Contract Law Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Contract Law explores the fundamental principles governing legally enforceable agreements. This course covers the formation, interpretation, and enforcement of contracts, examining key elements such as offer, acceptance, consideration, and intention to create legal relations. Students will analyze issues related to capacity, legality, and the rights and obligations of parties, as well as remedies for breach of contract. Through case studies and practical examples, learners develop skills in drafting, interpreting, and critically assessing contractual terms and disputes within both common law and statutory frameworks.
Recommended Textbook
Business Law with UCC Applications 14th Edition by Paul A. Sukys
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Ethics, Social Responsibility, and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ sees law and morality as united in a common and fundamental bond.
A) Ethical relativism
B) Social contract theory
C) Utilitarianism
D) Natural law
Answer: D
Q2) If Samantha believes that the primary way to judge whether an action is right or wrong is to use quantification as the primary tool for determining value, she would believe in:
A) market value ethics.
B) social contract theory.
C) utilitarianism.
D) natural law.
Answer: A
Q3) Negative rights derive from an outside source that has emerged within society.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Sources of the Law
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Q1) ____________ includes the freedom of the press, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, and freedom of religion.
A) The Fifth Amendment
B) The Fourth Amendment
C) The Articles of Confederation
D) The First Amendment
Answer: D
Q2) The Articles of Confederation created a strong national government.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Persuasive precedent is a precedent that courts must follow.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The primary objective of law is to maintain harmony, stability, and justice within a society.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Judicial Process and Cyber-Procedure
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Q1) Direct examination of a witness is usually conducted during the ____________ by the ____________.
A) plaintiff's case in chief; plaintiff's attorney
B) voir dire; defendant's attorney
C) plaintiff's case in chief; judge
D) closing statements; jury
Answer: A
Q2) The U.S. federal court system is divided into 13 circuits. D.C. and federal circuits. Each circuit has several district courts.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) ____________ is the power of the court to hear a case based on Internet-related transactions.
A) Science jurisdiction
B) General jurisdiction
C) Cyber-jurisdiction
D) Subject matter jurisdiction
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Alternate Dispute Resolution
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Q1) ADR is most likely to be useful in cases involving:
A) constitutional law.
B) civil rights.
C) contracts.
D) criminal law.
Q2) Which of the following is generally true of arbitration?
A) The arbitrator can make suggestions, but not issue binding decisions.
B) The arbitrator is a non-lawyer from the relevant industry.
C) The arbitrator must be chosen from among the disputing parties.
D) The arbitrator's decision can be appealed in court.
Q3) ____________ is an ADR process by which an agency invites the people and the organizations that would be affected by a new rule to have input into the writing of that rule.
A) Med-arb
B) Negotiated rulemaking
C) A private civil trial
D) Mediation
Q4) Arbitration and mediation can usually be scheduled quicker than litigation.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Criminal Law and Cybercrimes
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Q1) Mark enjoys hacking into the computer databases of companies, but never takes or damages any data. Mark has violated which of the following statutes?
A) Access Device Fraud Act
B) Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
C) Wiretap Act
D) Mark has not violated any statute, since there is no damage.
Q2) Agnes, a convenience store cashier, takes $5 out of the register for every $100 she rings up and keeps it. Agnes could be arrested for:
A) extortion.
B) embezzlement.
C) burglary.
D) robbery.
Q3) Brooke sends e-mails to customers of a local bank, directing them to a website that she has created, which appears to be the website of the bank. The customers are directed to update their banking information by entering their credit and personal information. Analyze the crime for which Brooke can be convicted.
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Chapter 6: Tort Law and Cybertorts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proximate cause is the same as "cause in fact."
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____________ demonstrates that "but for" the defendant's actions, the plaintiff would not have been injured.
A) Proximate cause
B) Actual cause
C) Legal cause
D) The foreseeability test
Q3) Celeste, a former governor who is running for President, can successfully sue a tabloid for defamation by merely proving the statements printed in the tabloid are false.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Shopkeeper's privilege allows a store owner to detain a shopper without suspicion that an incident has occurred.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: The Essentials of Contract Law
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Q1) Pumping gas into a car at a self-service gas station would be an example of an implied-in-law contract.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Henrietta offers a $500 reward for the return of Fifi, her lost dog. Silas finds and returns the dog. This is an example of a(n):
A) bilateral contract.
