)The services will be supplied within a reasonable time.
B)The services will be of acceptable quality.
C)The services will be rendered with due care and skill.
D)The services will be reasonably fit for any disclosed purpose for which they are supplied.
Q3) How does a sale by sample differ from a sale by description?
Q4) Which of the following services are NOT covered by the consumer guarantees in the Australian Consumer Law?
A)Telecommunications.
B)Electricity.
C)Gas.
D)All of the above.
Q5) Under the Australian Consumer Law,who is a consumer?
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Chapter 17: General and Specific Consumer Protections
Under the Acl
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Sample Questions
Q1) The statutory prohibition of unconscionable conduct in s 21 of the Australian Consumer Law replaces the common law.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You have booked a holiday home through Accommodation Noosa Pty Ltd twelve months in advance.However,when you arrive at the Accommodation Noosa office to pick up the key,you are told that there has been an unfortunate double booking error,and the holiday home you had booked is no longer available.Accommodation Noosa offers you an alternative holiday home,but it is not as appealing as your original choice.Can you use s 18 of the Australian Consumer Law to bring an action against Accommodation Noosa?
Q3) Section 29(1)of the Australian Consumer Law prohibits false representations regarding services relating to:
A)the price of the service.
B)the standard,quality,value or grade of the service.
C)the buyer's need for the service.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Explain the function of the Australian Consumer Law.
Q5) What is an unfair contract under s 23 of the Australian Consumer Law?
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Chapter 19: Introduction to Companies and Incorporated
Associations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The letters 'Ltd' after the name of a company is a warning to creditors that:
A)the liability of shareholders for the debts of the company is limited.
B)the company is limited by guarantee.
C)the shareholders have unlimited liability for the debts of the company.
D)the shareholders have no liability for the debts of the company.
Q2) What is the term for the stated proportions into which the capital of a company is divided?
A)A share.
B)An interest.
C)An allotment.
D)An asset.
Q3) Which of the following types of company are able to invite the public to invest in shares?
A)Large proprietary companies.
B)Unlisted and listed public companies.
C)Small proprietary companies.
D)All of the above.
Q4) Limited liability is a key advantage of incorporation.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 18: Agency
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agency is a contractual relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The decision in Australia and New Zealand Bank Ltd v Ateliers de Constructions [1967] 1 AC 86 was that the bank had authority to negotiate the cheques payable to Ateliers into the agent's account.This is an example of:
A)ostensible authority.
B)express actual authority.
C)implied actual authority.
D)apparent authority.
Q3) A contract must exist between the agent and the third party as well as the agent and the principal for agency law to apply.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Authority that is inferred from the conduct of the parties is an example of: A)implied actual authority.
B)express actual authority.
C)retrospective actual authority.
D)apparent or ostensible authority.
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Chapter 20: Partnerships
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Sample Questions
Q1) Partnerships are regulated by:
A)the common law.
B)equity.
C)the Partnership Act of the relevant state or territory.
D)all of the above.
Q2) A written partnership agreement must conform to the requirements of the Partnership Act of the relevant state or territory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A partnership is automatically dissolved if one of the partners dies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The existence of a partnership is established solely by the sharing of profits and losses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define a joint venture and discuss how it differs from a partnership.
Q6) Expulsion of a partner has the same effect as dissolution of a partnership.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Choosing a Business Entity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about a sole trader is NOT true?
A)A sole trader may have difficulty in raising business capital.
B)The sole trader must generally consult with customers,creditors and employees in deciding what the business will and will not do.
C)Anyone with contractual capacity can be a sole trader.
D)The liability of a sole trader is unlimited and personal.
Q2) What is the purpose of registering a business name?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the creation of a trust?
A)A trustee.
B)A beneficiary.
C)A trust deed.
D)Trust property.
Q4) Under an express trust,the beneficiary is able to exercise discretion as to who should benefit and how much they should get.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A trustee is a person who benefits under the trust.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Other Business-Related Torts
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tort of intimidation is committed when the defendant makes threats of an unlawful act to the plaintiff so that the plaintiff acts to their own loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A sports club can be held vicariously liable for a player's battery arising from a deliberate breach of the rules.
A)True B)False
Q3) Describe the differences between absolute privilege and qualified privilege in an action in defamation.
Q4) Breach of statutory duty is a tort of strict liability.
A)True
B)False
Q5) For the tort of passing off to apply,the parties must both be in the same business. A)True B)False
Q6) Why must a defamatory statement be published for there to be a cause of action for defamation?
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Chapter 23: Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Make a list of the differences between the regulation of general insurance and the regulation of life insurance.
Q2) An insurance broker is:
A)an employee of an insurance company.
B)an employee of the insured.
C)an agent of an insurance company.
D)an independent adviser.
Q3) The consideration in a contract of insurance is called the premium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the dynamics that exist between insurance and tort law.
Q5) Life insurance policies are treated as ongoing contracts and therefore not subject to renewal.
A)True
B)False
Q6) All contracts of insurance are arranged through intermediaries.
A)True
B)False
Q7) List the duties of an insurance agent or insurance broker.
Q8) Explain the purpose of a cover note.
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Chapter 24: Sale of Goodsbusiness to Business
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Q1) If the seller fails to deliver the goods,the buyer's only remedy will be damages for non-delivery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are unascertained goods?
Q3) Which of the following is a contract for the sale of goods?
A)The supply of a computer system including hardware and software,installation of the equipment,training of staff and after sales service.
B)A visit to the dentist to get a filling.
C)Servicing a motor vehicle including installing new spark plugs,brake fluid and oil.