B) unilateral contract.
C) quasi-contract.
D) unenforceable contract.
Q3) When contracting parties accept mutual obligations through oral discussion, they have created an implied contract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The (Uniform Commercial Code) UCC is a model code designed to unify statutes governing almost all commercial transactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Offer, Acceptance, and Mutual Assent
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Q1) Anthony offers to sell a computer to Salvador for $900 if Salvador replies by e-mail only, sent no later than noon on Saturday. On Saturday, Salvador is unable to access his e-mail, so he mails an acceptance at the post office before noon. Which of the following is true of the situation?
A) A legal contract exists since Salvador's acceptance was sent by noon on Saturday. B) No contract exists since Salvador's acceptance is not effective until reviewed.
C) Anthony is legally bound to the contract since Salvador's e-mail malfunction was no fault of his own.
D) A legal contract does not exist since the mode of acceptance specified in the offer was not used.
Q2) Todd offered in writing on Monday to sell his desk to Mike for $150. Todd's offer stated that unless Mike rejected Todd's offer by Thursday, it would be considered accepted. Mike did not reply until Saturday, when he rejected the offer and refused to buy the desk. Todd insists that Mike is bound to purchase the desk, since he did not reject the offer by Thursday. Discuss the validity of the contract and the legal obligation of Mike.
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Chapter 9: Consideration and Cyber-Payments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The issue in the Classic Case, Hamer v. Sidway, involved the question of legal detriment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The legal term used to describe the sacrifice that each party must experience is that party's bargained-for-exchange.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Today, promises under seal are:
A) enforceable in some states for contracts not involving goods.
B) enforceable under the UCC for contracts involving goods.
C) enforceable under the UCC if made by a merchant, in writing, stating the time period over which the offer will remain open.
D) unenforceable as a consideration in a new contract.
Q4) Alan promises to pay a debt that was discharged in bankruptcy. This promise requires new consideration under state laws in most cases.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Capacity and Legality: The Final Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Special statutes allow small loan companies, pawn shops, and other lending agencies that accept high-risk applicants for credit to charge a higher rate of interest. A)True
B)False
Q2) Eve, an experienced automotive engineer, signs a ____________ agreement with her employer, Environmental Auto Co., that she will never work in the auto industry after she leaves employment with Environmental. A court considering this agreement will
A) noncompete; declare it void as geographical area is not specified B) restrictive employment; enforce the agreement in any event C) noncompete; only enforce the agreement if it resulted from a bargained-for exchange
D) noncompete; enforce the agreement only if such agreements are customary in the auto industry
Q3) A person's contractual obligations may be voidable if that person suffers from a mental impairment that prevents him or her from acting in a reasonable manner. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Written Contracts and Cyber-Commerce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Star Software Systems and Henry orally agree for Henry to write special accounting software. This software usually takes three years to complete, but can be done sooner. Does Henry have an enforceable legal agreement with Star?
A) Yes, the agreement is enforceable because Henry could possibly complete writing the software within a year.
B) No, the agreement is unenforceable because it is not written and signed.
C) Yes, the agreement is enforceable, but only to the extent of work Henry completes within the first year of the contract.
D) No, the agreement is unenforceable since the contract involves a tangible work product.
Q2) The provisions of Article 2 of the Uniform Commercial Code apply when a cyber-agreement deals with the sale of goods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the Statute of Frauds, written agreements must always be signed by both parties.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Third Parties, Discharge, and Remedies
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Q1) John, a highly skilled mechanic specializing in Jabooti motorcycles, agrees to repair Gladys' Jabooti's motorcycle, but when he becomes ill, he transfers that responsibility to Clark, a friend of his. The transfer to Clark is called a(n): A) assignment.
B) delegation.
C) novation.
D) conveyance.
Q2) Better Houses, Inc. has been contracted to build an addition on the Joyners' house. It built half of the addition and then unexpectedly announced that it was not going to finish the job. Better Houses' decision to stop the job is called a(n):
A) constructive breach of contract.
B) substantial performance.
C) abandonment of contractual obligations.
D) repudiation of contract.
Q3) Jackson transfers his business accounts receivable to Friendly Finance Company. Friendly would be considered the assignee.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Sales Contracts: Formation, Title, and Risk of Loss
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Q1) ____________ is a method of commercial dealing that is commonly used in a particular field or industry.