D)Painting a person's portrait.
Q4) An unpaid seller has rights against the goods and against the buyer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) It is important to know when property passes because risk of loss of damage is with the owner.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Property and Mortgages
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Q1) If a residence is partly used for business purposes,the residential tenancies legislation will cease to apply.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an exception to indefeasibility of title?
A)A tenant under a lease for less than 3 years.
B)The rights of a beneficiary under a trust.
C)A person who has adverse possession of the land.
D)An owner who purchased the land from a previous owner who obtained title by fraud.
Q3) Which of the following is the best description of native title as determined in the Mabo Case?
A)A new form of common law title.
B)A right to apply to the Native Title Tribunal for a determination of native title.
C)A grant of land made under the Native Title Act 1993 (Cth).
D)A recognition of pre-existing property rights.
Q4) Describe the three main types of property.
Q5) To what extent has the High Court's decision in the Mabo Case been modified by subsequent legislation?
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Chapter 26: Intellectual Property
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best definition of a 'patent'?
A)The overall appearance,resulting from the visual features of an object of manufacture.
B)A sign used to distinguish goods or services provided in the course of a trade from those of another.
C)A manner of manufacture that is useful,novel and involves an inventive step that hasn't been used before in Australia.
D)Artistic works given an industrial application.
Q2) Which of the following statement about design is NOT correct?
A)Designs are used for an industrial purpose.
B)A design must have a visual feature that serves a functional purpose.
C)A 'product' is a thing that is manufactured or hand made.
D)'Design' refers to the overall appearance of a product.
Q3) The owner of a trade mark can protect their rights by:
A)taking action for breach of the Australian Consumer Law.
B)registering it under the Trade Marks Act 1995 (Cth).
C)taking action for the tort of 'passing off'.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Contrast an infringement of a registered trademark with an action in passing off.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Ethics and Business Practice
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the propositions that make up the 'rule of law'?
A)The rights and freedoms of citizens are enforceable in the courts.
B)No person should be subject to a law without their knowledge and consent.
C)No person should be punished except for a breach of the law.
D)All persons are equal before the law.
Q2) Which of the following scenarios best describes Jeremy Bentham's utilitarian philosophy?
A)A company restructure increases profits by casualising the majority of the workforce.
B)A company reduces their workforce in order to increase commission payments to the board of directors.
C)A company restructure results in lower profits but ensures that all employees are retained.
D)A company promoted an employee who exceeded their annual sales target.
Q3) The difference between the letter and the spirit of the law is a moral or ethical question.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the ethical considerations and duties of businesses in today's society?
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Criminal Law in a Business Context
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Q1) Many people within the community perceive white-collar crimes as 'less serious' than other forms of crime.Is this a reasonable perception? Explain your answer.
Q2) What is the difference between an indictable offence and a summary offence?
Q3) In the context of the Australian Consumer Law,which of the following unfair practices will NOT attract a criminal penalty?
A)Bait advertising.
B)Misleading conduct regarding goods or services.
C)False representations as to goods and services.
D)Misleading and deceptive conduct.
Q4) Which of the following statements about criminal procedure is NOT correct?
A)An indictable offence is heard by a judge and jury.
B)Criminal proceedings are commenced either by summons or by the arrest of a person.
C)A summary offence is heard by a magistrate and jury.
D)An indictable offence will first be heard by a magistrate in a committal hearing.
Q5) A person charged with a crime is presumed innocent until proved to be guilty.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Competition Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The agreement in TPC v Email [1980] ATPR 40-172 was held not to be a price fixing agreement because:
A)The two manufacturers were in competition with each other.
B)The parallel pricing was due to a meeting of minds.
C)The parallel pricing was due to market forces.
D)The two manufacturers had different pricing lists.
Q2) An authorisation is a determination that the conduct is not contrary to the Act.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Employers frequently use secondary boycott provisions as a way to resolve industrial conflicts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A secondary boycott results when parties A and B make a concerted effort to pressure third party C not engage in business dealings with party D.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the role and function of Australian Competition and Consumer Commission?
Q6) Explain one of the main functions of the ACCC.
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Chapter 30: Insolvency and Debt Recovery
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Q1) Which of the following circumstances will NOT result in the annulment of a bankruptcy?
A)The acceptance by a meeting of the creditors of a deed of composition or arrangement.
B)An order of the court.
C)The death of the bankrupt.
D)The payment of the bankrupt's debts in full.
Q2) An insolvent is a person who is unable to pay debts as and when they fall due out of the debtor's own funds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a company experiences severe financial difficulties,an administrator:
A)May force it into bankruptcy.
B)May terminate the business.
C)Cannot dispose of part of the company's property.
D)Cannot perform the duties of a corporate officer.
Q4) In what way is a Part IX arrangement a preferable course of action for a person facing bankruptcy?
Q5) What are the three main aims of the Bankruptcy Act 1966 (Cth)?
Q6) What are the ways in which a person can become bankrupt?
Page 32
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Chapter 31: The Work Environment and the Employment Relationship
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a source of regulation of employment law in Australia?
A)The common law.
B)International treaties.
C)State legislation.
D)Federal legislation.
Q2) An employer may dismiss an employee without notice due to:
A)economic conditions.
B)breach of a serious nature.
C)any breach,regardless of its severity.
D)rumours of employee misconduct.
Q3) An independent contractor is defined as an individual who performs a service according to their contract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly explain how equal opportunity in the workplace is an alternative to discrimination and its relationship with the principle of affirmative action.
Q5) What are the aims of Occupational Health and Safety Legislation?
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Q6) Outline the duties of the employer and employee.
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