A) Usage of trade
B) Contract for sale
C) Good faith
D) Firm offer
Q2) Mike and Jane contract to purchase and sell $1,000,000 worth of computer chips to be manufactured in Japan and shipped to San Francisco. The contract is silent about the method of delivery. Mike asserts that delivery is by ship, which is customary in the computer chip industry, but Jane insists that delivery is by air, which is what a previous contract between Mike and Jane provided. Explain how a court will resolve this dispute.
Q3) The seller is said to have a security interest in shipped goods if the agreement between the buyer and seller allows the seller to retain title after the goods are shipped.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In an auction with reserve, the auctioneer must accept the highest bid.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Sales Contracts Rights, Duties, Breach, and Warranties
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Q1) When Zachary purchased an Arctic Refrigerator from Best Bargain Store, the refrigerator came with a 36-month written full warranty. When the refrigerator malfunctioned, Zachary discovered that he was expected to ship the refrigerator at his expense to the Arctic factory in China where it was manufactured. There would be a four-month delay until he received his repaired refrigerator back from the factory. Discuss if these requirements to exercise the full warranty are lawful.
Q2) Brenner entered into a written contract with the Inkblot Corporation for $1,000 worth of office supplies. Inkblot subsequently sent Brenner some supplies that were not requested in the contract. Brenner noticed that the order did not match the contract, but he accepted the nonconforming goods. Which of the following is true of this situation?
A) The Inkblot Corporation must cure the improper tender.
B) Inkblot is not required to cure the improper delivery since it has been accepted.
C) Brenner can reject the goods without informing Inkblot of the defect in the supply.
D) Brenner can accept the goods and through the court, obligate the Inkblot Corporation to cure the improper delivery.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Product Liability and Consumer Protection
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Q1) Justin, who is on a business trip 500 miles away from home, decides to try a "free" Internet service that requires a credit card number and ends up costing $275. Justin wants to contest this charge. Explain in detail what he should do.
Q2) Under the ____________, sellers must ship orders within the time promised in their advertisements. If no time period is promised, sellers must either ship the order within 30 days or send the consumer an option notice.
A) telemarketing sales rule
B) negative option rule
C) Cooling-Off Rule
D) Mail and Telephone Order Rule
Q3) Which of the following is not a requirement for strict product liability?
A) The product must be in a defective condition when the defendant sells it.
B) The product must be unreasonably dangerous to the user or consumer because of its defective condition.
C) The defective condition must be the proximate cause of the injury or damage.
D) The defective condition of the goods must have been changed from the time the product was sold to the time the injury occurred.
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Chapter 16: The Nature of Negotiable Instruments
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Q1) An envelope containing a $10 rebate check was placed in Hart's mailbox by mistake. It was addressed to Rice, a former tenant, and read, "Pay to the bearer or G. Rice, $10.00." Discuss Hart's role. Hart is the holder of the check. A holder is a person who is in possession of a negotiable instrument that is issued or indorsed to that person's order or to bearer. When an instrument is payable to "a specified person or bearer," it is payable to the bearer.
Q2) A ____________ check is a check drawn by one bank on another bank in which it has funds on deposit in favor of a third person, the payee.
A) traveler's
B) teller's
C) cashier's
D) certified
Q3) Ashe indorses an order instrument in the following manner: "Pay to Big Bank, for deposit only, Ashe." Discuss the types of indorsements and the legal implications the instrument represents.
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18
Chapter 17: Holders in Due Course Defenses and Liabilities
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Q1) To be a holder in due course, the person in possession of the instrument must first be an indorser.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If Xena writes a check in pencil that is subsequently altered by Mutley, Xena has recourse against her bank that paid the altered check.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On May 15, 2015, Jason indorsed a check dated January 15, 2015, and payable by him to ALS Check Cashing Service. ALS:
A) can be a holder in due course, even though the check is antedated.
B) cannot be a holder in due course as it has notice that the instrument is overdue.
C) cannot be a holder in due course only if ALS contacted the drawer who agreed to honor the check.
D) can be a holder in due course only if ALS contacted the drawee who agreed to honor the check.
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Chapter 18: Bank-Depositor Relationships and Cyber-Banking
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Q1) An oral stop payment ordered by a drawer is valid:
A) for 14 calendar days only.
B) if it is received in time and in such a manner as to afford the bank a reasonable opportunity to act on it.
C) for only one year, unless renewed in writing.
D) only on limited items payable on his or her account, and cannot be used for checks with a value of $500 and above.
Q2) If a bank uses a substitute check, it makes which of the following warranties?
A) It is not a legal equivalent of the original check.
B) It contains an accurate image of the front and back of the original check.
C) The drawer, indorser, or the depositary bank will be asked to pay a check that has already been paid.
D) Original checks have to be presented to the drawee bank for payment.
Q3) A(n) ____________ is a check that is presented for payment more than six months after its date.
A) overdraft
B) postdated check
C) antedated check
D) stale check
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Insurance
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Q1) Malone purchased a painting by Van Gogh and took out a $1 million insurance policy on it. He later sold the painting, but continued to make payments on the policy. When the painting was destroyed by vandals, Malone tried to collect $1 million from the insurance company. Evaluate the situation.
Q2) During inflationary times, when bank interest rates are high, insurance policies are usually poor sources for loans at low interest rates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In most states, an innocent misrepresentation by the insured would make the policy: A) voidable by the insurer.
B) voidable by the beneficiary.
C) enforceable, since there was no intentional misconduct.
D) enforceable to a reasonable amount as determined by the court.
Q4) Insurance transfers the risk of economic loss from the insured to the insurance company.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Mortgages and Security Interests
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Q1) A(n) ____________ occurs when the ____________.
A) attachment; secured party does not sign a security agreement
B) securitization; debtor has no ownership rights in the collateral
C) attachment; secured party transfers something of value to the debtor
D) floating lien; secured party gives possession of the collateral
Q2) A security agreement can either be oral or in writing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a borrower does not qualify for a conventional mortgage, he might ask for and receive a subprime loan.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Only personal property can be used to secure a debt.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A deed of trust is requires court action to sell property upon default of the debtor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Bankruptcy and Debt Adjustment
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Q1) Under Chapter 13 of the Bankruptcy Code a debtor must begin payments within a period of ____________ from submission.
A) three days
B) thirteen days
C) thirty days
D) thirty-three days
Q2) Joseph owes $15,000 to Carmel Enterprises, $8,500 to Vulcan Co., $11,000 to David and $11,500 to Sigma Enterprises. He has not been making payments on these debts for the past 20 months. Which of these creditors can force Joseph into involuntary bankruptcy?
A) Carmel Enterprises only
B) Carmel Enterprises and David only
C) Carmel Enterprises, Sigma Enterprises, David, and Vulcan Co.
D) Sigma Enterprises, David and Vulcan Co. only
Q3) In a ____________, a qualified debtor creates a plan that alters the repayment schedule.
A) firm offer
B) requirements contract
C) reorganization
D) contract for sale
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Chapter 22: Agency Law
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Q1) An agent must terminate an agency relationship by a written revocation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Allison is an attorney representing Big Co. in trademark litigation. Allison fails to conduct market research in advance of the trial to determine the extent to which consumers identify with the trademark associated with Big Co. Big Co. loses the litigation under a finding that the trademark is generic and not uniquely associated with it. Has Allison violated any duty she owed Big Co.? Discuss.
Q3) An agent's duty of loyalty means she likely cannot act for:
A) more than one principal.
B) two principals in the same transaction.
C) more than one year for the same principal.
D) an undisclosed principal.
Q4) Tom is a real estate agent for Great Housing Co., which plans to purchase and build on a plot of land near Leadville. Tom learns that the building site may have been polluted with lead, but does not inform Great Housing Co. Great Housing Co. purchases the land and discovers the pollution when construction starts. Great Housing Co. asserts that it did not know of the lead pollution and should not be required to pay the clean-up cost. Discuss Great Housing's assertion.
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Chapter 23: Employment Law
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Q1) Blyth Enterprises' male managers are paid $25 per hour, but female managers are paid $22 per hour. If the jobs are substantially equal, Blyth must pay the female managers $25 per hour.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An employer can rightfully refuse employee benefits to a pregnant woman on the grounds that she is unable to discharge her duties properly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If Big Co. wrongfully discharges Max, but later discovers that Max has been stealing petty cash, Big Co. can use this as an after-acquired evidence defense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Workers at Titan Industries are concerned that employment-at-will allow Titan to act arbitrarily and without any procedure or progressive discipline when firing workers. Discuss what legal remedies, if any, are available to the workers.
Q5) John takes leave under FMLA. Discuss the obligations of John's employer to John.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Labor Law
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Q1) A "hot-cargo" contract allows a union to handle stolen property that has been recovered by the police and sold at a police auction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hamyes Chemical Works allows its employees to be exposed to certain chemicals. George, an employee, reports this to his union and agrees to testify when the union brings a claim that this is in violation of a union contract. George is immediately discharged from the job. Haymes Chemical Works: A) has rightly discharged George as his act amounted to breach of trust.
B) would be liable for legal action under the Wagner Act.
C) could be charged with coercion and harassment under the Taft-Hartley Act. D) is protected under the First Amendment.
Q3) Brigg Co. asked its employees to refrain from joining the Moderate Union. It promised an out-of-turn promotion for all employees who would refrain from joining the union. Big Co. has committed no legal offense by this act.
A)True
B)False
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Sole Proprietorships and Partnerships
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Q1) Charlotte is declared mentally incompetent by a court and is unable to participate as a partner in AMLAP Enterprises. Charlotte wants to leave the AMLAP partnership, but is contractually obligated for three more years. Can Charlotte leave the AMLAP partnership?
A) Yes, she can do so without any liability to the partnership.
B) No, there is no right to leave.
C) Yes, she has a right to leave, but is liable for breach of contract.
D) No, there is no right to leave unless all the partners agree.
Q2) In the Opening Case, PNC Bank vs. Michael Farinacci, the main issue was whether the defendants be held jointly liable under the old law (UPA) or jointly and severally liable under the new law (RUPA).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Todd and Walker form a venture to operate snow cone stands in Smallville. The stands are only open for five warm weather months. The remainder of the year, Todd and Walker do no business together. Discuss the legal status of their business.
Q4) A partnership is the easiest business organization to form.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Corporate Entity
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Q1) Limited liability means that shareholders cannot be held personally liable for the debts of the corporation, but may still lose the amount of their capital investment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A&B, a general partnership, wants to become "A&B, LLC." "A&B Co." is already in use by another business, and the state agency refuses to allow the new corporation to use the name "A&B." Discuss how A&B should proceed.
Q3) Henry, a promoter, signs a five-year lease agreement for office space for Ajax Corp., which has not yet been formed. After formation, Ajax moves into the office space, pays rent and occupies it for six months, but then finds a cheaper location and moves out. Which party is liable on the lease?
A) Henry
B) Ajax
C) No one, since it was a tenancy at will
D) Both Henry and Ajax
Q4) LLCs are not usually subjected to double taxation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Corporate Governance
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Q1) ____________ is based on the belief that because corporate decision making influences more individuals and groups than just the shareholders and the managers, corporate decisions should be made by an impartial group of corporate outsiders.
A) Corporate democracy
B) Governmental control
C) Shareholder democratic control
D) Independent director control
Q2) Those who support governmental control demand that the government have a seat in every corporate boardroom in America.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The manager of a manager-run LLC is protected by the business judgment rule, but not the fairness rule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Shareholder proposals are considered to be the strongest of all shareholder voting tactics.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 28: Government Regulation of Corporate Business
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Q1) The first major expansion of the Commerce Clause of the U.S. Constitution was done through which of these?
A) The Dodd Frank Act
B) Wickard v. Filburn
C) Gibbons v. Ogden
D) The Securities Exchange Act
Q2) Greenmail is an offer by a target corporation to the bidder to acquire a portion of the shares, which are already held by the bidder, at a price greater than when it was originally sold.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A derivative is a financial tool that can be used to manage risks in the stock market.
A)True
B)False
Q4) NewCo. plans to sell stock to investors with a website offer form. Discuss the federal securities regulations, if any, with which NewCo. must comply.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Personal Property and Bailments
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Q1) If Phil finds an iPhone in the men's room at a restaurant, it is most likely ____________ and Phil should ____________.
A) lost; leave it with the restaurant manager
B) abandoned; leave it with the restaurant manager
C) stolen; personally return it to the owner
D) misplaced; leave it with the restaurant manager
Q2) Matthew opens a checking account with Big Bank in the state of Blue. His National Guard unit is activated for military duty, and Matthew is sent abroad. He makes no deposits to or withdrawals from the account for fifteen months. Matthew gets married and moves to the state of Red when released from active service. May Big Bank or Blue lawfully assert a claim to Matthew's checking account?
Q3) When personal property is owned solely by one person, it is said to be owned in co-tenancy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) John and Marsha park their car in the BigCinema parking lot. They have created a bailment with BigCinema.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Real Property and Landlord and Tenant Law
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Q1) A ____________ is designed to permit the ____________ of a plot of land to recover ____________ rights that have not been utilized by a purchaser of such rights for a long period of time, usually longer than 20 years.
A) dormant minerals statute: lessor; mineral
B) dormant minerals statute; surface owner; mineral
C) fee simple defeasible; surface owner; mineral
D) lease agreement; lessor; minerals
Q2) A lease agreement may give the tenant which, if any, of the following rights?
A) Right to rent control
B) Right to require a security deposit
C) Right to renew or purchase
D) Neither the right to renew or purchase
Q3) Uta, Piper, and Hoku own 1,000 acres of land as tenants in common. Part of the land borders an interstate highway, another part borders a farm-to-market road, and part is scarred with deep erosion and gullies. The three want to divide the land into separate parcels for each of them, but cannot agree. Discuss how a court will resolve the problem.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Wills, Trusts, and Advanced Directives
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Q1) Parents are legally obligated to leave their property to their children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A codicil is considered invalid if it does not refer to the existing will to which it applies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Darius wrote a will leaving his property in equal shares "to all my friends" which he dated and signed. Is the will valid?
A) Yes, most likely, since the document expresses Darius' intent.
B) Probably not, since the language of the will is ambiguous.
C) Yes, since he has dated and signed it.
D) No, since there is a numerical limit to the number of legal heirs.
Q4) In 1990, in the case known as ____________, the United States Supreme Court ruled that the right to die was guaranteed by the due process clause of the United States Constitution.
A) Cruzon v. Director, Missouri Department of Health
B) Roe v. Wade
C) Gonzalez, Attorney General v. Oregon
D) Windsor v. United States
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Chapter 32: Professional Liability
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Q1) Eva, a Mercy Hospital patient, received medication intended for another patient and, as a result, suffered severe complications. In a malpractice case against Mercy, regarding the administering of the wrong medication to Eva, most likely expert testimony:
A) will be required.
B) will be required only if it happened once.
C) will not be required only if the other patient was in a different area of the hospital.
D) will not be required.
Q2) A patient's general consent for routine tests and procedures can be implied when she enters the hospital.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Charlie, a high school dropout, works as an accountant for Small Co. Discuss if the state may prevent Charlie from working as an accountant due to his lack of education and failure to meet state registration requirements.
Q4) A disclaimer is a type of qualified opinion.
A)True
B)False
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34
Chapter 33: The Intersection of Law and Science
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Q1) John is a mechanical engineer. He has designed a car which uses water rather than fossil fuel to run. Is John's invention eligible to be patented?
Q2) The three issues that author Robert Heilbroner thought would challenge the existence of the human race are: (1) ____________, (2) the challenge of uncontrolled population growth, and (3) the destruction of the environment.
A) terrorism
B) nuclear war
C) incurable communicable diseases
D) death of the sun
Q3) Lashkar-e-Taiba is one of the largest and most active, militant Islamist terrorist organizations in South Asia, operating mainly from Pakistan. The organization is banned as a terrorist organization by India, Pakistan, the United States, the United Kingdom, and the European Union. Lashkar-e Taiba has attacked civilian and military targets in India, most notably the 2008 Mumbai attacks and the 2001 Indian Parliament attack. While discussing the exercise of international power by nongovernmental international organizations (NIOs), how does one categorize Lashkar-e-Taiba?
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Page 35
Chapter 34: International Law
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Q1) A civilization with a recognized central state is generally less stable and more war-like than one without a recognized central state.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The comprehensive trade coalition involving the United States, Canada, and Mexico is known as the:
A) Uruguay Round Agreements.
B) North American Free Trade Agreement.
C) Geneva Conventions.
D) United Nations Conventions.
Q3) ____________ is a universal normative principle that follows a set pattern that can be used to understand natural processes or human behavior.
A) Neoconservativism
B) Neoliberalism
C) Realpolitik
D) A covering law
Q4) NAFTA is designed to establish a trading market free from tariff barriers.
A)True
B)False
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